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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman presents requesting a repeat prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC).
Which of these statements is true about the COC?Your Answer: If a pill is missed 10 days into the pill cycle, emergency contraception is needed
Correct Answer: A 12 month review is acceptable once the patient is established on the pill
Explanation:Starting and Maintaining the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill (COC) can be started at any point during the menstrual cycle, as long as the woman is not pregnant. Once established on the COC, it is reasonable to give a 12-month prescription.
According to the latest guidance from the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), additional precautions are no longer required to maintain contraceptive efficacy when using antibiotics that are not enzyme inducers with the COCP for durations of 3 weeks or less. However, if the antibiotics or illness cause vomiting or diarrhea, the usual additional precautions relating to these conditions should be observed.
If seven COC pills have been taken, ovulation is suppressed for a further seven days, and emergency contraception is not required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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You see a 6-year-old boy who you see for occasional bouts of abdominal pain. His appetite is good, and he opens his bowels regularly. There are no other symptoms reported, and examination is unremarkable. A urine dipstick is positive for leucocytes but negative otherwise.
What would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Send for MC&S and only treat if growth confirmed
Correct Answer: No action necessary
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for UTI Diagnosis in Children
According to NICE guidelines, children aged 3 years and above who test positive for leucocytes on a dipstick test but negative for nitrites should have a urine sample sent for MC&S. Antibiotic treatment should only be started if there is good clinical evidence of a UTI. Symptoms in verbal children may include frequency, dysuria, and changes in continence, while younger children may present with nonspecific symptoms such as fever, vomiting, and poor feeding.
If the dipstick test shows only nitrite positivity, antibiotic treatment should be initiated, and a urine sample should be sent for culture. However, if the dipstick test shows both nitrite and leucocyte positivity, a UTI is confirmed, and a culture should be sent if there is a risk of serious illness or a history of previous UTIs. These guidelines aim to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment of UTIs in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 87-year-old nursing home resident is being treated for a urinary tract infection. She is found wandering outside the nursing home in an agitated state during the night. Despite receiving proper antibiotic therapy, nursing care, and environmental modifications, she continues to be aggressive and agitated, posing a potential danger to herself. What is the best course of action for managing her condition?
Your Answer: Lorazepam 2 mg intramuscularly
Correct Answer: Haloperidol 0.5 mg orally
Explanation:The use of olanzapine is also recommended by NICE.
Understanding Acute Confusional State
Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to the hospital. It is often caused by a combination of predisposing factors such as age, dementia, significant injury, frailty, and polypharmacy, as well as precipitating events like infections, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and severe pain.
The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but commonly include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep cycle, and poor attention. Management of the condition involves treating the underlying cause, modifying the environment, and using sedatives like haloperidol or olanzapine. However, care must be taken in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen their symptoms.
Overall, understanding acute confusional state is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Which of the non-pharmacological non-invasive therapies is the only one approved in current guidelines for the management of persistent nonspecific knee pain?
Your Answer: Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
Correct Answer: Manual therapy
Explanation:Effective Manual Therapy for Low Back Pain
Manual therapy is a highly effective treatment option for low back pain. It involves spinal manipulation, spinal mobilisation, and massage. Spinal manipulation is a low-amplitude, high-velocity movement that takes a joint beyond the range of passive movement. Mobilisation, on the other hand, is joint movement within the normal range of movement. Both techniques have the approval of the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence.
Manual therapy can be provided by chiropractors or osteopaths, as well as doctors and physiotherapists who have had special training in spinal manipulation. It is a safe and non-invasive treatment option that can provide significant relief from low back pain.
However, it is important to note that belts or corsets for managing low back pain do not have approval. Similarly, therapeutic ultrasound is not recommended, and traction should not be offered. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is also not recommended for managing low back pain with or without sciatica.
In conclusion, manual therapy is an effective and safe treatment option for low back pain. It is important to consult with a qualified healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for your specific condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 5
Correct
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A 47-year-old woman presents with severe vertigo provoked by moving her head, including rolling over in bed, lying down, sitting up, leaning forward or even just turning the head in a horizontal plane. The attacks of vertigo last 20–30 seconds and resolve quickly if the head is kept still. Nausea is associated with the episodes. The Dix–Hallpike manoeuvre reproduces symptoms of vertigo and nystagmus.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?
Your Answer: Epley’s manoeuvre
Explanation:Treatment Options for Benign Positional Vertigo
Benign positional vertigo is a common condition characterized by short episodes of vertigo triggered by head movement. Epley’s manoeuvre is the most effective intervention for this condition, with a number needed to treat of 2. However, it cannot be used for patients with significant underlying neck arthritis. Ondansetron, a 5HT3 receptor antagonist, is not effective in managing symptoms of vertigo and nausea associated with benign positional vertigo. Vestibular suppressant agents like betahistine are not recommended as they can be sedating and not effective over the long term. Brandt-Daroff exercises are less effective than Epley’s manoeuvre. Prokinetic antiemetic agents like domperidone are not effective in treating benign positional vertigo. Therefore, Epley’s manoeuvre is the intervention of choice for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is one of the most common symptoms observed in individuals with Cow's milk protein intolerance?
Your Answer: Bloody diarrhoea
Correct Answer: Stridor
Explanation:Cow’s Milk and Soy Intolerance in Infants
Cow’s milk intolerance in infants can lead to anaphylactic responses, but it is more commonly associated with gastrointestinal effects and malabsorption, resulting in diarrhea. One of the most common symptoms of cow’s milk protein allergy (CMPA) is bloody stool. On the other hand, adverse reactions to soy have been reported in 10-35% of infants with CMPA. Soy may be considered as an alternative for infants over 6 months who refuse to drink extensively hydrolyzed formula and/or amino acid formula. However, soy formulations contain high concentrations of phytate, aluminum, and phytoestrogens (isoflavones), which may have undesired effects. Therefore, it is important to monitor infants for any adverse reactions when introducing soy-based formulas.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease is experiencing erectile dysfunction. The decision is made to try sildenafil therapy. Is there any existing medication that can be continued without requiring adjustments?
Your Answer: GTN spray
Correct Answer: Nateglinide
Explanation:The BNF advises against using alpha-blockers within 4 hours of taking sildenafil.
Phosphodiesterase type V inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. They work by increasing cGMP, which leads to relaxation of smooth muscles in blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which is taken about an hour before sexual activity. Other examples include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra), which have longer-lasting effects and can be taken regularly. However, these medications have contraindications, such as not being safe for patients taking nitrates or those with hypotension. They can also cause side effects such as visual disturbances, blue discolouration, and headaches. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking PDE5 inhibitors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents with a three-week history of increasing fatigue and palpitations on exertion. He has a medical history of myocardial infarction and biventricular heart failure and is currently taking ramipril 5mg, bisoprolol 5mg, aspirin 75 mg, and atorvastatin 80 mg. During examination, his heart rate is irregularly irregular at 98/min, and his blood pressure is 172/85 mmHg. An ECG confirms the diagnosis of new atrial fibrillation. What medication should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Indapamide
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:Verapamil is more likely to worsen heart failure compared to dihydropyridines such as amlodipine.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old crystal healer who lives alone says she doesn't have a best friend and thinks that people judge her unfairly. She says that the power of crystals will cure leukaemia and sometimes feels that her life story appears in magazine stories.
Select from the list the single best description of her personality type.Your Answer: Histrionic
Correct Answer: Schizotypal
Explanation:Understanding Personality Disorders: Clusters and Characteristics
Personality disorders are not easy to diagnose, but they can be seen as extreme versions of normal behavior that affect an individual’s social functioning. Psychotherapy and cognitive behavior therapy can be helpful, and medication may be used in some cases. These disorders can be grouped into three clusters: odd, dramatic, and anxious. The odd PDs include paranoid, schizotypal, and schizoid. The dramatic PDs include histrionic, borderline, narcissistic, and antisocial. The anxious PDs include dependent, obsessive-compulsive, and avoidant. Borderline personality disorder is characterized by fear of abandonment, unstable relationships, and dangerous behavior. Histrionic personality disorder is characterized by excessive attention-seeking behavior and a need for approval.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 10
Correct
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A 78-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with his daughter, who has noticed an ulcer on his left ankle. He is uncertain about how long it has been there. The patient has a history of ischaemic heart disease and prostatism. He reports experiencing significant pain from the ulcer, especially at night. Upon examination, the doctor observes a punched-out ulcer on his foot with pallor surrounding the area.
What type of ulcer is most probable in this patient?Your Answer: Arterial
Explanation:Types of Leg Ulcers and Their Characteristics
Leg ulcers can be caused by various factors, and each type has its own distinct characteristics. Here are some of the common types of leg ulcers and their features:
Arterial Ulcers: These ulcers are usually found on the feet, heels, or toes. They are painful, especially when the legs are at rest and elevated. The borders of the ulcer have a punched-out appearance, and the feet may appear cold, white, or bluish.
Neurotrophic Ulcers: These ulcers have a deep sinus and are often located under calluses or over pressure points. They are painless, and the surrounding area may have diminished or absent sensation.
Malignant Ulcers: Ulcers that do not respond to treatment may be a sign of malignant ulceration, such as squamous cell carcinoma.
Vasculitic Ulcers: Systemic vasculitis can cause multiple leg ulcers that are necrotic and deep. There may be other vasculitic lesions elsewhere, such as nail-fold infarcts and splinter hemorrhages.
Venous Ulcers: These ulcers are located below the knee, often on the inner part of the ankle. They are relatively painless but may be associated with aching, swollen lower legs. They are surrounded by venous eczema and may be associated with lipodermatosclerosis. There may also be atrophie blanche and localised hyperpigmentation.
In conclusion, identifying the type of leg ulcer is crucial in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 50-year-old patient with a connective tissue disorder is seen by a rheumatologist and started on hydroxychloroquine.
Which of the following is recommended in relation to monitoring this medication?Your Answer: Formal ophthalmic examination
Explanation:Hydroxychloroquine and Ophthalmic Screening Guidelines
The Royal College of Ophthalmologists and the British National Formulary have established guidelines for hydroxychloroquine retinopathy. Patients who are planned for long-term hydroxychloroquine treatment should undergo a baseline ophthalmic examination within 6-12 months of starting treatment. Annual screening is recommended for patients who have taken hydroxychloroquine for more than 5 years. However, annual screening can be initiated before 5 years if additional risk factors are present, such as concomitant tamoxifen use, impaired renal function, or high-dose hydroxychloroquine therapy (dose greater than 5mg/kg/day). There is no need for an annual ECG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 12
Correct
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You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been hospitalized for chest pain. He has a history of hypertension, angina, and currently smokes 20 cigarettes per day. Upon admission, blood tests were performed in the Emergency Department and revealed the following results:
Na+ 133 mmol/l
K+ 3.3 mmol/l
Urea 4.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 90 µmol/l
What is the most likely explanation for the electrolyte abnormalities observed in this patient?Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy
Explanation:Hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia are caused by bendroflumethiazide, while spironolactone is linked to hyperkalaemia. Smoking would only be significant if the patient had lung cancer that resulted in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.
Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While thiazide diuretics are useful in treating mild heart failure, loop diuretics are more effective in reducing overload. Bendroflumethiazide was previously used to manage hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.
Common side effects of thiazide diuretics include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia, hypokalemia, and hypercalcemia. Other potential adverse effects include gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence. Rare side effects may include thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.
It is worth noting that while thiazide diuretics may cause hypercalcemia, they can also reduce the incidence of renal stones by decreasing urinary calcium excretion. According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves the use of thiazide-like diuretics, along with other medications and lifestyle changes, to achieve optimal blood pressure control and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dyspnea.
On auscultation, you detect a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is most audible at the right upper sternal border. The murmur is loudest during expiration and decreases in intensity when the patient stands. The second heart sound is faint. The apex beat is forceful but not displaced.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Aortic sclerosis
Explanation:Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms and Signs
Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to reduced blood flow from the heart to the rest of the body. One of the typical features of aortic stenosis is a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur that is loudest at the right upper sternal border. This murmur is usually heard during expiration and becomes softer when the patient stands. Additionally, the second heart sound is typically soft, and the apex beat is thrusting but not displaced.
To summarize, aortic stenosis can be identified by a combination of symptoms and signs, including a specific type of murmur, a soft second heart sound, and a thrusting apex beat.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A mother brings her 10-week-old child in for review. Since birth, the child's left eye has been watering. The symptoms have worsened over the past few days after the child contracted a mild viral illness. Upon clinical examination, no abnormalities were found. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Teach nasolacrimal duct massage
Explanation:Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that causes persistent watery eyes in infants. It occurs when there is an imperforate membrane, usually at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. This condition affects around 1 in 10 infants, with symptoms typically appearing at around one month of age.
Fortunately, nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be managed with simple techniques. Parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct, which can help to alleviate symptoms. In fact, around 95% of cases resolve on their own by the time the child reaches one year of age.
However, in cases where symptoms persist beyond this point, it may be necessary to seek further medical intervention. In such cases, it is recommended to refer the child to an ophthalmologist for consideration of probing. This procedure is typically done under a light general anaesthetic and can help to resolve any remaining issues with the nasolacrimal duct.
Overall, while nasolacrimal duct obstruction can be concerning for parents, it is a manageable condition that typically resolves on its own. By understanding the causes and treatment options for this condition, parents can help to ensure their child’s eyes stay healthy and comfortable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient complains of a fishy vaginal discharge that she finds offensive. She reports a grey, watery discharge. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimens. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology And Breast
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Question 16
Correct
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A 63-year-old lady presents to your clinic with complaints of urine leakage when she sneezes and coughs. She denies dysuria but reports seeing blood in her urine. She has no gastrointestinal symptoms. On physical examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Urinalysis reveals the presence of blood, and an MSU shows RBC>100/mm3. She has no known allergies. What would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Refer urgently to urology
Explanation:Managing Urinary Incontinence and Haematuria in Women
Stress urinary incontinence can be managed through lifestyle changes such as fluid and caffeine intake reduction, and pelvic floor muscle training. If medical or surgical treatment is preferred, duloxetine can be used as a second-line option. However, trimethoprim is not appropriate in the absence of urinary infection. Routine referral to urology may be necessary for surgical management, but only if there are no red flags.
On the other hand, nephrology referral is indicated for women under 50 years old with microscopic haematuria, proteinuria, or decreased eGFR. In this case, an urgent urology referral is necessary due to the patient’s macroscopic haematuria without urinary tract infection and unexplained microscopic haematuria at her age.
Managing urinary incontinence and haematuria in women requires careful consideration of the patient’s symptoms and medical history. Proper diagnosis and referral to the appropriate specialist can help ensure effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with elbow pain.
Which physical examination finding would be most indicative of a diagnosis of tennis elbow? Choose ONE answer.Your Answer: Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus
Correct Answer: Pain on resisted wrist extension
Explanation:Understanding Tennis Elbow: Symptoms and Causes
Tennis elbow, also known as lateral epicondylitis, is a common condition that causes pain and tenderness in the lateral elbow and upper forearm. It is caused by repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle, specifically at the muscle-tendon junction at the lateral epicondyle. This article will discuss the symptoms and causes of tennis elbow.
Symptoms of Tennis Elbow:
– Lateral elbow and upper forearm pain and tenderness
– Pain exacerbated by active and resisted movements of the extensor muscles of the forearm
– Pain on resisted extension of the wrist or middle fingerCauses of Tennis Elbow:
– Repetitive stress on the extensor forearm muscle
– Overuse of the forearm muscles during activities such as tennis, painting, or typing
– Poor technique or equipment during physical activities
– Age-related degeneration of the tendonsIt is important to note that decreased sensation in the 4th and 5th fingers is not a symptom of tennis elbow, but rather a feature of ulnar neuropathy that may be associated with medial epicondylitis (Golfer’s elbow). Severe restriction of passive movement and swelling of the elbow joint are also not typical symptoms of tennis elbow. Tenderness over the medial epicondyle of the humerus is a symptom of Golfer’s elbow, which is inflammation of the tendon at the origin of the flexor forearm muscles causing medial elbow pain.
If you are experiencing symptoms of tennis elbow, it is important to seek medical attention and rest the affected arm to prevent further injury. Treatment options may include physical therapy, pain management, and in severe cases, surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic with a complaint of worsening voiding-predominant lower urinary tract symptoms for the past year, including poor flow, hesitancy, and terminal dribbling. There are no red flag features present. The patient's international prostate symptom score is 15, and prostate examination reveals a slightly enlarged, smooth prostate. Urine dipstick results are normal, and blood tests show normal renal function and a normal prostate-specific antigen level.
What is the most appropriate class of medication to consider starting for this patient?Your Answer: 5-alpha reductase inhibitors
Correct Answer: Alpha-1 antagonists
Explanation:For patients with troublesome symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia, alpha-1 antagonists are the first-line medication to consider. This is particularly true for patients with predominantly voiding symptoms, such as the patient in this case who has an IPPS of 15. Alpha-1 agonists like tamsulosin and alfuzosin are recommended for patients with moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms (IPSS ≥ 8) and are likely to provide relief for this patient’s troublesome symptoms.
However, 5-alpha reductase inhibitors are only indicated for patients with significantly enlarged prostates, which is not the case for this patient. Therefore, they are not currently appropriate for him.
Antimuscarinic medication is only appropriate if there is a combination of storage and voiding symptoms that persist after treatment with an alpha-blocker. Since this patient only describes voiding symptoms and is not currently on any treatment, this class of medication is not indicated at this time.
Finally, GnRH analogues are commonly used in prostate cancer treatment, but they were previously investigated as a potential treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy and found to have a side effect profile that outweighed any clinical improvement. Therefore, they are not appropriate for this patient.
Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is a common condition that affects older men, with around 50% of 50-year-old men showing evidence of BPH and 30% experiencing symptoms. The risk of BPH increases with age, with around 80% of 80-year-old men having evidence of the condition. Ethnicity also plays a role, with black men having a higher risk than white or Asian men. BPH typically presents with lower urinary tract symptoms (LUTS), which can be categorised into obstructive (voiding) symptoms and irritative (storage) symptoms. Complications of BPH can include urinary tract infections, retention, and obstructive uropathy.
Assessment of BPH may involve dipstick urine testing, U&Es, and PSA testing if obstructive symptoms are present or if the patient is concerned about prostate cancer. A urinary frequency-volume chart and the International Prostate Symptom Score (IPSS) can also be used to assess the severity of LUTS and their impact on quality of life. Management options for BPH include watchful waiting, alpha-1 antagonists, 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors, combination therapy, and surgery. Alpha-1 antagonists are considered first-line for moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and can improve symptoms in around 70% of men, but may cause adverse effects such as dizziness and dry mouth. 5 alpha-reductase inhibitors may slow disease progression and reduce prostate volume, but can cause adverse effects such as erectile dysfunction and reduced libido. Combination therapy may be used for bothersome moderate-to-severe voiding symptoms and prostatic enlargement. Antimuscarinic drugs may be tried for persistent storage symptoms. Surgery, such as transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), may also be an option.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 9-year-old child is waiting in the GP's office when he suddenly experiences facial swelling and difficulty breathing. An elderly patient is snacking on a bag of cashew nuts in the waiting room. The patient is in good health and had come with his mother for her appointment. As the attending GP, you diagnose the child with anaphylaxis. What would be the appropriate dosage of adrenaline to administer?
Your Answer: Adrenaline 300 mcg IM STAT
Explanation:If a child between the ages of 6 and 11 is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction, they should be given a dose of 300 micrograms (0.3ml) of adrenaline. This dose can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. Based on the patient’s age of 8 years old, it is recommended to administer the adrenaline at a dose of 300 micrograms IM immediately, as stated in the BNF. It is likely that the child is having an anaphylactic reaction to the nuts they were exposed to in the GP waiting room.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 20
Correct
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What are the two drug classes that should not be used as a primary treatment for Parkinson's disease?
Your Answer: Anticholinergics
Explanation:First Line Treatments for Parkinson’s Disease
Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a neurological disorder that affects movement and can cause tremors, stiffness, and difficulty with coordination. When it comes to treating PD, there are several options available, but not all of them are suitable as first-line treatments.
Anticholinergics, for example, should be avoided as a first-line treatment due to their association with an increased frequency of neuropsychiatric and cognitive adverse effects. This is especially important to consider for PD patients with cognitive impairment or clinically significant psychiatric illness.
On the other hand, there are other options that can be used as first-line treatments, such as levodopa, dopamine agonists, and monoamine oxidase B inhibitors. However, ergot-derived dopamine agonists like cabergoline and pergolide should not be used as first-line treatments due to the risk of cardiac fibrosis with long-term use and the need for additional monitoring.
In summary, it’s important to carefully consider the potential risks and benefits of different treatment options for PD, and to choose the most appropriate first-line treatment based on the individual patient’s needs and medical history.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man comes to the General Practitioner for a consultation on some recent results. His estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is 25 ml/min/1.73 m2.
Which of the following additional findings is most likely in this patient?
Your Answer: Hypercalcaemia
Correct Answer: Hyperphosphataemia
Explanation:Managing Calcium and Phosphate Metabolism in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) can cause disturbances in calcium and phosphate metabolism, particularly in moderate to severe cases (stage 4 and 5). Patients with stage 4 CKD (eGFR 15-29 ml/minute/1.73 m2) should be referred for specialist assessment.
In stage 3+ CKD, the goal is to maintain normal calcium levels, serum phosphate at or below 1.8 mmol/l (reference range 0.7-1.4 mmol/l), and parathormone (PTH) below twice (to three times) the upper limit of normal. Low-normal or low calcium levels are common in renal failure, and high PTH levels are a physiological response to the low serum calcium and phosphate retention.
Dietary advice to reduce phosphate intake and phosphate binders taken with food may be necessary to keep phosphate levels within acceptable limits. Vitamin D derivatives (alfacalcidol, calcitriol) can correct hypocalcaemia resulting from reduced renal activation of vitamin D and suppress PTH secretion. However, initiation of these agents should be on the advice of specialists.
Hypercalcaemia in a patient with kidney disease may indicate that the cause of the renal problem is related to the hypercalcaemia or its underlying cause, such as oral calcium and vitamin D treatment or tertiary hyperparathyroidism. Advanced CKD may also present with anaemia and hyperkalaemia.
In summary, managing calcium and phosphate metabolism is crucial in CKD, and referral to specialists may be necessary for severe disturbances in these levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 28-year-old individual visits the doctor complaining of vomiting and explosive diarrhoea that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food items. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.
Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling abroad, which is known as travelers’ diarrhea. This type of diarrhea is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, along with abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of traveler’s’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Another type of illness is acute food poisoning, which is caused by the ingestion of a toxin and results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, and Clostridium perfringens are the typical causes of acute food poisoning.
Different infections have stereotypical histories and presentations. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea. Cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration resulting in weight loss, but it is not common among travelers. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. Staphylococcus aureus causes severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter usually starts with a flu-like prodrome and is followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and may mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus has two types of illness: vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, and diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for different infections varies. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days. The vomiting subtype of Bacillus cereus has an incubation period of 6-14 hours, while the diarrheal illness has an incubation period of more than six hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 23
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman has recently returned from a gap-year project in Tanzania. She has been feeling unwell since her return, experiencing shortness of breath and abdominal pain. Upon examination, she appears pale and a blood test reveals iron-deficiency anemia. A stool sample is positive for hookworm and she begins treatment. Her mother is worried that the rest of the family may have contracted the infection.
Select the only accurate statement regarding the transmission of hookworm.Your Answer: Walking barefoot is a risk factor for the disease
Explanation:Hookworm Infestation: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Hookworm infestation is a parasitic infection caused by a nematode worm that lives in the small intestine of its host. It is acquired through eating contaminated food or walking barefoot on contaminated ground. The worms migrate through the body to the lungs, where they are coughed up and swallowed, completing their life cycle in the digestive tract and excreted in faeces.
Most hookworm infections are asymptomatic, but the most significant risk is anaemia due to loss of iron and protein in the gut. The worms suck blood and damage the mucosa, but the blood loss is occult. Larval invasion of the skin can cause intense, local itching, usually on the foot or lower leg, followed by lesions that look like insect bites. They can also cause the serpiginous lesions of cutaneous larva migrans.
Diagnosis is made by finding characteristic worm eggs on microscopic examination of the stools, and there may also be eosinophilia. Albendazole is the most effective medication for treatment. Relying on adequately cooked food will prevent faeco-oral but not percutaneous transmission.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of a recurrent itchy rash on his hands and feet. He travels frequently to the Middle East for business purposes and has engaged in unprotected sexual activity during one of his trips. Upon examination, the palms and soles show an itchy vesicular rash with erythema and excoriation. What is the probable cause of this rash, considering the patient's exposure?
Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Humidity
Explanation:Pompholyx eczema can be triggered by high humidity levels, such as sweating, and hot temperatures. This is evidenced by the recurrent vesicles that appear on the palms and soles, accompanied by erythema. The patient’s frequent travels to the Middle East, which is known for its high humidity levels, may have contributed to the development of this condition.
Chlamydia is not a factor in the development of pompholyx eczema. While chlamydia can cause keratoderma blennorrhagica, which affects the soles of the feet and palms, it has a different appearance and is not typically itchy or erythematous.
Cold temperatures are not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although they may cause Raynaud’s phenomenon.
Sunlight exposure is not a trigger for pompholyx eczema, although it may cause other skin conditions such as lupus and polymorphic light eruption.
Understanding Pompholyx Eczema
Pompholyx eczema, also known as dyshidrotic eczema, is a type of skin condition that affects both the hands and feet. It is often triggered by humidity and high temperatures, such as sweating. The main symptom of pompholyx eczema is the appearance of small blisters on the palms and soles, which can be intensely itchy and sometimes accompanied by a burning sensation. Once the blisters burst, the skin may become dry and crack.
To manage pompholyx eczema, cool compresses and emollients can be used to soothe the affected areas. Topical steroids may also be prescribed to reduce inflammation and itching. It is important to avoid further irritation of the skin by avoiding triggers such as excessive sweating and using gentle, fragrance-free products. With proper management, the symptoms of pompholyx eczema can be controlled and minimized.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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What is the most suitable medication for preventing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal such as seizures or delirium tremens?
Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Correct Answer: Acamprosate
Explanation:Medications for Alcohol Dependence and Withdrawal
Acamprosate is a medication that can be helpful in maintaining abstinence in individuals with alcohol dependence. Buprenorphine, on the other hand, is an opioid analgesic. Bupropion is commonly used as a supplement for smoking cessation, but it is contraindicated in patients who are experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. Long-acting benzodiazepines are the preferred treatment for preventing symptoms of acute withdrawal. Diazepam is a commonly used benzodiazepine, but chlordiazepoxide is recommended as the first choice because it has less of a market for illicit use.
By using these medications, individuals with alcohol dependence can receive the support they need to maintain abstinence and manage withdrawal symptoms. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual’s unique needs. Proper medication management, along with therapy and support, can greatly improve the chances of successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Smoking, Alcohol And Substance Misuse
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents to the clinic with a medical history of type 1 diabetes for the past 30 years. His blood pressure is 122/72, and his most recent HbA1c level is 53 mmol/mol. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with microalbuminuria.
What can be said about the man's condition?Your Answer: It is responsible for 25% of deaths in diabetic patients diagnosed before the age of 30 years
Correct Answer: Underlying nephropathy can be reversed by tight BP control
Explanation:Diabetic Nephropathy and Microalbuminuria
Death in young diabetics is often caused by end stage diabetic nephropathy, which can lead to ESRF within 10 years if proteinuria has developed. However, interventions can help prevent this outcome. One of the earliest signs of diabetic nephropathy is microalbuminuria, which is characterized by an albumin excretion of 30-300 micrograms per day. It is important to note that microalbuminuria doesn’t mean that the albumin is smaller. Tight control of both blood pressure and glucose levels can help reduce the progression of microalbuminuria and renal failure. Even if blood pressure is normal, ACE inhibition is still important in managing diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Correct
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An elderly patient has a terminal illness and it is likely that the end stage of this is approaching. The General Medical Council (GMC) has produced guidance concerning treatment and care of patients coming towards the end of life.
Which of the following options conforms to the principles described by the GMC regarding end-of-life care?
Your Answer: Treatment decisions must start from a presumption in favour of prolonging life
Explanation:Principles for End-of-Life Decision Making
When making decisions regarding end-of-life care, it is important to adhere to certain principles. These principles include equality and human rights, which dictate that patients approaching the end of their life should receive the same quality of care as all other patients. Additionally, there should be a presumption in favor of prolonging life, meaning that decisions about potentially life-prolonging treatments should not be motivated by a desire to bring about the patient’s death. It is also important to presume capacity in terminally ill patients and to maximize their capacity to make decisions through shared decision making. Finally, when a patient lacks capacity, the overall benefit of a potentially life-prolonging treatment must be weighed against the burdens and risks for the patient, with consultation from those close to the patient. By following these principles, end-of-life decisions can be made with the patient’s best interests in mind.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 28
Correct
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What plasma glucose level is considered diagnostic for diabetes mellitus in a patient with symptoms?
Your Answer: Random plasma glucose 10.1 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes: Interpreting Plasma Glucose Concentrations
The diagnosis of diabetes is based on interpreting plasma glucose concentrations. To diagnose diabetes mellitus, a fasting plasma glucose above 7 mmol/L or a random glucose above 11.1 mmol/L is required. However, it is important to note that two plasma glucose readings are needed according to these parameters in an asymptomatic patient to make the diagnosis. In a symptomatic patient, only one reading is needed.
It is crucial to pay attention to the details of the question and not misinterpret any of the options. For instance, candidates may misread or misinterpret the threshold of 7.0 mmol/L and argue that 7.1 mmol/L cannot be the correct answer. Therefore, using good examination technique, it is recommended to go over the options again to ensure that the question has been read correctly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman comes to you with an itchy rash on both hands, anterior aspects of both elbows, axillae and groins. Other residents in her nursing home have reported experiencing similar symptoms.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Scabies
Correct Answer: Henoch-Schönlein purpura
Explanation:Skin Conditions: Scabies, Henoch-Schönlein Purpura, Psoriasis, Pemphigus Vulgaris, and Bullous Pemphigoid
Scabies is a skin infestation caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, resulting in a pruritic eruption with a characteristic distribution pattern. Permethrin-containing lotions are the treatment. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is a form of vasculitis, while psoriasis is characterized by plaques over extensor surfaces. Pemphigus vulgaris may present as crusted, weeping, diffuse lesions, and bullous pemphigoid involves the flexural areas and may be associated with a new medication. It is important to consider the specific symptoms and distribution patterns of each condition to accurately diagnose and treat them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 57-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of blurred vision on his right side for several days. He reports seeing a cobweb-like opacity that moves around. When he closes his right eye, the opacity disappears. His visual acuity is 6/9 in both eyes, and he has not experienced any visual field loss. Upon examination with an ophthalmoscope after dilatation, his retina appears normal.
What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Vitreous Detachment: This condition is characterized by flashing lights and a mobile opacity in the visual field of one eye. A slit-lamp examination can reveal the opacity, which may be a sign of a retinal tear. Urgent referral to Eye Casualty is necessary to evaluate the retina and prevent retinal detachment.
Cataract: Cataracts cause a stable reduction in vision and appear as grey, white, or yellow-brown opacities in the lens.
Corneal Erosion: Often caused by trauma, a corneal erosion is painful and can be detected with fluorescein stain.
Macular Degeneration: This condition causes distortion of the central visual field and is visible on an Amsler chart. It is slowly progressive over months or years.
Retinal Detachment: Symptoms include photopsia, floaters, and a curtain descending over the field of vision. Macular involvement results in severe reduction in visual acuity. An obvious detachment appears as an elevation of the retina, which appears grey with dark blood vessels that may lie in folds. Comparing the suspected area with an adjacent normal area can help detect any change in retinal transparency. Vitreous haemorrhage may also occur.
Understanding Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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