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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days ago. She will soon be ready for discharge, and your consultant has asked you to start the patient on hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
      She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2, a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus on metformin and no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an oestrogen patch

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate method of HRT for the patient in this scenario is a transdermal oestrogen patch, as she has had a hysterectomy and oestrogen monotherapy is the regimen of choice. As the patient’s BMI is > 30 kg/m2, an oral oestrogen preparation is not recommended due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. HRT has benefits for the patient, including protection against osteoporosis, urogenital atrophy, and cardiovascular disorders. However, HRT also has risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial and breast cancer. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication to HRT, and there is no evidence that HRT affects glucose control. Combination HRT regimens are reserved for women with a uterus, and oral oestradiol once daily is not recommended for patients with a BMI > 30 kg/m2 due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Women at high risk of developing venous thromboembolism or those with a strong family history or thrombophilia should be referred to haematology before starting HRT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman who is on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) seeks guidance. She is presently on day 10 of her cycle and has missed her last two pills. Before this, she took her pill accurately every day. She had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago and is unsure if she should take emergency contraception to avoid pregnancy.

      What advice should she be given?

      Your Answer: No emergency contraception is required and to continue taking her pill as normal

      Explanation:

      If the patient has missed two pills between days 8-14 of her cycle but has taken the previous 7 days of COCP correctly, emergency contraception is not necessary according to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health. Since the patient is not in need of emergency contraception, offering her a hormonal-based emergency contraceptive would be inappropriate. However, if emergency contraception is required, options include EllaOne (ulipristal acetate) up to 120 hours after unprotected intercourse or Levonelle (levonorgestrel) up to 96 hours after unprotected intercourse. Inserting a copper IUD to prevent pregnancy would also be inappropriate in this case. If the patient is having difficulty remembering to take her pill correctly and is interested in long-acting contraception, counseling her on options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection would be appropriate. It should be noted that contraceptive injections are not used as a form of emergency contraception and advising a patient to take emergency contraception within 12 hours would be incorrect.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test at her local clinic as...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female undergoes a cervical smear test at her local clinic as part of the UK cervical cancer screening programme. The results reveal that she is hr HPV positive, but her cytology shows normal cells. Following current guidelines, the test is repeated after 12 months, and the results are still hr HPV positive with normal cytology. Another 12 months later, the test is repeated, and the results remain the same. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test 12 months later

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test performed as part of the NHS cervical screening programme returns as hr HPV positive, cytology is performed. If the cytology shows normal cells, the test is repeated in 12 months. If the second repeat test is still hr HPV positive and cytology normal, the test should be repeated in a further 12 months. However, if the third test at 24 months is still hr HPV positive, colposcopy should be performed instead of returning the patient to routine recall. Repeating the test in 3, 6 or 12 months is not appropriate in this case.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old women with her 34-year-old partner have come to see you regarding...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old women with her 34-year-old partner have come to see you regarding the inability to conceive over the last year. She has regular cycles over 28 days.
      Which test will best see if she is ovulating?

      Your Answer: Day 2 luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

      Correct Answer: Day 21 progesterone

      Explanation:

      Methods for Checking Ovulation

      There are several methods for checking ovulation, but not all of them are definitive. The easiest way to check for ovulation is through a day-21 progesterone level test, which measures the progesterone released by the corpus luteum after ovulation. However, an increase in basal body temperature is not a definitive indicator of ovulation.

      Luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) are released from the pituitary gland and cause the development of the follicle ready for ovulation. However, if the day-21 progesterone level is normal, then FSH and LH will also be normal. An endometrial biopsy may confirm the absence of any uterine abnormality, but it does not ensure ovulation has taken place.

      The cervical fern test is an assessment of cervical mucous, which is dependent on hormone levels. However, there is diagnostic uncertainty with this method, and measuring hormone levels directly is a more reliable indicator of ovulation. Overall, a combination of these methods may be used to confirm ovulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 26-year-old woman with a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) presents to...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman with a history of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) presents to your clinic. Despite receiving optimal medical treatment for her condition, she and her husband have been trying to conceive for 2 years without success. Considering her medical history, you think that she may be a good candidate for in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) therapy. What specific risks should be considered for women with PCOS undergoing IVF?

      Your Answer: Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

      Explanation:

      Women with PCOS who undergo IVF are at a higher risk of experiencing ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome. However, treatment failure can occur as a complication of any IVF treatment, regardless of whether the woman has PCOS or not. Complications such as chronic pelvic pain, Caesarean section delivery, and haemorrhage are not typically associated with IVF treatment.

      Understanding Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome

      Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) is a potential complication that can occur during infertility treatment. This condition is believed to be caused by the presence of multiple luteinized cysts in the ovaries, which can lead to high levels of hormones and vasoactive substances. As a result, the permeability of the membranes increases, leading to fluid loss from the intravascular compartment.

      OHSS is more commonly seen following gonadotropin or hCG treatment, and it is rare with Clomiphene therapy. Approximately one-third of women undergoing in vitro fertilization (IVF) may experience a mild form of OHSS. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has classified OHSS into four categories: mild, moderate, severe, and critical.

      Symptoms of OHSS can range from abdominal pain and bloating to more severe symptoms such as thromboembolism and acute respiratory distress syndrome. It is important to monitor patients closely during infertility treatment to detect any signs of OHSS and manage the condition appropriately. By understanding OHSS and its potential risks, healthcare providers can work to minimize the occurrence of this complication and ensure the safety of their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of dysmenorrhoea. She has a...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner complaining of dysmenorrhoea. She has a history of asthma and cannot take ibuprofen due to a previous severe asthma attack triggered by the medication. An ultrasound scan reveals no pelvic pathology. What would be an appropriate treatment for her dysmenorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Primary Dysmenorrhoea: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Primary dysmenorrhoea is a common condition that affects many women of reproductive age. When treating this condition, healthcare professionals have several options to consider. Here, we will discuss the most common treatments and their appropriateness for different patients.

      Paracetamol is a suitable first-line treatment for patients with primary dysmenorrhoea who cannot take NSAIDs. If the patient does not wish to conceive, a hormonal contraceptive may also be considered as a first-line treatment.

      Gabapentin is not recommended for the treatment of dysmenorrhoea, as it is primarily used for epilepsy and neuropathic pain.

      Mefenamic acid and naproxen are both NSAIDs and are recommended as first-line treatments for primary dysmenorrhoea. However, they are contraindicated in patients with a history of asthma triggered by NSAID use.

      Oral morphine is not typically used as a first-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea. If NSAIDs and paracetamol are not effective, transelectrical nerve stimulation (TENS) may be trialled. If none of these treatments are effective within 3-6 months, the patient should be referred to a gynaecologist for further assessment.

      In summary, healthcare professionals should consider the patient’s medical history and preferences when selecting a treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea. Paracetamol and hormonal contraceptives are suitable first-line treatments, while NSAIDs and TENS may also be effective in some patients. Referral to a specialist may be necessary if initial treatments are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence when she...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of urinary incontinence when she coughs or sneezes for the past 6 months. Despite doing pelvic floor exercises for the last 4 months, she has not seen any improvement. She expresses concern about undergoing surgery and prefers medical treatment for her condition. What is the initial pharmacological therapy recommended for her urinary incontinence?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine

      Explanation:

      Patients with stress incontinence who do not respond to pelvic floor muscle exercises and decline surgical intervention may be prescribed duloxetine, a serotonin-norepinephrine re-uptake inhibitor. This drug increases sphincter tone during the filling phase of urinary bladder function. However, before starting drug therapy, patients should try pelvic floor exercises and consider surgical intervention. Oxybutynin, an anticholinergic drug, is used to treat urge incontinence or symptoms of detrusor overactivity, but it is not recommended for frail, older women at risk of health deterioration. Desmopressin is the preferred drug treatment for children with nocturnal enuresis and may also be used for women with nocturia. Mirabegron is prescribed for patients with urge incontinence who cannot tolerate antimuscarinic/anticholinergic drugs. It is a beta-3 adrenergic agonist that relaxes the bladder.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 73-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is attending the gynaecological oncology clinic. The...

    Correct

    • A 73-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is attending the gynaecological oncology clinic. The consultant is discussing her pre-surgical prognosis, which is based on her risk malignancy index (RMI). Can you identify the three components of the RMI?

      Your Answer: CA125, menopausal status, ultrasound (US) findings

      Explanation:

      Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.

      Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.

      Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?

      Your Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant

      Explanation:

      The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.

      Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.

      It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception. She had her last period 5 days ago and has no significant medical history or regular medications. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2 and her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg. She decides to take ulipristal (Ella-One) for emergency contraception and also expresses interest in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She asks when she can begin taking it. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer: She should wait until the start of her next cycle before starting the COCP

      Correct Answer: She should start taking the COCP from 5 days after taking ulipristal

      Explanation:

      Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception. This is because ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The same advice should be given for other hormonal contraception methods such as the pill, patch, or ring. Barrier methods should be used before the effectiveness of the COCP can be assured. If the patient is starting the COCP within the first 5 days of her cycle, barrier methods may not be necessary. However, in this case, barrier methods are required. The patient can be prescribed the COCP if it is her preferred method of contraception. There is no need to wait until the start of the next cycle before taking the pill, as long as barrier methods are used for 7 days.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of oligomenorrhoea and menstrual irregularity (menses every 32–38 days). She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2 and is hirsute. She has short hair distributed in a male pattern of baldness.
      Examination reveals brown, hyperpigmented areas in the creases of the axillae and around the neck. A glucose tolerance test is performed and shows the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Fasting plasma glucose 4.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.5 mmol/l
      2-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) plasma glucose 9.2 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate monitoring plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Annual glucose tolerance testing as there is evidence of impaired glucose tolerance

      Explanation:

      Annual Monitoring for Diabetes in Women with Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

      Women with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) are at an increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes mellitus. Therefore, it is important to monitor these patients for diabetes. The monitoring approach depends on the patient’s risk stratification, which is determined by factors such as BMI, family history of diabetes, and personal history of gestational diabetes.

      For patients with evidence of impaired glucose tolerance, defined as a fasting glucose of < 7.0 mmol/l and a 2-hour OGTT of ≥ 7.8 but < 11.1 mmol/l, dietary and weight loss advice should be given, and a repeat glucose tolerance test is indicated annually. For patients with a normal glucose tolerance test, with a BMI of < 30 kg/m2, no family history of diabetes, and no personal history of gestational diabetes, annual random fasting glucose testing is appropriate. If the result is ≥ 5.6 mmol/l, then a glucose tolerance test should be performed. For patients with a BMI of ≥ 30 kg/m2, annual glucose tolerance testing is recommended. If diabetes is suspected based on symptoms such as polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss, a random serum glucose of ≥ 11.0 mmol/l or a fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l is diagnostic. In asymptomatic patients, two samples of fasting glucose of ≥ 7.0 mmol/l are adequate for diagnosis. In conclusion, annual monitoring for diabetes is important in women with PCOS to prevent complications and morbidity associated with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The monitoring approach should be tailored to the patient’s risk stratification.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 28-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD)...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for the removal of her copper intrauterine device (IUD) on day 4 of her 30-day menstrual cycle. She wishes to start taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after the removal of the IUD, and there are no contraindications to the COCP. What is the next best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today and use barrier contraception for 7 days

      Correct Answer: Start the combined oral contraceptive pill today, no further contraceptive is required

      Explanation:

      No additional contraception is needed when switching from an IUD to COCP if it is removed on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle. The COCP is effective immediately if started on these days, but if started from day 6 onwards, barrier contraception is required for 7 days. There is no need to delay starting the COCP after IUD removal. If the patient had recently taken ulipristal as an emergency contraceptive, she would need to wait for 5 days before starting hormonal contraception.

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucous. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?

      Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound

      Explanation:

      TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.

      Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding

      Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.

      To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.

      Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 22-year-old student contacts the GP telephone clinic seeking advice. Her housemate has...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old student contacts the GP telephone clinic seeking advice. Her housemate has been diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis and she has been prescribed ciprofloxacin as a preventive measure. However, she is hesitant to take it as she fears it may interfere with the effectiveness of her contraceptive pill. She has a medical history of migraine with aura, but no allergies. Although she is unsure about the type of contraceptive pill she uses, she takes it daily without any breaks. What precautions should she take regarding her contraceptive pill while taking ciprofloxacin?

      Your Answer: No change

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely taking the progesterone-only contraceptive pill due to her history of migraine with aura and daily use of the contraceptive pill. According to the BNF, antibacterials that do not induce liver enzymes do not affect the effectiveness of oral progesterone-only preparations. As ciprofloxacin is a cytochrome P450 inhibitor and not an inducer, the patient’s contraception is not affected, and she does not require additional barrier contraception. However, if the patient were taking rifampicin, an alternative for meningococcal contact prophylaxis, she would need to use barrier contraception during and for four weeks after stopping treatment. Rifampicin is a potent enzyme inducer, which can decrease the plasma concentration and efficacy of contraceptive pills.

      Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill

      Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.

      It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.

      In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety,...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with a 1-month history of abdominal bloating, early satiety, pelvic pain and frequency of urination. Blood results revealed CA-125 of 50 u/ml (<36 u/ml).
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cancer

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms

      Abdominal symptoms can have various causes, and a careful differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying condition. In this case, the patient presents with bloating, early satiety, urinary symptoms, and an elevated CA-125 level. Here are some possible explanations for these symptoms, based on their typical features and diagnostic markers.

      Ovarian cancer: This is a possible diagnosis, given the mass effect on the gastrointestinal and urinary organs, as well as the elevated CA-125 level. However, ovarian cancer often presents with vague symptoms initially, and other conditions can also increase CA-125 levels. Anorexia and weight loss are additional symptoms to consider.

      Colorectal cancer: This is less likely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as change in bowel habits, rectal bleeding, or anemia. The classical marker for colorectal cancer is CEA, not CA-125.

      Irritable bowel syndrome: This is also less likely, given the age of the patient and the presence of urinary symptoms. Irritable bowel syndrome is a diagnosis of exclusion, and other likely conditions should be ruled out first.

      Genitourinary prolapse: This is a possible diagnosis, given the urinary symptoms and the sensation of bulging or fullness. Vaginal spotting, pain, or irritation are additional symptoms to consider. However, abdominal bloating and early satiety are not typical, and CA-125 levels should not be affected.

      Diverticulosis: This is unlikely, given the absence of typical symptoms such as altered bowel habits or left iliac fossa pain. Diverticulitis can cause rectal bleeding, but fever and acute onset of pain are more characteristic.

      In summary, the differential diagnosis of abdominal symptoms should take into account the patient’s age, gender, medical history, and specific features of the symptoms. Additional tests and imaging may be necessary to confirm or exclude certain conditions.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female graduate student presents to her primary care physician with complaints...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female graduate student presents to her primary care physician with complaints of weight gain and excessive hair growth on her face and upper chest. She reports having irregular periods, with only one occurring every 2-3 months. Upon examination, the patient is found to have elevated levels of testosterone at 3.5 nmol/l and an elevated LH:FSH ratio. Additionally, she is overweight with a BMI of 28 and has acne. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a woman with typical PCOS phenotype and biochemical markers

      Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects reproductive-aged women. Its diagnosis is based on the presence of at least two of the following criteria: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. However, other conditions can mimic or coexist with PCOS, making the differential diagnosis challenging. Here are some possible explanations for a woman who presents with the typical PCOS phenotype and biochemical markers:

      – Cushing syndrome: This rare disorder results from chronic exposure to high levels of cortisol, either endogenously (e.g., due to a pituitary or adrenal tumour) or exogenously (e.g., due to long-term glucocorticoid therapy). Cushing syndrome can cause weight gain, central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, hypertension, glucose intolerance, and osteoporosis. However, it is not associated with a high LH: FSH ratio, which is a hallmark of PCOS.
      – Androgen-secreting tumour: This is a rare cause of hyperandrogenism that can arise from the ovary, adrenal gland, or other tissues. The excess production of androgens can lead to virilization, hirsutism, acne, alopecia, menstrual irregularities, and infertility. However, the testosterone level in this case would be expected to be higher than 3.5 nmol/l, which is the upper limit of the normal range for most assays.
      – Simple obesity: This is a common condition that can affect women of any age and ethnicity. Obesity can cause insulin resistance, hyperinsulinemia, dyslipidemia, inflammation, and oxidative stress, which can contribute to the development of PCOS. However, the abnormal testosterone and LH: FSH ratio suggest an underlying pathology that is not solely related to excess adiposity. Moreover, at a BMI of 28, the patient’s weight is not within the range for a clinical diagnosis of obesity (BMI ≥ 30).
      – Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome: This is a rare genetic disorder that affects the androgen receptor, leading to a lack of response to androgens in target tissues. As a result, affected individuals have a female phenotype despite having XY chromosomes. They typically present with primary amenorrhea

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She also reports experiencing pain in her right shoulder. What investigation would be the most helpful in managing this patient further?

      Your Answer: Urine β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Urine Pregnancy Testing in Females with Abdominal Pain

      Any female of childbearing age who presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain should have a urinary pregnancy test performed (β-HCG). This is because a negative pregnancy test is necessary to confirm that the patient is not pregnant. It is an easy and inexpensive test to perform.

      Shoulder tip pain may indicate diaphragmatic irritation secondary to free intraperitoneal fluid, which can be caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, a full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U & Es) will not diagnose a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy and, as such, will not guide subsequent management.

      An erect chest X-ray may be requested if perforation is suspected, but a urine pregnancy test would be much more useful in this scenario. An abdominal X-ray is not indicated.

      In summary, a urine pregnancy test is crucial in females of childbearing age with abdominal pain to rule out pregnancy and potentially diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on...

    Incorrect

    • A pair of individuals in their mid-thirties visit their GP seeking guidance on fertility. They have been engaging in unprotected sexual activity thrice a week for a year. The GP recommends conducting a semen analysis and measuring serum progesterone levels. What is the optimal time to measure serum progesterone levels?

      Your Answer: On day 21 of the menstrual cycle

      Correct Answer: 7 days prior to the expected next period

      Explanation:

      To confirm ovulation, it is recommended to take a serum progesterone level 7 days before the expected next period. If the level is above 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation and other causes of infertility should be considered. However, if the level is below 30 nmol/l, it does not necessarily exclude the possibility of ovulation, but repeat testing is required. If the level remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. It is important to note that the length of a menstrual cycle can vary, so 7 days prior to the next period is a more accurate time to take the test than relying on day 21 of a 28-day cycle.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

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  • Question 19 - A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female receives a cervical smear test through the UK cervical screening programme and is found to be hrHPV positive. However, her cytological examination shows no abnormalities. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Repeat the test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      If a cervical smear test is hrHPV positive but cytologically normal, the recommended course of action is to repeat the test in 12 months. This is in contrast to negative hrHPV results, which are returned to normal recall. Abnormal cytology results require colposcopy, but normal cytology results do not. It is important to note that returning to normal recall is not appropriate in this case, as the patient’s higher risk status warrants a repeat test sooner than the standard 3-year interval. Repeating the test within 3 or 6 months is also not recommended.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor the day after having unprotected sex. She is seeking emergency contraception as she forgot to take her progesterone-only pill for a few days before the encounter. The doctor advises her to book an appointment at the nearby sexual health clinic for proper screening. After counseling, the doctor prescribes levonorgestrel to the woman. What is the waiting period before she can resume taking her POP?

      Your Answer: She doesn't - can start immediately

      Explanation:

      Women can begin using hormonal contraception right away after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. However, if ulipristal acetate was used instead, it is recommended to wait for 5 days or use barrier methods before resuming hormonal contraception.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for next 7 days

      Correct Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

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  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old nulliparous woman is undergoing evaluation at the Infertility Clinic. Initial assessments,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old nulliparous woman is undergoing evaluation at the Infertility Clinic. Initial assessments, including thyroid function tests and mid-luteal phase progesterone and prolactin levels, are within normal limits. Semen analysis also shows no abnormalities. No sexually transmitted infections were found.
      She experiences regular and heavy menstrual periods, accompanied by dysmenorrhoea that begins 1-2 days before the onset of bleeding. She also reports deep dyspareunia. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals no abnormalities.
      Which investigation is most likely to provide a definitive diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Exploratory laparoscopy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Modalities for Endometriosis: Exploratory Laparoscopy, Transabdominal Ultrasound, Hysterosalpingography, MRI Abdomen Pelvis, and CA-125

      Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the endometrial cavity, causing cyclical proliferation and bleeding. It can lead to scarring, adhesions, and cysts with haemorrhagic contents. The classic symptoms are dyspareunia, infertility, cyclical pelvic pain, and dysmenorrhoea. Diagnosis is often made through Exploratory laparoscopy, where small, dark purple-black spots on the peritoneum can be identified and sampled for histological analysis. Transabdominal ultrasound is not very sensitive at detecting small deposits, but can detect endometriotic cysts. Hysterosalpingography is recommended for investigating infertility and recurrent miscarriage, but is not a definitive diagnosis for endometriosis. MRI of the pelvis is sensitive for endometriomas and adnexal masses, but not small deposits. CA-125 testing is not recommended for diagnosis.

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  • Question 23 - A 42-year-old female smoker visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She believes...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old female smoker visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She believes she has reached menopause as her last menstrual period was 15 months ago. What is the most suitable form of contraception for her?

      The menopause is typically diagnosed retrospectively, 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who experience menopause before the age of 50 require contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period, while those over 50 require only 1 year of contraception. Given her age and smoking status, prescribing the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for only 12 months would not be appropriate. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should not be used solely as a form of contraception, and barrier methods are less effective than other options. Therefore, the most suitable form of contraception for this patient would be the intrauterine system (IUS), which can be used for up to 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period.

      Your Answer: The intrauterine system (IUS)

      Explanation:

      The menopause is diagnosed retrospectively and occurs 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who experience menopause before the age of 50 need contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period, while those over 50 require only 1 year of contraception. Therefore, it would be incorrect to assume that this woman does not need contraception because she is protected. Prescribing the COCP for only 12 months would also be inappropriate, especially since she is a smoker over the age of 35. Hormone replacement therapy should not be used as a sole form of contraception, and barrier methods are less effective than other types of contraception. The most appropriate option is the IUS, which can be used for 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period and will take her through menopause. This information is based on the FSRH’s guidelines on contraception for women aged over 40 (July 2010).

      Understanding Menopause and Contraception

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.

      It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

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  • Question 24 - A 36-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain has been diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman with a history of chronic pelvic pain has been diagnosed with endometriosis. Which of the following is not a recognized treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Dilation and curettage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old girl visits her doctor with concerns about her menstrual bleeding. She reports that her periods are so heavy that she goes through a full box of tampons on the first day, which affects her daily routine. The patient has read that Menorrhagia is characterised by unusually heavy bleeding during menstruation. Before diagnosing her with menorrhagia, the doctor checks the criteria used to classify bleeding as 'abnormally heavy'. What is the definition used for this classification?

      Your Answer: An amount that the woman considers to be excessive

      Explanation:

      The definition of menorrhagia has been updated to focus on a woman’s personal experience rather than attempting to measure the amount of blood loss. Previously, heavy bleeding was defined as a total blood loss of over 80 ml during the menstrual cycle. However, due to challenges in accurately measuring blood loss and the fact that treatment for heavy bleeding can improve quality of life regardless of the amount of blood lost, the definition has shifted to a more subjective approach.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain. The pain is sharp and constant, with a rating of 10/10, and is spreading to her lower back. She is unable to lie still due to the pain. She is experiencing nausea but has not vomited. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago and was normal, and her menstrual cycle is always regular.

      During the examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, and temperature is 37.3 °C. There is tenderness in the periumbilical and right lower quadrant upon palpation. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a significant amount of free pelvic fluid.

      What is the most likely organ or structure that is injured in this patient?

      Your Answer: Fallopian tube

      Correct Answer: Ovary

      Explanation:

      Possible Causes of Sudden Pelvic Pain: A Differential Diagnosis

      Sudden pelvic pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest ovarian torsion, a condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its blood supply, causing ischemia and infarction. The resulting pain is severe, sharp, and sudden, often accompanied by tenderness and internal bleeding. However, other possible causes of sudden pelvic pain should also be considered.

      Rectal diseases or trauma are unlikely to explain the patient’s current presentation. Similarly, while appendicitis can cause abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and anorexia, the pattern of pain is different, starting as dull pain around the belly button and becoming sharp and localized to the right lower quadrant over time. Rovsing’s sign, which is pain in the right lower quadrant when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant, is often positive in appendicitis.

      A ureteral stone can also cause sudden-onset pelvic and flank pain, but it is not associated with pelvic bleeding. Urinary tract stones typically cause colicky pain, which comes and goes in waves, rather than the unrelenting pain described by the patient.

      Finally, a ruptured Fallopian tube can be a complication of an ectopic pregnancy, but the patient’s recent normal menstrual periods make this diagnosis less likely. In ectopic tubal pregnancy, the patient usually complains of amenorrhea, abnormal uterine bleeding, and pelvic pain of several days to weeks’ duration.

      In summary, while ovarian torsion is a possible cause of the patient’s sudden pelvic pain, other conditions should also be considered and ruled out through further evaluation and testing.

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  • Question 27 - A mother of three brings her youngest daughter, aged 15, to the general...

    Correct

    • A mother of three brings her youngest daughter, aged 15, to the general practitioner (GP) as she is yet to start menstruating, whereas both her sisters had menarche at the age of 12.
      The patient has developed secondary female sexual characteristics and has a normal height. She reports struggling with headaches and one episode of galactorrhoea.
      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals an intracranial tumour measuring 11 mm in maximal diameter.
      Given the most likely diagnosis, which of the following is the first-line management option?

      Your Answer: Medical treatment with cabergoline

      Explanation:

      The patient has primary amenorrhoea due to a macroprolactinoma, which is a benign prolactin-secreting tumor of the anterior pituitary gland. Treatment in the first instance is with a dopamine receptor agonist such as bromocriptine or cabergoline. Surgery is the most appropriate management if conservative management fails or the patient presents with visual field defects. Radiotherapy is rarely used. Exclusion of pregnancy is the first step in every case of amenorrhoea. Metoclopramide is a dopamine receptor antagonist and a cause of hyperprolactinaemia, so it should not be used to treat this patient. Thyroxine is not appropriate as hyperprolactinaemia is secondary to a pituitary adenoma. Indications for surgery are failure to respond to medical therapy or presentation with acute visual field defects.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking emergency contraception after engaging in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking emergency contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual activity around 96 hours ago. She is presently undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with antibiotics.

      Which emergency contraceptive would be the most suitable option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device

      Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate (EllaOne)

      Explanation:

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat HPV test after a further 12 months

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years

      Explanation:

      If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

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  • Question 30 - A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman who has a history of injecting heroin has just received a positive HIV diagnosis. During her initial visits to the HIV clinic, she is offered a cervical smear. What is the recommended follow-up for her as part of the cervical screening program?

      Your Answer: Cervical cytology every three years (normal screening program)

      Correct Answer: Annual cervical cytology

      Explanation:

      Due to a weakened immune response and reduced clearance of the human papillomavirus, women who are HIV positive face an elevated risk of cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer. If HIV positive women have low-grade lesions (CIN1), these lesions may not clear and could progress to high-grade CIN or cervical cancer. Even with effective antiretroviral treatment, these women still have a high risk of abnormal cytology and an increased risk of false-negative results. Therefore, it is recommended that women with HIV receive cervical cytology at the time of diagnosis and annually thereafter for screening purposes.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

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