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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy to correct a small bowel obstruction. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man undergoes a laparotomy to correct a small bowel obstruction. He has a medical history of orthotopic bladder reconstruction due to bladder carcinoma. After 48 hours in the High Dependency Unit, he becomes confused and refuses to consume oral fluids. His vital signs are stable, but his serum biochemistry and blood gas analysis reveal abnormalities. What is the most suitable initial intervention?

      Your Answer: Rehydration with 0.9% sodium chloride and correction of blood glucose

      Correct Answer: Intravenous infusion of 1.26% sodium bicarbonate and potassium replacement

      Explanation:

      Metabolic Acidosis in Patients with Neobladders

      Patients who undergo neobladder formation following radical cystectomy or cystoprostatectomy may experience hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, which is a documented complication. This condition is usually mild and improves over time, but severe and persistent metabolic acidosis may occur when patients undergo further surgery for other reasons. Medical staff treating patients with neobladders should be aware of this complication and treat it with intravenous fluids and bicarbonate. Hypokalemia, hypocalcaemia, and hypomagnesaemia may also be present as associated electrolyte abnormalities.

      In a patient with hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis, there is also a mild hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. Lactate concentrations are normal, indicating that the acidosis is not due to organ hypoperfusion. Potassium depletion can be exacerbated by the correction of acidosis, and potassium supplementation alone via a central venous catheter is not sufficient treatment. Rehydration with 0.9% N. saline may worsen the hyperchloraemic state. Breathing into a paper bag is not appropriate treatment for this patient, as they have hyperglycaemia secondary to the metabolic stress response and not ketoacidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      35.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 31-year-old man presents to the acute medical unit with sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old man presents to the acute medical unit with sudden onset of shortness of breath. Upon admission, blood cultures reveal the presence of Staphylococcus aureus. During examination, a pansystolic murmur is heard loudest over the left sternal edge. A chest x-ray confirms the presence of a cavitating mass in the right lung with an associated pleural effusion. You perform a pleural tap and obtain the following results:

      pH 7.15
      Protein 42 g/l
      Appearance Serous

      What test can be conducted to determine if the effusion is an empyema?

      Your Answer: Video-assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery (VATS)

      Correct Answer: Centrifugation of the pleural aspirate

      Explanation:

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommends performing a posterioranterior (PA) chest x-ray and an ultrasound to increase the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and detect pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is also increasingly used to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions. Pleural aspiration should be performed using a 21G needle and 50ml syringe, and the fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can be used to distinguish between a transudate and an exudate, and other characteristic pleural fluid findings can help identify the underlying cause.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should also be placed.

      For patients with recurrent pleural effusions, options for management include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as dyspnea. It is important to follow the BTS guidelines for investigation and management of pleural effusion to ensure appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      327.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 50-year-old female presents with bilateral tingling sensation in her medial one and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female presents with bilateral tingling sensation in her medial one and half digits at night, along with clawing of her 4th and 5th digits. She is concerned about the cosmetic aspect of her condition. Additionally, she has been experiencing left-sided foot drop for the past 8 months. Her medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus, for which she takes metformin 850mg TDS, but admits to occasional poor compliance. Her last HbA1c was 53 mmol/mol. She has had multiple surgeries on her feet during childhood, but does not remember the details. She was adopted and has no knowledge of her birth family history. On examination, she has a left common peroneal palsy, thin calves bilaterally, and loss of sensation in bilateral ulnar nerve territories. What is the underlying diagnosis for her symptoms of paraesthesia and foot drop?

      Your Answer: Hereditary neuropathy with liability to pressure palsies

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hereditary Sensorimotor Neuropathy (HSMN)

      Hereditary sensorimotor neuropathy (HSMN) is a term used to describe Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease, also known as peroneal muscular atrophy. This condition has been classified into over seven types, but only two are commonly seen in clinical practice. HSMN type I is an autosomal dominant condition that primarily affects the myelin, due to a defect in the PMP-22 gene. Symptoms often begin during puberty and are characterized by distal muscle wasting, clawed toes, pes cavus, foot drop, and leg weakness. Motor symptoms are more prominent in this type of HSMN.

      To summarize, HSMN is a genetic condition that affects the peripheral nerves, leading to muscle weakness and wasting. HSMN type I is the most common type and is caused by a defect in the PMP-22 gene, which affects the myelin. This type of HSMN primarily affects motor function and often presents with foot drop, leg weakness, and distal muscle wasting. Understanding the different types of HSMN can help with early diagnosis and management of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 40-year-old man presented to his GP with fatigue. Investigations reveal low haemoglobin,...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man presented to his GP with fatigue. Investigations reveal low haemoglobin, low serum ferritin, and normal white cell count and platelets. He was prescribed iron sulphate tablets for presumed iron deficiency anaemia and referred to the Outpatient Clinic. However, he still feels fatigued and reports numbness and tingling in his lower limbs. He had a previous operation on his abdomen while abroad for severe abdominal pain and upper GI haemorrhage, but cannot recall the specifics. Examination shows pale conjunctiva, a lemon-yellow tinge to his skin, slight distal lower limb sensory loss, absence of ankle jerks, and exaggerated knee reflexes. Abdominal examination shows a longitudinal median scar, but no organomegaly. Repeat investigations reveal low haemoglobin, low mean corpuscular volume, and normal white cell count and platelets. Which operation is he most likely to have had?

      Your Answer: Partial gastrectomy

      Explanation:

      Causes of Iron and B12 Deficiency

      Iron deficiency and B12 deficiency can be caused by various factors. One possible cause is partial gastrectomy, which can reduce the absorption of both iron and B12. Gastric acid helps in the absorption of iron, and without it, iron absorption is reduced. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the terminal ileum with the help of intrinsic factor, which is produced by gastric parietal cells. Partial gastrectomy can significantly reduce intrinsic factor production, leading to B12 deficiency.

      However, pancreaticoduodenectomy is not a cause of iron and B12 deficiency. It is performed for resectable pancreatic or ampulla of Vater carcinomas, not for severe upper GI haemorrhage. Hemicolectomy does not significantly impact the absorption of B12 or ferritin. Terminal ileal resection can lead to B12 deficiency and bile salt malabsorption, but it should not cause significant iron deficiency. Emergency splenectomy is performed for trauma and is not associated with B12 or iron deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      165.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - As the medical doctor in charge of an acute admission unit, you receive...

    Incorrect

    • As the medical doctor in charge of an acute admission unit, you receive a patient who is an elderly male with recently diagnosed ovarian cancer. He is currently on day 8 of cisplatin chemotherapy and presents with a temperature of 39°C, tachycardia at 130 bpm, blood pressure 128/68 mmHg, respiratory rate 14/min, and sats 98% on room air. The patient is complaining of abdominal pain and has been vomiting today. Bloods and blood culture have been sent and you are awaiting the results. The chest x-ray was normal and urine dipstick clear. What is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: IV piperacillin/tazobactam + gentamicin

      Correct Answer: IV piperacillin/tazobactam

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neutropenic Sepsis in Cancer Patients

      Neutropenic sepsis is a common complication that arises from cancer therapy, particularly chemotherapy. It typically occurs within 7-14 days after chemotherapy and is characterized by a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 in patients undergoing anticancer treatment who exhibit a temperature higher than 38ºC or other signs of clinically significant sepsis. To prevent this condition, patients who are likely to have a neutrophil count of less than 0.5 * 109 should be offered a fluoroquinolone.

      Immediate antibiotic therapy is crucial in managing neutropenic sepsis. It is recommended to start empirical antibiotic therapy with piperacillin with tazobactam (Tazocin) without waiting for the WBC. While some units add vancomycin if the patient has central venous access, NICE does not support this approach. After the initial treatment, patients are assessed by a specialist and risk-stratified to determine if they can receive outpatient treatment. If patients remain febrile and unwell after 48 hours, an alternative antibiotic such as meropenem may be prescribed, with or without vancomycin. If patients do not respond after 4-6 days, the Christie guidelines suggest ordering investigations for fungal infections (e.g. HRCT) instead of blindly starting antifungal therapy. In selected patients, G-CSF may also be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Oncology
      77
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man visits the neurology clinic for management of his newly diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man visits the neurology clinic for management of his newly diagnosed Parkinson's disease. He has been prescribed cabergoline as monotherapy and has undergone a thorough evaluation, including lung function tests, routine blood tests, chest X-ray, and echocardiogram. Besides regular clinical reviews, what is the most crucial investigation to schedule periodically to monitor for potential complications?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      The echocardiogram is the appropriate test to monitor for potential cardiac complications associated with cabergoline, a dopaminergic drug used to treat Parkinson’s disease. While this drug can lead to fibrotic reactions in various parts of the body, it is also known to cause valvulopathy. The British National Formulary recommends establishing a baseline set of investigations and then monitoring for symptoms such as dyspnoea, persistent cough, chest pain, cardiac failure, and abdominal pain or tenderness.

      Dopamine Receptor Agonists for Parkinson’s Disease and Other Conditions

      Dopamine receptor agonists are medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease, prolactinoma/galactorrhoea, cyclical breast disease, and acromegaly. In Parkinson’s disease, treatment is typically delayed until the onset of disabling symptoms, at which point a dopamine receptor agonist is introduced. Elderly patients may be given L-dopa as an initial treatment. Examples of dopamine receptor agonists include bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine.

      However, some dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are ergot-derived, have been associated with pulmonary, retroperitoneal, and cardiac fibrosis. Therefore, the Committee on Safety of Medicines recommends obtaining an ESR, creatinine, and chest x-ray before treatment and closely monitoring patients. Pergolide was even withdrawn from the US market in March 2007 due to concerns about an increased incidence of valvular dysfunction.

      Despite their effectiveness, dopamine receptor agonists can cause adverse effects such as nausea/vomiting, postural hypotension, hallucinations, and daytime somnolence. Therefore, patients taking these medications should be closely monitored for any adverse effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      25
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 68-year-old man presented with a fever of 38°C, a new systolic murmur,...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presented with a fever of 38°C, a new systolic murmur, and positive blood cultures for Streptococcus viridans in three sets of blood culture bottles. A transthoracic echocardiogram revealed vegetations on the mitral valve leaflets, and he has been receiving appropriate intravenous antibiotics for three weeks. However, his inflammatory markers have started to increase. What would be an inappropriate reason for urgently or urgently referring him for mitral valve replacement?

      Your Answer: Persistent fever for five days

      Explanation:

      Indications for Surgery in Native Infective Endocarditis

      Native infective endocarditis is a serious condition that can lead to severe complications if left untreated. According to the European Society of Cardiology, surgery may be necessary in certain cases. These cases include aortic or mitral infective endocarditis with severe regurgitation, valve obstruction, fistula into a cardiac chamber or pericardium causing refractory pulmonary oedema or cardiogenic shock. Surgery may also be necessary in cases of aortic or mitral infective endocarditis with severe acute regurgitation and persisting heart failure or echocardiographic signs of poor haemodynamic tolerance (early mitral closure or pulmonary hypertension).

      In addition, surgery may be necessary in cases of locally uncontrolled infection, persistent fever and positive blood culture more than 7-10 days, and infection caused by fungi or multiresistant organisms. It is important to note that surgery is not always necessary in cases of native infective endocarditis, and treatment will depend on the individual case and the severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      146.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old man with a history of diabetes presented to the clinic with...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old man with a history of diabetes presented to the clinic with bilateral knee pain. On examination, he appeared suntanned with sparse body hair and the knees were swollen and tender, with limited range of movement. He works as an insurance salesman, is a non-smoker but drinks on most weekends, and is on insulin for the diabetes and also takes sildenafil occasionally for erectile dysfunction. The investigations revealed abnormal results for sodium, potassium, creatinine, albumin, bilirubin, ALT, AST, GGT, glucose, LH, FSH, and testosterone. Additionally, an X-ray of the knees showed calcification present. What is the most likely cause of the joint abnormality?

      Your Answer: Hereditary haemochromatosis

      Correct Answer: Chondrocalcinosis

      Explanation:

      Arthropathy in Hereditary Haemochromatosis

      Hereditary haemochromatosis is a condition that should be suspected in patients with liver cirrhosis, diabetes mellitus, hypogonadism and impotence, skin hyperpigmentation, fatigue and arthropathy. The arthropathy in hereditary haemochromatosis is due to calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition and can include pseudo-gout, chondrocalcinosis and chronic arthropathy. Biochemical findings include high serum iron, ferritin and transferrin saturation, and liver biopsy shows staining for excess iron.

      Cystinosis is a metabolic disease that causes end-stage renal function due to the accumulation of cysteine. Osteomalacia is often asymptomatic and bilateral knee joint pain is not a common presentation. Ochronosis describes the pigment deposition that occurs in the connective tissues of patients with alkaptonuria, which is not associated with the bronze appearance of the skin in this patient. Gout would present with hot, tender, swollen joints and subcortical bone cysts, but bilateral knee involvement would be unusual. Monosodium urate crystal deposition is not associated with hereditary haemochromatosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      46.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden onset chest pain and difficulty breathing. He denies any other symptoms such as fever or cough. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and is currently taking Spiriva (budesonide and formoterol) and salbutamol as needed.

      Upon examination, the patient appears to be short of breath and unable to complete full sentences. There is reduced air entry on the left side of his chest, which is hyper-resonant to percussion. The patient's heart sounds are normal, and there is no evidence of pitting edema in his calves.

      The patient's vital signs are as follows:
      - Temperature: 36.1ºC
      - Heart rate: 100 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 125/82 mmHg
      - Respiratory rate: 24 breaths/min
      - Oxygen saturations: 93% on 6L via facemask

      A chest x-ray reveals a 1.5cm left-sided pneumothorax. What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Correct Answer: Chest drain

      Explanation:

      For a patient with a 1.5cm left-sided pneumothorax and a history of COPD, the management depends on the type of pneumothorax. In this case, it is likely a secondary pneumothorax. If the patient is aged >50 years with a rim of air >2cm or clinically short of breath, a chest drain should be inserted as first-line treatment. Although the pneumothorax is <2cm, this patient is clinically short of breath, making a chest drain the most appropriate management. Nebulised salbutamol is not indicated as there is no auscultatory wheeze to suggest an exacerbation. Non-invasive ventilation is contraindicated as it can convert a simple pneumothorax into a tension pneumothorax. A CT chest may be useful to identify blebs that may give rise to a pneumothorax, but it will not change the immediate management. Needle decompression is not indicated as the patient does not show signs of tension pneumothorax. Pneumothorax, a condition where air enters the space between the lung and chest wall, can be managed according to guidelines published by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) in 2010. The guidelines differentiate between primary pneumothorax, which occurs without underlying lung disease, and secondary pneumothorax, which does have an underlying cause. For primary pneumothorax, patients with a small amount of air and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with larger amounts of air or shortness of breath may require aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, chest drain insertion is recommended for patients over 50 years old with large amounts of air or shortness of breath, while aspiration may be attempted for those with smaller amounts of air. Patients with persistent or recurrent pneumothorax may require video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery. Discharge advice includes avoiding smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes and avoiding scuba diving unless the patient has undergone surgery and has normal lung function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      419.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 49 year-old civil servant presents to the Acute Medical Unit with progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 49 year-old civil servant presents to the Acute Medical Unit with progressive cognitive impairment and severe lethargy over the past 3 weeks. He has also been intermittently agitated and experiencing disturbed sleep during the night. He recently returned from a trip to Zimbabwe. He has a history of well-controlled type II diabetes, smoking 10 cigarettes a day, and drinking 14 units of alcohol per week. On examination, he has confused speech and right-sided posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. His vital signs are within normal limits. Laboratory investigations reveal a mild neutrophilic leukocytosis and elevated creatinine. CT head is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Blood film

      Correct Answer: Lumbar puncture

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is suffering from African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness. Based on their symptoms and country of origin, it is likely that they have contracted the East African variant caused by Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense. While it is possible to detect the presence of the parasites in a peripheral blood film or lymph node biopsy, the most important factor in determining treatment options is whether or not the parasites have invaded the central nervous system (CNS). Treatment for early infection typically involves the use of pentamidine, while options for CNS infection include suramin, melarsoprol, eflornithine, and nifurtimox. These medications are not widely available and can cause severe side effects, so they are typically only prescribed by specialists in tropical medicine.

      Understanding Trypanosomiasis

      Trypanosomiasis is a protozoal disease that comes in two main forms: African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, and American trypanosomiasis, or Chagas’ disease. The former has two types: Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa and Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa, both of which are spread by the tsetse fly. Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to have a more acute course. Symptoms include a painless subcutaneous nodule at the site of infection, intermittent fever, enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes, and later, central nervous system involvement such as somnolence, headaches, mood changes, and meningoencephalitis.

      On the other hand, American trypanosomiasis is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. In the acute phase, the vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic, although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at the site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract, with myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atrophy) and arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal features including megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation.

      Early disease management for African trypanosomiasis involves IV pentamidine or suramin, while later disease or central nervous system involvement requires IV melarsoprol. Treatment for American trypanosomiasis is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox. Chronic disease management involves treating the complications, such as heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      38.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old male who received a bone marrow transplant from his sister for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male who received a bone marrow transplant from his sister for acute myeloid leukaemia presents with a rash, general malaise, lethargy, and poor appetite. He reports having green-coloured diarrhoea for several weeks. His medications include cyclosporin, penicillin V, co-trimoxazole, and aciclovir. On examination, a diffuse macular rash is visible, mainly affecting the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. His pulse is 110 beats per minute and regular. Blood pressure is 105/60 mmHg. Investigations reveal abnormal blood counts and liver function tests. What is the diagnosis?

      Haemoglobin: 129 g/L (130-180)
      MCV: 94 fL (80-96)
      White cell count: 3.65 ×109/L (4-11)
      Neutrophils: 1.7 ×109/L (1.5-7)
      Lymphocytes: 1.0 ×109/L (1.5-4)
      Monocytes: 0.8 ×109/L (0-0.8)
      Eosinophils: 0.05 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
      Basophils: 0.1 ×109/L (0-0.1)
      Platelets: 147 ×109/L (150-400)
      Serum albumin: 35 g/L (37-49)
      Serum total bilirubin: 50 µmol/L (1-22)
      Serum alanine transferase: 35 U/L (5-35)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase: 120 U/L (45-105)
      Serum gamma glutamyl transferase: 35 U/L (4-35)

      Your Answer: Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (GVHD)

      Correct Answer: Acute graft versus host disease

      Explanation:

      The case describes a patient with acute graft versus host disease (GVHD) post bone marrow transplant. The patient has multi-system involvement, including skin rash, raised bilirubin, and abnormal colored diarrhea. The full blood count is normal for a patient post BMT, ruling out other potential causes such as CMV infection or cyclosporin toxicity. Transfusion-associated GVHD is a rare but fatal complication that occurs when donor lymphocytes in transfused blood components recognize the recipient as foreign and cause bone marrow failure, liver dysfunction, and gastrointestinal symptoms. However, the FBC result and timing do not support this diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      76.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 75-year-old man presents to the medical take with a 3-month history of...

    Correct

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the medical take with a 3-month history of thoracic back pain. Over the last week, he had been having episodes of sweats and shivers, particularly at night.

      He was admitted and blood tests were taken.

      Haemoglobin 87 g/L
      White cells 11.6x10^9/L
      Platelets 214 x10^9/L
      MCV 70 fl
      MCH 20 pg
      Blood cultures Streptococcus gallolyticus

      MRI showed a discitis at thoracic disks 8/9.
      ECHO: No vegetation seen

      What is the next investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Colonoscopy

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer is often associated with Streptococcus bovis endocarditis.

      Streptococcus gallolyticus is a specific type of Streptococcus bovis. When patients present with Streptococcus bovis bacteraemia, it is important to investigate for underlying colonic malignancies as approximately 10 to 25 percent of cases are associated with this condition. The most reliable investigation for this is a colonoscopy.

      If a malignancy is detected during colonoscopy, a CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis may be necessary to check for metastases. However, this imaging technique is not as effective as colonoscopy in detecting colonic malignancies. Similarly, an ultrasound of the abdomen is also less sensitive than colonoscopy for diagnosing colonic malignancies.

      Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.

      The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are commonly found in indwelling lines and are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery. Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition.

      Culture negative causes of infective endocarditis include prior antibiotic therapy, Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, and HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella). It is important to note that systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy, specifically marantic endocarditis, can also cause non-infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      160.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a suspected overdose of...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a suspected overdose of aspirin. She has been experiencing vomiting and tinnitus. Upon examination, she appears dehydrated, restless, and is sweating profusely. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 38.5°C, pulse 120 regular, blood pressure 140/85 mmHg, respiratory rate 25 breaths per minute, Glasgow coma score of 12, and oxygen saturation 95% on air. It is believed that the aspirin was ingested eight hours ago and that the plasma levels have already peaked. The biochemistry results show a pH of 7.25 (7.35-7.45), PaCO2 of 20 mmHg (38-42), PaO2 of 102 mmHg (75-100), BE of +8 (-3 to +3), Bicarbonate of 22 mEq/L (22-28), SpO2 of 96%, glucose of 13 mmol/L (3.5-5.5), and salicylate levels of 601 mg/L. What is the most appropriate initial clinical intervention in this case?

      Your Answer: Haemodialysis

      Correct Answer: Alkalinise the urine

      Explanation:

      Management of Salicylate Poisoning

      The clinical presentation of a patient with salicylate poisoning is indicative of a moderate overdose of aspirin. Unfortunately, there is no specific antidote for salicylate ingestion. Therefore, the management of this type of poisoning is supportive, with measures aimed at preventing further absorption from the gastrointestinal tract and enhancing excretion.

      The initial treatment for salicylate poisoning should involve the administration of activated charcoal, which should be repeated as necessary to prevent delayed absorption of salicylate. Gastric lavage may be useful if the ingestion occurred within one hour, but airway protection is essential during the procedure. Afterward, the patient should be rehydrated, and their urine should be alkalinized to promote urinary excretion. This can be achieved by administering an infusion of sodium bicarbonate. The goal is to increase the ionization of salicylic acid, a weak acid, in an alkaline environment, which will increase its excretion tenfold.

      Forced diuresis alone is not recommended as it can lead to severe electrolyte imbalances and pulmonary or cerebral edema. In severe cases of salicylate poisoning, such as those with high plasma levels of salicylate (>800 mg/L), severe metabolic acidosis, acute kidney injury, or neurological impairment (coma, hallucinations, or seizures), early hemodialysis may be necessary. Overall, the management of salicylate poisoning requires a comprehensive approach that includes supportive care, prevention of further absorption, and enhanced excretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
      71.8
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pleuritic chest...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents to the emergency department with sudden onset pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath two hours after undergoing dual chamber pacemaker insertion for sinus bradycardia. She reports feeling palpitations in her chest as well. The procedure was uncomplicated except for some additional manipulation required for placement of the final wire. The patient is not on any regular medications.

      Upon examination, the patient has bilateral crackles at both lung bases and no added heart sounds, though they are noted to be quiet. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there is no focal neurology. Observations reveal a respiratory rate of 30/min, oxygen saturations of 93% on 4l, blood pressure of 90/50 mmHg, apyrexial, GCS 15, and a body mass index (BMI) of 35.

      An AP CXR shows a large heart with bilateral mild pleural effusions and pulmonary edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Myocardial rupture

      Explanation:

      Myocardial Rupture and Pericardial Effusion Following Pacemaker Insertion

      The presenting symptoms suggest that the patient has experienced myocardial rupture, most likely ventricular, resulting in a pericardial effusion. This condition is causing hemodynamic compromise, and urgent intervention with pericardiocentesis is necessary to prevent cardiac tamponade. Myocardial rupture is a rare complication (<1%) that can occur either early or late after the procedure. Delayed perforations are less likely to cause acute symptoms and have a lower incidence of tamponade and sudden cardiac death. Risk factors for perforation include physician technique, patient factors (such as obesity or difficult anatomy), and lead design. A pulmonary embolism (PE) is unlikely to be the cause of the X-ray findings, and the patient has no additional risk factors for PE other than obesity. Similarly, pneumothorax and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) are unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. Symptoms of superior vena cava (SVC) obstruction would present differently and would not likely occur so acutely after the procedure. In cases of SVC obstruction, patients typically experience neck and facial swelling with visible collateral veins on the chest and neck. For further reading on pacemaker complications, including lead and pocket complications, and left ventricular free wall rupture, please refer to the following resources:
      – Common Pacemaker Problems: Lead and Pocket Complications
      – Complications and lead extraction in cardiac pacing and defibrillation
      – Left ventricular free wall rupture: clinical presentation and management

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      74.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a rash on her upper...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a rash on her upper thighs. She reports that she noticed the rash three days ago and it is both itchy and red. Additionally, she has been experiencing itchy hands. The patient lives with her partner and 3-year-old son and works as a care assistant in a nursing home. During the examination, the healthcare provider observes a dry erythematous papular rash on the medial aspect of both thighs. What is the recommended treatment for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Malathion liquid

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin infestation caused by Sarcoptes scabiei, which often occurs in outbreaks in institutions like nursing homes and schools. The female mite burrows into the skin and leaves behind a trail of about 40 eggs after fertilization. This infestation causes intense itching, usually in the folds of skin between the fingers, flexor wrist surfaces, the abdomen, and thighs.

      To diagnose scabies, doctors examine the mite, its feces, or eggs under a microscope. Treatment for scabies involves the use of malathion 0.5% liquid, which requires the entire household to undergo treatment. Scabies is a highly contagious condition, and it is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent reinfestation.

      In summary, scabies is a skin infestation caused by a mite that burrows into the skin and leaves behind eggs. It causes intense itching and is highly contagious. Treatment involves the use of malathion 0.5% liquid, and all members of the household must undergo treatment to prevent reinfestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      52.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 68-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with a history of cough...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the outpatient department with a history of cough and dyspnoea for the past four months. He experiences coughing most mornings and brings up mucoid sputum. He denies any haemoptysis but has become increasingly breathless on exertion, limiting his exercise tolerance to 100 metres on the flat. He reports constant pain in his right shoulder that has started to keep him awake at night over the last couple of months, as well as pain in the medial aspect of his right arm. He has a reduced appetite and has lost 5 kg in weight. He has a forty pack year smoking history and is a retired engineer. He has signs of rheumatoid arthritis in his hands, with bilateral finger clubbing and wasting of small muscles in his right hand, particularly the thenar and hypothenar eminences.

      What is the preferred diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bronchoscopy

      Correct Answer: CT scan of chest

      Explanation:

      Pancoast Tumour: A Localised Lung Cancer

      A Pancoast tumour, also known as a superior sulcus tumour, is a type of lung cancer that develops in the uppermost part of the lung. This cancerous growth infiltrates the surrounding tissues, including the brachial plexus, ribs, and mediastinum. Patients with this condition often exhibit signs of local extension, such as neurological symptoms in the arm and hand, Horner’s syndrome on the same side as the tumour, or rib destruction visible on radiological scans.

      A CT scan is the preferred diagnostic tool for detecting a Pancoast tumour. However, obtaining biopsy material can be challenging due to the tumour’s location. Bronchoscopy is not useful in this case as the lesion is too peripheral. Squamous cell carcinoma is the most common type of tumour found in patients with Pancoast tumours. Unfortunately, these tumours are often inoperable when diagnosed.

      Overall, a Pancoast tumour is a localised lung cancer that can cause significant symptoms due to its proximity to surrounding tissues. Early detection and treatment are crucial for improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      73
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old male patient complains of abdominal bloating and diarrhoea that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male patient complains of abdominal bloating and diarrhoea that has been ongoing for four months. He reports having bowel movements 2-3 times a day and recurrent aphthous ulcers, but denies experiencing weight loss or passing mucus or blood in his stools. The patient has not traveled in the past year and has no family history of inflammatory bowel disease. Upon examination, his abdomen was soft with no organomegaly. Coeliac serology results were negative. What is the next recommended test?

      Your Answer: Sigmoidoscopy

      Correct Answer: Faecal calprotectin

      Explanation:

      The presence of H.pylori antibodies in a patient’s serology can indicate prior exposure to Helicobacter pylori, but it is linked to symptoms in the upper gastrointestinal tract.

      Faecal Calprotectin: A Screening Tool for Intestinal Inflammation

      Faecal calprotectin is a recommended screening tool for inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) by NICE. It is a test that detects intestinal inflammation and can also be used to monitor the response to treatment in IBD patients. The test has a high sensitivity of 93% and specificity of 96% for IBD in adults. However, in children, the specificity falls to around 75%.

      Apart from IBD, other conditions that can cause a raised faecal calprotectin include bowel malignancy, coeliac disease, infectious colitis, and the use of NSAIDs. Therefore, faecal calprotectin is a useful diagnostic tool for detecting intestinal inflammation and can aid in the diagnosis and management of various gastrointestinal conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
      62.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - In hyperthermia, as the body temperature rises, what is the earliest biochemical abnormality...

    Correct

    • In hyperthermia, as the body temperature rises, what is the earliest biochemical abnormality observed?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Effects of Body Temperature on Electrolyte Balance

      As the body temperature increases, it can lead to hyperthermia and heatstroke. One of the earliest abnormalities that can occur is hypokalaemia, which is caused by an increase in potassium uptake by muscles due to the stimulation of the NA-K-ATPase transporter by catecholamines. However, as the body temperature continues to rise, hyperkalaemia can develop, along with rhabdomyolysis and lactic acidosis. Severe cases may also show elevated levels of CSF lactate. The acid-base balance in such cases is characterized by metabolic acidosis with compensatory respiratory alkalosis.

      Similar to dehydration states, the body tries to conserve water by concentrating urine, resulting in high urine osmolality. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels in cases of hyperthermia to prevent complications and ensure proper treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
      71.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of occasional blurry vision in...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of occasional blurry vision in both eyes accompanied by frontal headaches. The headaches are most severe in the morning and when bending down, and she experiences nausea and vomiting. Additionally, she hears a whooshing sound in her ears. The patient has no prior medical issues except for a high BMI and takes oral contraceptives. During the examination, the doctor observes bilateral optic disc swelling. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

      Explanation:

      Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)

      Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH), previously known as benign intracranial hypertension or pseudotumour cerebri, is a condition that primarily affects young to middle-aged females with a high BMI. The use of certain medications, such as oral contraceptives, corticosteroids, tetracyclines, and vitamin A, has been linked to an increased likelihood of developing IIH.

      Symptoms of IIH include frontal headaches that worsen when lying flat, coughing, bending, and upon waking, as well as nausea, vomiting, and a whooshing sound in the ears. Patients may also experience pain, numbness, or tingling in their arms and legs, as well as transient, bilateral episodes of blurred vision, transient visual field defects, and double vision.

      While raised intracranial pressure and bilateral optic disc swelling can be seen with other conditions such as intracranial aneurysms, intracranial tumors, and subdural hematomas, the patient’s profile and medication history make IIH the most likely diagnosis. Migraine could cause similar symptoms, but it would not explain the bilateral optic disc swelling.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medical Ophthalmology
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of feeling generally unwell and nauseated. She is becoming increasingly drowsy and is unable to provide a coherent history.

      Upon examination, she has a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min and an oxygen saturation of 98% on air. Her heart rate is 100 beats/min with a blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg. She is not running a fever.

      The arterial blood gas results are as follows:

      - pH 7.25 (7.35 - 7.45)
      - pO2 11.3 kPa (11 - 14.4)
      - pCO2 4.7 kPa (4.6 - 6.4)
      - Sodium 145 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium 5.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.5)
      - Chloride 95 mmol/L (95 - 108)
      - Bicarbonate 15 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Glucose 6.9 mmol/L (4 - 7)
      - Lactate 1.9 mmol/L (0.5 -2.2)
      - Base excess -8 (-2 - 2)

      What is the most probable cause of the above presentation?

      Your Answer: Chronic paracetamol use

      Explanation:

      Chronic use of paracetamol can result in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis due to 5-oxoproline.

      To determine if a patient has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis, the MUDPILES acronym can be used to identify potential causes. This includes methanol, uremia, diabetic ketoacidosis, paracetamol use (chronic), isoniazid, lactate, ethanol or propylene glycol, and salicylates.

      To calculate the anion gap, the formula [Na (145) + K (5)] – [Cl (95) + HCO3 (15)] can be used. A normal anion gap falls between 8-16 mmol/L.

      In this case, the patient has a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis with a value of 40 mmol/L. Of the options provided, only chronic paracetamol use can cause this condition.

      Addison’s disease, diarrhea, type 1 renal tubular acidosis, and type 2 renal tubular acidosis all result in a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis and are therefore not the correct answer.

      Understanding Anion Gap in Metabolic Acidosis

      Metabolic acidosis is a condition where the body produces too much acid or loses too much bicarbonate. Anion gap is a useful tool in diagnosing metabolic acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of bicarbonate and chloride from the sum of sodium and potassium. A normal anion gap is between 8-14 mmol/L.

      There are two types of metabolic acidosis: normal anion gap and raised anion gap. Normal anion gap or hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis can be caused by gastrointestinal bicarbonate loss, renal tubular acidosis, drugs like acetazolamide, ammonium chloride injection, and Addison’s disease. On the other hand, raised anion gap metabolic acidosis can be caused by lactate due to shock or hypoxia, ketones in diabetic ketoacidosis or alcohol, urate in renal failure, acid poisoning from salicylates or methanol, and 5-oxoproline from chronic paracetamol use.

      Understanding anion gap in metabolic acidosis is crucial in identifying the underlying cause of the condition. It helps healthcare professionals in providing appropriate treatment and management to patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
      572.7
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 33-year-old male presents to the emergency department with chest tightness that worsens...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old male presents to the emergency department with chest tightness that worsens on inspiration. He reports having a low-grade fever and myalgia for the past 4 days. Prior to this, he had no limitations to his activity and never experienced chest tightness. He was given glyceryl trinitrate spray and aspirin in the ambulance, but neither provided relief.

      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.4ºC, and he is a smoker with a family history of heart attacks in his father, mother, and paternal uncle around the age of 60. His blood work shows elevated levels of CRP and troponin T, as well as widespread ST elevations and subtle PR depression on his ECG.

      What treatment should be initiated for this 33-year-old male with chest tightness and concerning cardiac symptoms?

      Your Answer: Prescribe ibuprofen TDS and colchicine BD

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial management for acute pericarditis involves a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine, according to the current guidelines from the European Society of Cardiology. In this case, the patient’s history, examination, and blood tests suggest acute pericarditis/myopericarditis, with the high troponin levels indicating myocardial injury likely caused by myopericarditis. While the patient’s smoking history increases their risk for a coronary event, the evidence points towards pericarditis as the primary issue. It is important to note that a dynamic rise in troponin levels is not observed.

      Acute Pericarditis: Causes, Features, Investigations, and Management

      Acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards. Other symptoms include non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Tachypnoea and tachycardia may also be present, along with a pericardial rub.

      The causes of acute pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, trauma, post-myocardial infarction, Dressler’s syndrome, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, and malignancy.

      Investigations for acute pericarditis include ECG changes, which are often global/widespread, as opposed to the ‘territories’ seen in ischaemic events. The ECG may show ‘saddle-shaped’ ST elevation and PR depression, which is the most specific ECG marker for pericarditis. All patients with suspected acute pericarditis should have transthoracic echocardiography.

      Management of acute pericarditis involves treating the underlying cause. A combination of NSAIDs and colchicine is now generally used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis.

      In summary, acute pericarditis is a possible diagnosis for patients presenting with chest pain. The condition is characterized by chest pain, which may be pleuritic and relieved by sitting forwards, along with other symptoms. The causes of acute pericarditis are varied, and investigations include ECG changes and transthoracic echocardiography. Management involves treating the underlying cause and using a combination of NSAIDs and colchicine as first-line treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      109
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department. She has just returned from...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department. She has just returned from her trip to Thailand and is worried about the risk of contracting rabies. She had a minor bite from a stray dog while on her trip, but she immediately cleaned the wound. She has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. On examination, all of her vital signs are within normal limits and the wound has healed.
      What is the best course of action to manage this patient's risk of rabies?

      Your Answer: Vaccination today and on days three, seven, 14 and 30, and also give immediate RIG

      Correct Answer: Vaccination today and on day three

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Rabies

      Rabies is a viral infection that can be transmitted through the bite of an infected mammal. If a person is bitten by an animal that may have rabies, they should seek medical attention immediately. The appropriate post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) will depend on the patient’s vaccination history and the severity of the bite.

      If the patient has been previously vaccinated against rabies, they will only need vaccination on the day of the bite and three days later to establish immunity. However, if the patient has not been vaccinated before, PEP should include both passive (immunoglobulin) and active (vaccination) immunisation. In this case, the patient would receive IV rabies immunoglobulin (RIG) and vaccination on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 30.

      If the patient has not been vaccinated before and presents within a week of the bite, they would receive the full treatment, which includes IV RIG and vaccination on days 0, 3, 7, 14, and 30. However, if the patient presents after a week, IV immunoglobulins are not likely to be effective.

      In summary, PEP for rabies should be tailored to the patient’s vaccination history and the severity of the bite. It is important to seek medical attention immediately after a potential exposure to rabies to ensure appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing breathlessness and angina pain.
    Examination reveals pale conjunctivae....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with increasing breathlessness and angina pain.
      Examination reveals pale conjunctivae. She has evidence of a left lower lobe consolidation on auscultation of the chest. Petechiae are present on the lower limbs.
      Observations:
      Blood pressure 125/79 mmHg
      Heart rate 100 bpm, regular
      Temperature 37.9 °C
      Oxygen saturations 94% on air
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 75 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 2.5 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 23 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
      Blood film Blast cells with Auer rods
      Given the likely clinical diagnosis, what feature is most associated with a negative prognosis?

      Your Answer: Deletion of part of chromosome 5 (5q-)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Prognostic Factors in Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that can be influenced by various prognostic factors. One of the unfavourable abnormalities associated with AML is the deletion of part of chromosome 5 (5q–), along with other complex translocations and additions. However, favourable karyotype abnormalities such as translocation t(8;21) can also occur. Age is another factor that affects prognosis, with survival rates decreasing significantly after age 40. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is common in AML but does not significantly impact prognosis compared to other factors such as renal impairment, performance status, prior haematological malignancy, and karyotype abnormalities. Overall, understanding these prognostic factors can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients with AML.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      387
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman with a long-standing history of diabetes is referred to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with a long-standing history of diabetes is referred to the Endocrinology Department with a six month history of worsening vision and numbness in her feet. She is now unable to walk more than a few steps without feeling pain and discomfort. She also reports feeling thirsty all the time and needing to urinate frequently. She is currently on metformin 1000 mg twice a day and insulin glargine 20 units once a day.
      On examination in the clinic, her blood pressure (BP) is 135/80 mmHg, while her pulse is 75 beats per minute (bpm) and regular. Her fundoscopy shows evidence of diabetic retinopathy and there is reduced sensation in both feet. Her urine dipstick reveals glucose +++ and ketones -.
      Which of the following measures is the most important step in this case?

      Your Answer: Perindopril-related side effects

      Correct Answer: Colchicine-related side effects

      Explanation:

      The clinical scenario presented suggests a myoneuropathy, most likely caused by colchicine. This drug can lead to subacute proximal muscle weakness and, in some cases, acute necrotising myopathy. Creatine phosphokinase levels may be normal or elevated, and metabolic myopathies should be ruled out if levels are normal. Muscle biopsy may show elements of both myopathic and neuropathic disease, with special features including rimmed vacuoles in muscle fibres on Gomori staining. The mechanism behind this is not fully understood, but it is believed to be due to the drug’s interference with tubulin, a protein required for the polymerisation of microtubules in muscle and nerve tissues. While weakness resolves when the drug is discontinued, neuropathic features may remain. Other potential causes, such as thyroid myopathy, limb girdle muscular dystrophy, and multiple sclerosis, can be ruled out based on the absence of certain symptoms and signs. Perindopril is not a known cause of myopathy or neuropathy and is therefore not responsible for the presented symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 28-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with persistent symptoms despite being...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the asthma clinic with persistent symptoms despite being on high dose fluticasone/salmeterol, montelukast, and oral theophylline. He has experienced four exacerbations in the past year and is unable to reduce his oral prednisone dose below 10 mg without worsening shortness of breath and wheezing. On examination, his blood pressure is 125/82 mmHg, his pulse is regular at 82 beats per minute, and he has quiet wheezing on chest auscultation. His peak flow is 435 ml/min (560 predicted), and his eosinophil count is elevated at 4.1 x 10(9)/l. IgE levels are normal. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Mepolizumab

      Explanation:

      Mepolizumab is a suitable treatment option for asthma patients with high eosinophils. This anti-IL5 monoclonal antibody works by binding to IL5 and preventing it from promoting eosinophil growth and activity. Studies have shown that mepolizumab can significantly improve symptoms in patients with resistant asthma. Omalizumab, on the other hand, is an anti-IgE monoclonal antibody that is effective in treating resistant asthma with raised IgE and allergic symptoms. Mycophenolate is not used for resistant asthma, but rather for lupus nephritis and as an anti-rejection agent. Infliximab is used for inflammatory bowel disease and arthritides, while tiotropium is primarily used for COPD. Nebulisers are only used for asthma patients who cannot use a conventional inhaler and spacer device for beta agonist therapy.

      Respiratory medicine utilizes various drugs to treat respiratory conditions such as asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Salbutamol is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that relaxes bronchial smooth muscle through its effects on beta 2 receptors. It is commonly used in asthma and COPD treatment. Salmeterol, a long-acting beta receptor agonist, has similar effects. Corticosteroids are anti-inflammatory drugs used as maintenance therapy in the form of inhaled corticosteroids. Oral or intravenous corticosteroids are used following an acute exacerbation of asthma or COPD.

      Ipratropium is a short-acting inhaled bronchodilator that blocks muscarinic acetylcholine receptors, relaxing bronchial smooth muscle. It is primarily used in COPD treatment, while tiotropium has similar effects but is long-acting. Methylxanthines, such as theophylline, are non-specific inhibitors of phosphodiesterase, resulting in an increase in cAMP. They are given orally or intravenously and have a narrow therapeutic index. Monteleukast and zafirlukast block leukotriene receptors and are usually taken orally. They are useful in treating aspirin-induced asthma. Overall, these drugs play a crucial role in managing respiratory conditions and improving patients’ quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old man with a dual chamber permanent pacemaker implanted three years ago...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man with a dual chamber permanent pacemaker implanted three years ago for complete heart block was admitted to the CCU due to a fever of 38°C. During a transthoracic echocardiogram, a vegetation was found on the ventricular lead of the pacemaker. He has been given IV antibiotics in the Emergency department. Which statement below is incorrect?

      Your Answer: He is likely to require pacemaker re-implantation after successful extraction and treatment with IV antibiotics

      Correct Answer: He will require prolonged antibiotic therapy before removal of the pacemaker

      Explanation:

      European Society of Cardiology’s Recommendations for Cardiac Device Related Infective Endocarditis

      The European Society of Cardiology has issued guidelines for the management of infective endocarditis related to cardiac devices. According to these guidelines, patients with cardiac device related infective endocarditis should undergo urgent extraction of the implanted device followed by prolonged antibiotic therapy. Even patients with large vegetations (>10mm) should undergo percutaneous extraction. After device removal, the need for reimplantation should be reassessed. Additionally, routine antibiotic prophylaxis is recommended before device implantation.

      In summary, the European Society of Cardiology recommends a comprehensive approach to the management of infective endocarditis related to cardiac devices. This includes prompt device removal, prolonged antibiotic therapy, and reassessment of the need for reimplantation. These guidelines aim to improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications associated with cardiac device related infective endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      31.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man presents for a health check at a mobile cardiovascular risk...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents for a health check at a mobile cardiovascular risk assessment clinic. He does not take any medication and has a sedentary lifestyle. He has never smoked and his father had a heart attack at the age of 60.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Total cholesterol: 5.0 mmol/L (<5.2)
      - Triglycerides: 4.0 mmol/L (0.45-1.69)

      What is the most common cause of an isolated hypertriglyceridaemia?

      Your Answer: Familial hyperlipidaemia

      Correct Answer: Obesity

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Mild Hypertriglyceridaemia

      Mild hypertriglyceridaemia, or elevated levels of triglycerides in the blood, is commonly caused by obesity. This is due to a decrease in the effectiveness of lipoprotein lipase activity and an increase in the production of very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL). In the UK, approximately 20% of individuals are considered obese, and this number is on the rise. Alcohol consumption is also a significant contributor to hypertriglyceridaemia.

      Aside from obesity and alcohol, there are other secondary causes of mild hypertriglyceridaemia. These include pregnancy, hypothyroidism, the use of diuretics, and pancreatitis. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertriglyceridaemia in order to properly manage and treat the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      20.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 57-year-old man with extensive small bowel stricturing Crohn’s disease underwent a large...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with extensive small bowel stricturing Crohn’s disease underwent a large small bowel resection. It was complicated by an anastomotic breakdown which required a further resection and jejunostomy formation. He was referred to a local intestinal failure unit and, after a period of assessment, was discharged home on parenteral nutrition. He gained weight and made good progress, although an intermittently high-output stoma persisted. When reviewed in clinic after a year on home parenteral nutrition, he complained of hair loss, a skin rash, and impairment of taste. Examination revealed a superficial scaling erythematous patchy rash that was most prominent in intertriginous areas and periorally. What is the most probable nutrient deficiency?

      Your Answer: Vitamin A

      Correct Answer: Zinc

      Explanation:

      Understanding Zinc Deficiency and Acrodermatitis Enteropathica

      Zinc deficiency is a condition that can lead to a range of symptoms, including acrodermatitis, which is characterized by red, crusted lesions that appear in an acral distribution, peri-orificial, perianal, and alopecia. Other symptoms of zinc deficiency include short stature, hypogonadism, hepatosplenomegaly, geophagia (ingesting clay/soil), and cognitive impairment.

      One specific form of zinc deficiency is known as acrodermatitis enteropathica, which is a recessively inherited partial defect in intestinal zinc absorption. This condition can lead to a range of symptoms, including skin lesions, diarrhea, and other gastrointestinal issues. Treatment may involve zinc supplementation and dietary changes to ensure adequate zinc intake.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      94.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension visits the outpatient clinic and...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension visits the outpatient clinic and his blood pressure is measured at 150/90 mmHg. He reports having reduced his salt intake but still consumes six bottles of wine per week. He is currently taking beta blockers and thiazide diuretics. What should be the next course of action in his treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Reduction of alcohol intake

      Explanation:

      Next Steps in Hypertension Management

      When it comes to managing hypertension, non-pharmacological measures should always be the first line of defense. In the case of a patient who has already reduced their salt intake, the next step should not be to prescribe an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Instead, the patient should focus on reducing their alcohol intake. This is a crucial step in managing hypertension and can have a significant impact on blood pressure levels.

      While reassurance may be helpful in some cases, it is unlikely to bring the patient’s blood pressure below the current guidelines. Similarly, increasing the diuretic dose may have little effect on blood pressure levels, but it can increase the risk of side effects. Therefore, it is important to focus on non-pharmacological measures, such as reducing alcohol intake, to effectively manage hypertension. By taking these steps, patients can improve their overall health and reduce their risk of complications associated with high blood pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      18.2
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of visual disturbance...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of visual disturbance in his left eye, accompanied by peripheral vision loss. He reports constant headaches over the past two weeks, which are worse on the left side of his skull and exacerbated by pressure. He is unable to lie on his left side due to the pain. On examination, he exhibits peripheral loss of vision in the temporal lower quadrant of his left eye and tenderness in the left temporal region and shoulders. He experiences mild difficulty in rising from a seated position, but is otherwise neurologically intact. Blood tests reveal elevated CRP levels and an ESR of 79 mm/h.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital urgently for IV methylprednisolone infusion

      Explanation:

      Immediate hospital admission and prompt administration of corticosteroids are crucial in cases of giant cell arteritis accompanied by visual impairment. Delay in treatment can result in permanent loss of vision. Although there may be concerns about a possible transient ischemic attack or stroke, the patient’s medical history, physical examination, and laboratory results suggest a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis. Therefore, urgent CT of the head may not be necessary at this time.

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often occurs in patients over the age of 60 and is commonly associated with polymyalgia rheumatica. This condition is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. Symptoms of temporal arteritis include headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common ocular complication. A tender, palpable temporal artery is also often present, and around 50% of patients may experience symptoms of PMR, such as muscle aches and morning stiffness.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors will typically look for elevated inflammatory markers, such as an ESR greater than 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to confirm the diagnosis, with skip lesions often being present. Treatment for temporal arteritis involves urgent high-dose glucocorticoids, which should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy. If there is no visual loss, high-dose prednisolone is typically used, while IV methylprednisolone is usually given if there is evolving visual loss. Patients with visual symptoms should be seen by an ophthalmologist on the same day, as visual damage is often irreversible. Other treatments may include bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      32.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (1/4) 25%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Haematology (1/3) 33%
Oncology (0/1) 0%
Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics (1/2) 50%
Cardiology (5/8) 63%
Rheumatology (1/2) 50%
Infectious Diseases (1/3) 33%
Gastroenterology And Hepatology (0/1) 0%
Geriatric Medicine (1/1) 100%
Medical Ophthalmology (1/1) 100%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Passmed