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Question 1
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A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?Your Answer: Rectal involvement
Explanation:Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.
Rectal Involvement
UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.Transmural Inflammation
Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.Duodenal Involvement
UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.Symptoms and Severity
Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 55-year-old obese woman, who recently returned from a trip to Japan, presents with chronic diarrhoea, fatigue, and greasy, bulky stools. She is a non-smoker and non-drinker who consumes meat. Stool examination confirms steatorrhoea, and blood tests reveal elevated folic acid levels and reduced vitamin B12 levels. The only abnormal finding on a CT scan of the abdomen is multiple diverticula in the jejunum. What is the most likely cause of this patient's macrocytic anaemia?
Your Answer: Increased utilisation of vitamin B12 by bacteria
Explanation:Causes of Vitamin B12 Deficiency: An Overview
Vitamin B12 deficiency can be caused by various factors, including bacterial overgrowth syndrome, acquired deficiency of intrinsic factor, chronic pancreatic insufficiency, dietary deficiency, and fish tapeworm infestation.
Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome: This disorder is characterized by the proliferation of colonic bacteria in the small bowel, resulting in diarrhea, steatorrhea, and macrocytic anemia. The bacteria involved are usually Escherichia coli or Bacteroides, which can convert conjugated bile acids to unconjugated bile acids, leading to impaired micelle formation and steatorrhea. The bacteria also utilize vitamin B12, causing macrocytic anemia.
Acquired Deficiency of Intrinsic Factor: This condition is seen in pernicious anemia, which does not have diarrhea or steatorrhea.
Chronic Pancreatic Insufficiency: This is most commonly associated with chronic pancreatitis caused by high alcohol intake or cystic fibrosis. However, in this case, the patient has no history of alcohol intake or CF, and blood tests do not reveal hyperglycemia. CT abdomen can detect calcification of the pancreas, characteristic of chronic pancreatitis.
Dietary Deficiency of Vitamin B12: This is unlikely in non-vegetarians like the patient in this case.
Fish Tapeworm Infestation: This infestation can cause vitamin B12 deficiency, but it is more common in countries where people commonly eat raw freshwater fish. In this case, the presence of diarrhea, steatorrhea, and CT abdomen findings suggestive of jejunal diverticula make bacterial overgrowth syndrome more likely.
In conclusion, vitamin B12 deficiency can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
submucosal mass within the
stomach
Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma
Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma
Explanation:Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions
Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old medical student is worried that she might have coeliac disease after learning about it during her gastroenterology rotation. She schedules an appointment with her GP to address her concerns, and the GP orders routine blood tests and coeliac serology as the initial investigation. What is the most frequently linked condition to coeliac disease?
Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:Coeliac Disease and Common Associated Conditions
Coeliac disease is an autoimmune disorder that causes the small intestine villi to atrophy upon exposure to gliadin, resulting in malabsorption syndrome and steatorrhoea. This condition often leads to deficiencies in iron, other minerals, nutrients, and fat-soluble vitamins. While the incidence of gastrointestinal malignancies is increased in people with coeliac disease, it is a relatively rare occurrence. Dermatitis herpetiformis, an itchy, vesicular rash, is commonly linked to coeliac disease and managed with a gluten-free diet. Osteoporosis is also common due to malabsorption of calcium and vitamin D. Infertility is not commonly associated with coeliac disease, especially in those on a gluten-free diet. However, untreated coeliac disease may have an impact on fertility, but results of studies are inconclusive. The most common associated condition with coeliac disease is iron deficiency anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Correct
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An 82-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with a 4-month history of progressively worsening jaundice. His wife says that she noticed it a while ago, but her husband has been reluctant to come to see the GP. The man does not complain of any abdominal pain and on examination no masses are felt. He agrees when asked by the GP that he has lost quite some weight recently. The patient has a strong alcohol history and has been smoking 20 cigarettes daily since he was in his twenties. The GP refers the patient to secondary care.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Painless Jaundice in a Patient with Risk Factors for Pancreatic Cancer
This patient presents with painless jaundice, which is most suggestive of obstructive jaundice due to a tumour in the head of the pancreas. The patient also has strong risk factors for pancreatic cancer, such as smoking and alcohol. However, other conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis, such as chronic cholecystitis, chronic pancreatitis, cholangiocarcinoma, and chronic liver disease.
Chronic cholecystitis is unlikely to be the cause of painless jaundice, as it typically presents with colicky abdominal pain and gallstones on ultrasound. Chronic pancreatitis is a possible diagnosis, given the patient’s risk factors, but it usually involves abdominal pain and fatty diarrhoea. Cholangiocarcinoma is a rare cancer that develops in the bile ducts and can cause jaundice, abdominal pain, and itching. Primary sclerosing cholangitis is a risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma. Chronic liver disease is also a possible consequence of alcohol abuse, but it usually involves other signs such as nail clubbing, palmar erythema, and spider naevi.
Therefore, a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, physical examination, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to confirm the diagnosis of pancreatic cancer and rule out other potential causes of painless jaundice. Early detection and treatment of pancreatic cancer are crucial for improving the patient’s prognosis and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?
Your Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications
Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.
On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 54-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse presents with malaise and decreased urine output. Upon examination, he appears jaundiced and his catheterized urine output is only 5 ml per hour. Laboratory results show low urinary sodium and elevated urine osmolality compared to serum osmolality. Blood tests reveal elevated liver enzymes, bilirubin, and creatinine. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Hepatorenal syndrome
Explanation:Hepatorenal Syndrome
Hepatorenal syndrome is a severe medical condition that can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition occurs due to changes in the circulation that supplies the intestines, which alters the blood flow and tone in vessels supplying the kidney. As a result, the liver’s deranged function causes Hepatorenal syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Unfortunately, the only treatment for this condition is liver transplantation.
While hepatitis B can present as membranous glomerulonephritis, it is unlikely in this case due to the known history of alcoholic liver disease. Acute tubular necrosis is also possible, which can result from toxic medication and reduced blood pressure to the kidney in individuals with cirrhosis. However, in acute tubular necrosis, urine and sodium osmolality are raised compared to Hepatorenal syndrome, where the urine and serum sodium osmolality are low. Additionally, one would expect to see muddy-brown casts or hyaline casts on urine microscopy in someone with acute tubular necrosis.
In conclusion, Hepatorenal syndrome is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function and can be life-threatening. While other conditions such as hepatitis B and acute tubular necrosis can present similarly, they have distinct differences that can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?Your Answer: Bromocriptine
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide
Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.
Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 56-year-old man presents with progressively worsening dysphagia, which is worse for food than liquid. He has lost several stones in weight and, on examination, he is cachexia. An oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD) confirms oesophageal cancer.
Which of the following is the strongest risk factor for oesophageal adenocarcinoma?Your Answer: Barrett's oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Oesophageal Cancer
Oesophageal cancer is a type of cancer that is becoming increasingly common. It often presents with symptoms such as dysphagia, weight loss, and retrosternal chest pain. Adenocarcinomas, which are the most common type of oesophageal cancer, typically develop in the lower third of the oesophagus due to inflammation related to gastric reflux.
One of the risk factors for oesophageal cancer is Barrett’s oesophagus, which is the metaplasia of the squamous epithelium of the lower oesophagus when exposed to an acidic environment. This adaptive change significantly increases the risk of malignant change. Treatment options for Barrett’s oesophagus include ablative or excisional therapy and acid-lowering medications. Follow-up with repeat endoscopy every 2–5 years is required.
Blood group A is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is associated with a 20% higher risk of stomach cancer compared to those with blood group O. A diet low in calcium is also not a risk factor for oesophageal carcinoma, but consumption of red meat is classified as a possible cause of oesophageal cancer. Those with the highest red meat intake have a 57% higher risk of oesophageal squamous cell carcinoma compared to those with the lowest intake.
Ulcerative colitis is not a risk factor for oesophageal cancer, but it is a risk factor for bowel cancer. On the other hand, alcohol is typically a risk factor for squamous cell carcinomas. Understanding these risk factors can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk of developing oesophageal cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 45-year-old accountant presents with right upper quadrant pain and abnormal liver function tests. An ultrasound scan reveals a dilated common bile duct. The patient undergoes an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure. During the procedure, the consultant asks you to identify the location of the Ampulla of Vater, which is cannulated. Can you tell me where the Ampulla of Vater enters the bowel?
Your Answer: Descending (second part) duodenum
Explanation:The Parts of the Duodenum: A Brief Overview
The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine and is divided into four parts. Each part has its own unique characteristics and functions.
Superior (first part) duodenum: This is the first part of the duodenum that connects the stomach to the small intestine.
Descending (second part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater, where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct enter the duodenum, is located in this part. It is cannulated during ERCP to access the biliary tree.
Inferior (third part) duodenum: The ampulla of Vater does not join this part, but rather the second part.
Ascending (fourth part) duodenum: This is the last part of the duodenum that joins the jejunum, the second part of the small intestine.
Understanding the different parts of the duodenum is important for diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old man (with known metastatic pancreatic cancer) presented with severe obstructive jaundice and signs of hepatic encephalopathy. He was treated with a biliary stent (percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)) and discharged when his jaundice, confusion and pruritus had started to improve. He re-presented shortly after discharge with rigors, pyrexia and feeling generally unwell. His blood cultures showed Gram-negative rods.
What is the most likely cause of his current presentation?Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Fever and Rigors in a Patient with a Biliary Stent
Introduction:
A patient with a biliary stent inserted via endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) presents with fever and rigors. This article discusses the possible causes of these symptoms.Possible Causes:
1. Ascending Cholangitis: This is the most likely option as the patient’s biliary stent and the ERCP procedure are both well-known risk factors for acute cholangitis. The obstruction caused by the stent can lead to recurrent biliary sepsis, which can be life-threatening and requires prompt treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics and IV fluids.2. Lower Respiratory Tract Infection: Sedation and endoscopy increase the risk of pulmonary infection, particularly aspiration. However, the biliary stent itself is the biggest risk factor, and the patient’s symptoms point towards ascending cholangitis.
3. Hepatitis: This is an unlikely cause of fever and rigors as there are no risk factors for common causes of acute hepatitis, and Gram-negative rods are not a common cause of hepatitis.
4. Metastatic Pancreatic Cancer: While this condition can increase the risk of infection due to immunocompromised, it does not fully explain the patient’s presentation as it would not cause frank fever and rigors.
5. Pyelonephritis: This bacterial infection of the kidney can cause pyrexia, rigors, and malaise, with Gram-negative rods, especially E. coli, as common causes. However, the recent biliary stent insertion puts this patient at high risk of ascending cholangitis.
Conclusion:
In conclusion, the most likely cause of fever and rigors in a patient with a biliary stent is ascending cholangitis. However, other possible causes should also be considered and ruled out through appropriate diagnostic tests. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old alcoholic presents to the Emergency Department with retrosternal chest pain, shortness of breath and pain on swallowing after a heavy drinking session the night before. He reports having vomited several times this morning, after which the pain started. He denies any blood in the vomit and has no melaena. On examination, he is febrile and tachypnoeic and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. A chest X-ray reveals a left-sided pneumothorax and air within the mediastinum.
Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate management to treat the underlying cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Urgent surgery
Explanation:Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture
Suspected oesophageal rupture is a medical emergency that requires urgent intervention. This condition is more common in patients with a history of alcohol excess and can be associated with a triad of vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema. Symptoms include retrosternal chest/epigastric pain, tachypnoea, fever, pain on swallowing, and shock. A chest X-ray reveals gas within soft tissue spaces, pneumomediastinum, left pleural effusion, and left-sided pneumothorax. Without rapid treatment, the condition can be fatal.
Antibiotics are necessary to treat the infection that may result from oesophageal rupture. However, they will not address the underlying cause of the infection.
Chest drain insertion is not the correct management for pneumothorax secondary to oesophageal rupture. A chest drain would not resolve the underlying cause, and air would continue to enter the pleural cavity via the oesophagus.
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. PPIs would be the correct management for a suspected perforated ulcer. However, the history of acute-onset pain following vomiting is more in keeping with oesophageal rupture.
Urgent endoscopy is not appropriate for suspected oesophageal rupture. Endoscopy risks further oesophageal perforation, and there is no report of haematemesis or melaena, making this a less likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.
Management of Suspected Oesophageal Rupture: Antibiotics, Chest Drain Insertion, PPIs, and Endoscopy
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. The pain radiates through to her back and began 2 hours ago while she was out with her friends in a restaurant. She has a past medical history of gallstones and asthma.
Which test should be used to confirm this woman’s diagnosis?Your Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption. Its symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While serum amylase is widely used for diagnosis, serum lipase is preferred where available. Serum lactate is a useful marker for organ perfusion and can indicate the severity of the inflammatory response. A raised white cell count, particularly neutrophilia, is associated with a poorer prognosis. Serum calcium levels may also be affected, but this is not a specific test for pancreatitis. Blood glucose levels may be abnormal, with hyperglycemia being common, but this is not diagnostic of acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her GP takes liver function tests (LFTs): bilirubin 41 μmol/l, AST 46 iu/l, ALT 56 iu/l, GGT 241 iu/l, ALP 198 iu/l. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. What is the next best investigation?
Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan abdomen
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen
Explanation:Investigations for Obstructive Jaundice
Obstructive jaundice can be caused by various conditions, including gallstones, pancreatic cancer, and autoimmune liver diseases like PSC or PBC. An obstructive/cholestatic picture is indicated by raised ALP and GGT levels compared to AST or ALT. The first-line investigation for obstruction is an ultrasound of the abdomen, which is cheap, simple, non-invasive, and readily available. It can detect intra- or extrahepatic duct dilation, liver size, shape, consistency, gallstones, and neoplasia in the pancreas. An autoantibody screen may help narrow down potential diagnoses, but an ultrasound provides more information. A CT scan may be requested after ultrasound to provide a more detailed anatomical picture. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for biliary obstruction, but it has complications and risks associated with sedation. The PABA test is used to diagnose pancreatic insufficiency, which can cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, or diabetes mellitus.
Investigating Obstructive Jaundice
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 42-year-old man comes in after being found unconscious. He smells strongly of alcohol.
When considering withdrawal from this substance, which of the following statements is correct?Your Answer: Hypophosphataemia is commonly seen
Explanation:Misconceptions about Alcohol Withdrawal: Debunked
Alcohol withdrawal is a common condition that can lead to serious complications if not managed properly. However, there are several misconceptions about alcohol withdrawal that can lead to inappropriate treatment and poor outcomes. Let’s debunk some of these misconceptions:
1. Hypophosphataemia is commonly seen: This is true. Hypophosphataemia is a common electrolyte abnormality in alcohol withdrawal due to malnutrition.
2. Visual hallucinations suggest a coexisting psychiatric disorder: This is false. Visual hallucinations in alcohol withdrawal are usually related to alcohol withdrawal and not necessarily a coexisting psychiatric disorder.
3. Flumazenil is routinely used as part of the detoxification process: This is false. Flumazenil is not routinely used in alcohol detoxification but may be useful in benzodiazepine overdose.
4. Seizures are rare: This is false. Seizures in alcohol withdrawal are common and can lead to serious complications if not managed properly.
5. All patients who have a seizure should be started on an antiepileptic: This is false. Withdrawal seizures generally do not require antiepileptic treatment and may even increase the risk of further seizures and other medical problems.
In summary, it is important to understand the true nature of alcohol withdrawal and its associated complications to provide appropriate and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman developed sudden-onset, severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. The pain now feels more generalised, and even slight movement makes it worse. She has diminished bowel sounds and exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and board-like rigidity. Her pulse is 110 bpm and blood pressure 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea. She had last taken ibuprofen the day before the pain began.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Perforated Peptic Ulcer
Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to determine the appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) suggests a possible perforated peptic ulcer as the cause of her symptoms.
Perforated peptic ulcer is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can result from the use of NSAIDs. The patient’s symptoms, including increasing generalised abdominal pain that is worse on moving, rebound tenderness, and board-like rigidity, are classic signs of generalised peritonitis. These symptoms suggest urgent surgical review and definitive surgical management.
Other possible causes of abdominal pain, such as acute gastritis, acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, and cholecystitis, have been considered but are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis carefully to ensure appropriate treatment and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with a 6-month history of increasing difficulty with swallowing solid foods. He does not have any problems with swallowing liquids. He has always been overweight but has lost 5 kg in the past few months. He attributes this eating a little less due to his swallowing difficulties. He has a past history of long-term heartburn and indigestion, which he has been self-treating with over-the-counter antacids. The GP is concerned that the patient may have oesophageal cancer.
Which one of the following statements with regard to oesophageal cancer is correct?Your Answer: Achalasia predisposes to squamous carcinoma of the oesophagus
Explanation:Understanding Oesophageal Carcinoma: Risk Factors, Diagnosis, and Prognosis
Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that affects the oesophagus, the muscular tube that connects the throat to the stomach. In this article, we will discuss the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis of oesophageal carcinoma.
Risk Factors
Achalasia, a condition that affects the ability of the oesophagus to move food down to the stomach, and alcohol consumption are associated with squamous carcinoma, which most commonly affects the upper and middle oesophagus. Barrett’s oesophagus, a pre-malignant condition that may lead to squamous carcinoma, and gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) predispose to adenocarcinoma, which occurs in the lower oesophagus.
Diagnosis
Barrett’s oesophagus is a recognised pre-malignant condition that requires acid-lowering therapy and frequent follow-up. Ablative and excisional therapies are available. Most cases are amenable to curative surgery at diagnosis. Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, is an early manifestation of the disease and is typically experienced with solid foods.
Prognosis
Prognosis depends on the stage and grade at diagnosis, but unfortunately, the disease frequently presents once the cancer has spread. Therefore, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving outcomes.
Conclusion
Oesophageal carcinoma is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the risk factors, diagnosis, and prognosis can help individuals take steps to reduce their risk and seek medical attention if symptoms arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to see her GP complaining of persistent abdominal cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea that has been going on for 5 months. She reports no blood in her stools, no unexplained weight loss, and no fatigue. Her medical history includes obesity, but there is no family history of any relevant conditions.
Upon examination, her heart rate is 80 bpm, her blood pressure is 130/75 mmHg, and she has no fever. Both her abdominal and pelvic exams are unremarkable, and there is no pallor or jaundice.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Measure serum CA-125
Explanation:If a woman aged 50 or older presents with persistent symptoms of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), such as cramping, bloating, and diarrhoea, ovarian cancer should be suspected even without other symptoms like unexplained weight loss or fatigue. This is because ovarian cancer often presents with non-specific symptoms similar to IBS and rarely occurs for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. It is important to measure serum CA-125 to help diagnose ovarian cancer. An abdominal and pelvic examination should also be carried out, but if this is normal, measuring CA-125 is the next step. Ultrasound scans of the abdomen and pelvis are recommended once CA-125 has been measured, and if these suggest malignancy, other ultrasounds may be considered under specialist guidance. Measuring anti-TTG antibodies is not necessary in this case, as IBS rarely presents for the first time in patients aged 50 or older. Urgent referral to gastroenterology is not appropriate unless the patient has features of inflammatory bowel disease.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?
Your Answer: 2
Explanation:Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy
The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.
A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.
A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.
A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.
A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.
A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.
Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 40-year-old man returns from a trip to Thailand and experiences fatigue, malaise, loss of appetite, and jaundice. He has no significant medical history and denies excessive alcohol consumption. Upon investigation, his serum total bilirubin is 71 μmol/L (1-22), serum alanine aminotransferase is 195 U/L (5-35), and serum alkaline phosphatase is 100 U/L (45-105). His serum IgM antihepatitis A is negative, but serum IgG antihepatitis A is positive. Additionally, his serum hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) is positive, but serum antibody to hepatitis C is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute hepatitis B
Explanation:Diagnosis of Hepatitis and Leptospirosis
Hepatitis B is a sexually transmitted disease that can be diagnosed by the presence of HBsAg and IgM anti-HBc antibodies. On the other hand, acute hepatitis A can be diagnosed by positive IgM anti-HAV antibodies, while the presence of IgG anti-HAV antibodies indicates that the illness is not caused by HAV. Acute hepatitis C is usually asymptomatic, but can be diagnosed through the demonstration of anti-HCV antibodies or HCV RNA. Meanwhile, acute hepatitis E is characterized by a more pronounced elevation of alkaline phosphatase and can be diagnosed through the presence of serum IgM anti-HEV antibodies.
Leptospirosis, also known as Weil’s disease, is caused by the spirochaete Leptospira and can cause acute hepatitis. It is transmitted through direct contact with infected soil, water, or urine, and can enter the body through skin abrasions or cuts. Diagnosis of leptospirosis is done through an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for Leptospira IgM antibodies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient Department with a few months’ history of increasing malaise, nausea and decreased appetite. She is a known intravenous drug user. During examination, she appears cachectic and unwell. Mild hepatomegaly and icterus of the sclerae are also noted. Blood tests reveal normal bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GT) levels and markedly deranged aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT) levels. She cannot recall her hepatitis B immunisation status. Viral serology is conducted:
Test Patient
HBsAg +ve
Anti-HBsAg -ve
HBcAg +ve
IgM anti-HBcAg -ve
IgG anti-HBcAg +ve
HBeAg +ve
Anti-HBeAg -ve
What is the correct interpretation of this woman’s hepatitis B status?Your Answer: Chronic infection
Explanation:Understanding the serology of hepatitis B virus (HBV) is important for medical exams. HBV is a virus with an envelope and DNA, containing surface protein (HBsAg), core protein (HBcAg), and envelope protein (HBeAg). A positive HBsAg indicates acute or chronic infection, while anti-HBs-positive titres indicate previous immunisation or resolved HBV infection. Anti-HBc IgM rises after 2 months of inoculation and drops after 6 months, while anti-HBc IgG is positive after 4-6 months and remains positive for life, indicating chronic infection. HBeAg was thought to imply high infectivity, but an HBeAg-negative subtype is now recognised. Incubation period shows positive HBsAg, negative anti-HBsAg, presence of HBeAg, and negative IgM and IgG anti-HBcAg. Recovery shows positive anti-HBsAg and raised IgG anti-HBcAg with or without anti-HBeAg. Acute infection shows raised IgM anti-HBcAg with or without raised IgG anti-HBcAg. Recent vaccination shows positive anti-HBsAg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old stockbroker has been experiencing difficulty swallowing solids for the past few months, while having no trouble swallowing liquids. He does not smoke and denies any alcohol consumption. His medical history is unremarkable except for the fact that he has been using antacids and H2-receptor blockers for gastro-oesophageal reflux disease for the past 5 years, with little relief from symptoms. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
What is the probable reason for this man's dysphagia?Your Answer: Lower oesophageal web
Correct Answer: Benign oesophageal stricture
Explanation:Causes of dysphagia: differential diagnosis based on patient history
Dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing, can have various causes, including structural abnormalities, functional disorders, and neoplastic conditions. Based on the patient’s history, several possibilities can be considered. For example, a benign oesophageal stricture may develop in patients with acid gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and can be treated with endoscopic dilation and reflux management. Diffuse oesophageal spasm, on the other hand, may cause dysphagia for both solids and liquids and be accompanied by chest pain. A lower oesophageal web can produce episodic dysphagia when food gets stuck in the distal oesophagus. Oesophageal squamous carcinoma is less likely in a young non-smoking patient, but should not be ruled out entirely. Scleroderma, a connective tissue disorder, may also cause dysphagia along with Raynaud’s phenomenon and skin changes. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and appropriate diagnostic tests are necessary to determine the underlying cause of dysphagia and guide the treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-month history of epigastric pain and weight loss. She mentions that she tried over-the-counter antacids which provided some relief initially, but the pain has got worse. She decided to see her GP after realising she had lost about 5 kg. She denies any vomiting or loose stools. She has never had problems with her stomach before and she has no significant family history. Endoscopy and biopsy are performed; histology shows active inflammation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Duodenal ulcer
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori gastritis
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori gastritis is a common condition that can cause gastritis and peptic ulcers in some individuals. It is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium and can increase the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. Treatment with antibiotics is necessary to eradicate the infection. Invasive carcinoma is unlikely in this patient as they do not have other symptoms associated with it. A duodenal ulcer is possible but not confirmed by the upper GI endoscopy. Crohn’s disease is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms. A gastrointestinal stromal tumour would have been detected during the endoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 67-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a mass on his tongue. He has a history of HIV that is not well-controlled, and he does not follow his medication regimen. During the examination, the doctor observes shaggy, poorly-defined, hardened, slightly raised, and rough plaques on the side of the tongue. The plaques cannot be removed with a tongue blade. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Oral hairy leukoplakia
Explanation:Oral Lesions: Differential Diagnosis and Characteristics
Oral lesions can present in a variety of forms and have different characteristics. In this case, a patient with a history of immunosuppression presents with a white mass on the lateral aspect of the tongue that cannot be scraped off with a tongue blade. This is most consistent with oral hairy leukoplakia, a non-premalignant Epstein-Barr virus-mediated mucocutaneous manifestation that often presents in immunosuppressed patients. Treatment involves antivirals.
Other possible oral lesions include oral discoid lupus erythematosus, which is the oral manifestation of systemic lupus erythematosus and typically presents as punched-out lesions with surrounding erythema. Aphthous ulcers are round or oval-shaped lesions with surrounding erythema that typically occur on the inside of the mouth and can be treated with topical steroids. Oral candidiasis can be scraped off with a tongue blade, making it an unlikely diagnosis in this case. Oral lichen planus is a chronic inflammatory condition that can present as white, lacy patches or erosions on the gingival margin.
In summary, a thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history are necessary to accurately diagnose and treat oral lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Correct
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An unknown middle-aged man was brought to the Emergency Department. He was found wandering aimlessly in the street and his gait was unsteady, suggestive of alcoholism. However, he did not smell of alcohol. He could not answer questions as to his whereabouts and there seemed to be decreased comprehension. He had cheilosis and glossitis. As he was asked to walk along a line to check for tandem gait, he bumped into a stool and it became evident that he could not see clearly. After admission, the next day, the ward nurse reported that the patient had passed stool five times last night and the other patients were complaining of the very foul smell. His blood tests reveal:
Calcium 1.90 (2.20–2.60 mmol/l)
Albumin 40 (35–55 g/l)
PO43− 0.40 (0.70–1.40 mmol/l)
Which of the following treatments is given in this condition?Your Answer: Megadose vitamin E
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms of abetalipoproteinaemia, a rare genetic disorder that results in defective lipoprotein synthesis and fat malabsorption. This leads to deficiencies in fat-soluble vitamins, including vitamin E, which is responsible for the neurological symptoms and visual problems. Vitamin A deficiency may also contribute to visual problems, while vitamin D deficiency can cause low calcium and phosphate levels and metabolic bone disease. Fomepizole is used to treat methanol poisoning, which presents with neurological symptoms and metabolic acidosis. However, this does not explain the patient’s cheilosis or glossitis. IV thiamine is used to treat Wernicke’s encephalopathy, a result of vitamin B deficiency commonly seen in malnourished patients with a history of alcohol abuse. Pancreatic enzyme supplements are used in chronic pancreatitis with exocrine insufficiency, while oral zinc therapy is used in Wilson’s disease, an autosomal recessive condition that causes excessive copper accumulation and can present with extrapyramidal features or neuropsychiatric manifestations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 16-year-old previously healthy woman presents with a 10-month history of persistent non-bloody diarrhoea and central abdominal pain. She also gives a history of unintentional weight loss. The patient is not yet menstruating. On examination, she has slight conjunctival pallor. Blood tests reveal a macrocytic anaemia.
What is the likeliest diagnosis?Your Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Coeliac disease is a condition where the lining of the small intestine is abnormal and improves when gluten is removed from the diet. It is caused by an immune response to a component of gluten called α-gliadin peptide. Symptoms can occur at any age but are most common in infancy and in adults in their 40s. Symptoms include abdominal pain, bloating, diarrhea, delayed puberty, and anemia. Blood tests are used to diagnose the disease, and a biopsy of the small intestine can confirm the diagnosis. Treatment involves avoiding gluten in the diet. Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis have different symptoms, while irritable bowel syndrome and carcinoid syndrome are unlikely in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with a history of intermittent constipation and diarrhoea and progressive weight loss over the past 3 months. During examination, he appears cachectic and has nodular hepatomegaly. He does not exhibit jaundice and his liver function tests are normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lymphoma
Correct Answer: Liver metastases
Explanation:Liver Metastases: Causes and Differential Diagnosis
Liver metastases are a common cause of nodular hepatomegaly, with the most frequent primary sites being the bowel and breast. While palpable metastases may not affect liver function, obstruction to the biliary tract or involvement of over half of the liver can lead to impaired function and the presence of ascites. Autopsy studies have shown that 30-70% of cancer patients have liver metastases, with the frequency depending on the primary site. Most liver metastases are multiple and affect both lobes.
When considering a differential diagnosis, cirrhosis can be ruled out as it is the end-stage of chronic liver disease and would typically present with elevated serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Hepatoma is less common than metastases and lymphoma may present with evidence of involvement in other sites, such as lymphadenopathy. Myelofibrosis, which is associated with bone marrow fibrosis and abnormal stem cell appearance in the liver and spleen, may be asymptomatic in its early stages or present with leuko-erythroblastic anemia, malaise, weight loss, and night sweats. However, it is much less common than liver metastases.
In summary, liver metastases should be considered as a potential cause of nodular hepatomegaly, particularly in patients with a history of cancer. A thorough differential diagnosis should be conducted to rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
(A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?Your Answer: 24
Correct Answer: 36
Explanation:Understanding Units of Alcohol
Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.
To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.
It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is brought by her mother to the clinic. She has been experiencing gradual difficulty in eating. She complains that when she swallows, the food gets stuck behind her chest and it takes a while for it to pass. She frequently regurgitates undigested food. A follow-up barium study reveals a bird's beak appearance. Which mediator's loss may be contributing to her symptoms?
Your Answer: Nitric oxide
Explanation:Understanding Achalasia: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Achalasia is a condition where the lower esophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty in swallowing and regurgitation of undigested food. This is commonly due to the denervation of inhibitory neurons in the distal esophagus, leading to a progressive worsening of symptoms over time. Diagnosis is made through a barium study and manometry, which reveal a bird’s beak appearance of the lower esophagus and an abnormally high sphincter tone that fails to relax on swallowing. Nitric oxide, which increases smooth muscle relaxation and reduces sphincter tone, is reduced in achalasia. Treatment options include surgical intervention, botulinum toxin injection, and pharmacotherapy with drugs such as calcium channel blockers, long-acting nitrates, and sildenafil.
Other gastrointestinal hormones such as cholecystokinin, motilin, somatostatin, and gastrin do not play a role in achalasia. Cholecystokinin stimulates pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions, while motilin is responsible for migrating motor complexes. Somatostatin decreases gastric acid and pancreatic secretion and gallbladder contractions. Gastrin promotes hydrochloric acid secretion in the stomach and can result in Zollinger-Ellison syndrome when produced in excess by a gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with a few months history of abdominal pain and diarrhoea. Further questioning reveals increasing episodes of facial flushing and occasional wheeze. Clinical examination reveals irregular, craggy hepatomegaly. Abdominal CT is performed which revealed nonspecific thickening of a terminal small bowel loop, a large calcified lesion in the small bowel mesentery and innumerable lesions in the liver.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Carcinoid Syndrome and Differential Diagnosis
Carcinoid syndrome is a rare neuroendocrine tumor that secretes serotonin and is commonly found in the terminal ileum. While the primary tumor is often asymptomatic, metastasis can lead to symptoms such as diarrhea, facial flushing, and bronchospasm. Abdominal pain may also be present due to liver and mesenteric metastases. Diagnosis is made through biopsy or finding elevated levels of 5-HIAA in urine. Treatment options include surgery, chemotherapy, and somatostatin analogues like octreotide.
Whipple’s disease presents with diarrhea, weight loss, and migratory arthritis, typically affecting the duodenum. Yersinia ileitis and tuberculosis both affect the terminal ileum and cause diarrhea and thickening of small bowel loops on CT, but do not match the symptoms and imaging findings described in the case of carcinoid syndrome. Normal menopause is also not a likely diagnosis based on the patient’s history and imaging results. A thorough differential diagnosis is important in accurately identifying and treating carcinoid syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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