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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the respiratory clinic with an 8-week history of progressive dyspnoea and dry cough with occasional haemoptysis. She has been a heavy smoker for the past 30 years, smoking 50 cigarettes per day.
During the examination, reduced air entry is noted in the right upper lung field. The patient appears cachectic with a BMI of 18kg/m². A chest x-ray is ordered, which reveals a rounded opacity in the apical region of the right lung.
What are the most indicative ocular signs of this diagnosis?Your Answer: Partial ptosis and dilated pupil
Correct Answer: Partial ptosis and constricted pupil
Explanation:The patient’s presentation of partial ptosis and constricted pupil is consistent with Horner’s syndrome. This is likely due to a Pancoast tumor in the apical region of the right lung, which can compress the sympathetic chain and cause a lack of sympathetic innervation. This results in partial ptosis, pupillary constriction, and anhidrosis. Complete ptosis and dilated pupil would be seen in traumatic oculomotor nerve palsy, while exophthalmos and dilated pupil are associated with Grave’s eye disease. Lid lag and normal pupil size are commonly seen in hyperthyroidism, but should not be confused with ptosis and Horner’s syndrome.
Horner’s syndrome is a condition characterized by several features, including a small pupil (miosis), drooping of the upper eyelid (ptosis), a sunken eye (enophthalmos), and loss of sweating on one side of the face (anhidrosis). The cause of Horner’s syndrome can be determined by examining additional symptoms. For example, congenital Horner’s syndrome may be identified by a difference in iris color (heterochromia), while anhidrosis may be present in central or preganglionic lesions. Pharmacologic tests, such as the use of apraclonidine drops, can also be helpful in confirming the diagnosis and identifying the location of the lesion. Central lesions may be caused by conditions such as stroke or multiple sclerosis, while postganglionic lesions may be due to factors like carotid artery dissection or cluster headaches. It is important to note that the appearance of enophthalmos in Horner’s syndrome is actually due to a narrow palpebral aperture rather than true enophthalmos.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 5-year-old boy presents with symptoms of right sided loin pain, lethargy and haematuria. On examination he is pyrexial and has a large mass in the right upper quadrant. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Nephroblastoma
Explanation:Based on the symptoms presented, it is highly probable that the child has nephroblastoma, while perinephric abscess is an unlikely diagnosis. Even if an abscess were to develop, it would most likely be contained within Gerota’s fascia initially, making anterior extension improbable.
Nephroblastoma: A Childhood Cancer
Nephroblastoma, also known as Wilms tumours, is a type of childhood cancer that typically occurs in the first four years of life. The most common symptom is the presence of a mass, often accompanied by haematuria (blood in urine). In some cases, pyrexia (fever) may also occur in about 50% of patients. Unfortunately, nephroblastomas tend to metastasize early, usually to the lungs.
The primary treatment for nephroblastoma is nephrectomy, which involves the surgical removal of the affected kidney. The prognosis for younger children is generally better, with those under one year of age having an overall 5-year survival rate of 80%. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if any of the symptoms associated with nephroblastoma are present, as early detection and treatment can greatly improve the chances of a positive outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and started on carbimazole. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Blocks thyroxine-binding globulin
Correct Answer: Prevents iodination of the tyrosine residue on thyroglobulin
Explanation:Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What are the defining features of an amino acid?
Your Answer: It contains an amino group, - NH2
Correct Answer: It has the formula H2N - CHR - COOH where R is the variable group
Explanation:The Versatility of Amino Acids and its Applications in Electrophoresis
Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins and are composed of a basic structure of H2N – CHR – COOH, where R represents the variable group that distinguishes one amino acid from another. The simplest amino acid is glycine, where the R group is just H. Amino acids are capable of forming complex and useful molecules due to their dipolar or amphoteric nature, which makes them simultaneously acidic and basic. In solution, they form zwitterions, which can act as either an acid or a base depending on the pH of the solution. This versatility of amino acids is what allows for the process of electrophoresis, which separates proteins based on their charge in a solution. By using solutions of different pH, different proteins can be assessed, making it a useful tool in the diagnosis of bone marrow malignancies like myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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Which muscle does not attach to the medial side of the greater trochanter?
Your Answer: Obturator externus
Correct Answer: Quadratus femoris
Explanation:The mnemonic for muscle attachment on the greater trochanter is POGO, which stands for Piriformis, Obturator internus, and Gemelli.
The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.
The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.
If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Correct
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After a history of neurological disease, a 60-year-old patient comes for clinical examination.
During the examination:
The patient can smile and show their teeth, but they struggle to clench their teeth.
There are no issues with eyebrow movement or pupillary size.
Sensation in the forehead is intact.
However, there is a decrease in sensory innervation in the area of the buccinator.
Which nerve is the most likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Trigeminal (mandibular branch)
Explanation:Cranial nerve palsies can present with diplopia, or double vision, which is most noticeable in the direction of the weakened muscle. Additionally, covering the affected eye will cause the outer image to disappear. False localising signs can indicate a pathology that is not in the expected anatomical location. One common example is sixth nerve palsy, which is often caused by increased intracranial pressure due to conditions such as brain tumours, abscesses, meningitis, or haemorrhages. Papilloedema may also be present in these cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A new screening test has been developed for detecting dementia in elderly patients. This was tested on a cohort of 500 patients above the age of 65. 150 of these 500 patients have an existing diagnosis of dementia. Amongst these patients, 120 of them were tested positive using this new screening test. Amongst the remaining patients who do not have dementia, 50 of them were found to be positive using the new screening test.
What is the specificity of this new screening test?Your Answer: 89%
Correct Answer: 75%
Explanation:The specificity of the new screening test is calculated as the ratio of true negative results to the total number of true negative and false positive results, which is 80%.
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a clinical geneticist. She has a family history of Huntington's disease, with her grandfather having died from the condition and her father recently being diagnosed. She wants to learn more about the disease and its genetic inheritance. Which of the following statements is accurate?
Your Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by a defect on chromosome 4
Explanation:The cause of Huntington’s disease is a flaw in the huntingtin gene located on chromosome 4, resulting in a degenerative and irreversible neurological disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects both genders equally.
Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive and incurable neurodegeneration. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by a trinucleotide repeat expansion of CAG in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4. This can result in the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. The disease leads to the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia, which can cause a range of symptoms.
Typically, symptoms of Huntington’s disease develop after the age of 35 and can include chorea, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, intellectual impairment, dystonia, and saccadic eye movements. Unfortunately, there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and it usually results in death around 20 years after the initial symptoms develop.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after being stabbed in the back. The knife has penetrated his spinal column at a perpendicular angle, causing damage to the termination of his spinal cord.
Which spinal level has been affected by the knife's penetration?Your Answer: L5
Correct Answer: L1
Explanation:In adults, the level of L1 is where the spinal cord usually ends.
Lumbar Puncture Procedure
Lumbar puncture is a medical procedure that involves obtaining cerebrospinal fluid. In adults, the procedure is typically performed at the L3/L4 or L4/5 interspace, which is located below the spinal cord’s terminates at L1.
During the procedure, the needle passes through several layers. First, it penetrates the supraspinous ligament, which connects the tips of spinous processes. Then, it passes through the interspinous ligaments between adjacent borders of spinous processes. Next, the needle penetrates the ligamentum flavum, which may cause a give. Finally, the needle passes through the dura mater into the subarachnoid space, which is marked by a second give. At this point, clear cerebrospinal fluid should be obtained.
Overall, the lumbar puncture procedure is a complex process that requires careful attention to detail. By following the proper steps and guidelines, medical professionals can obtain cerebrospinal fluid safely and effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with sudden and severe abdominal pain. He has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease and takes nitrates, atenolol and amlodipine for it. Upon examination, his pulse is irregularly irregular and measures 115 bpm, his blood pressure is 104/72 mmHg, and his temperature is 37.4°C. The abdomen is diffusely tender and bowel sounds are absent. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Correct Answer: Mesenteric ischaemia
Explanation:Narrowing Down the Differential Diagnosis for Acute Abdomen
When presented with a patient experiencing an acute abdomen, the differential diagnosis can be extensive. However, by taking note of the key points in the patient’s history and conducting a thorough examination, one can narrow down the potential causes. In the case of a man with absent bowel sounds, atrial fibrillation, and a history of ischemic heart disease, the most likely cause of his presentation is mesenteric ischemia. This is due to the fact that he is not obstructed and has vascular disease. For further information on acute mesenteric ischemia, Medscape provides a helpful resource. By utilizing these tools and resources, healthcare professionals can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with acute abdominal symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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In developed nations, what is the most significant modifiable risk factor for infants born with a low birth weight (<2500 g)?
Your Answer: Prematurity
Correct Answer: Maternal smoking
Explanation:Low Birth Weight and its Causes
Low birth weight is a significant factor in neonatal mortality worldwide, and it can also lead to health problems later in life such as diabetes, heart disease, and poor growth. The causes of low birth weight include maternal smoking during pregnancy, prematurity, multiple pregnancies, ethnicity, and family socio-economic status. Maternal smoking during pregnancy is the most important modifiable contributor to low birth weight, and babies born to women who smoke weigh on average 200 g less than babies born to non-smokers. The incidence of low birth weight is twice as high among smokers as non-smokers. Pregnancy is a crucial time for public health interventions to reduce or prevent maternal smoking. Although many pregnant smokers quit during their pregnancy, many recommence smoking again after delivery.
Overall, reducing the prevalence of maternal smoking during pregnancy is a crucial step in reducing the incidence of low birth weight and improving neonatal health outcomes. Other factors such as prematurity, multiple pregnancies, ethnicity, and socio-economic status are also important contributors to low birth weight, but they are not as easily modifiable. Therefore, public health interventions should focus on reducing maternal smoking during pregnancy to improve neonatal health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 32-year-old construction worker presents to the doctor with a cough and profuse watery diarrhoea that has been ongoing for a week. He also reports experiencing regular fevers and vomiting. The patient mentions that three of his colleagues have also been affected by a similar illness. Upon examination, he appears dehydrated and has a heart rate of 110 beats per minute. A Cryptosporidium infection is confirmed through a stool sample. What stain would be used to confirm this diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ziehl-Neelsen stain
Explanation:The diagnosis of Cryptosporidium can be made using a modified approach.
Understanding Cryptosporidiosis
Cryptosporidiosis is a prevalent cause of diarrhoea in the UK, caused by two species of Cryptosporidium – C. hominis and C. parvum. This condition is more common in young children and immunocompromised patients, such as those with HIV. Symptoms include watery diarrhoea, abdominal cramps, and fever. In severe cases, the entire gastrointestinal tract may be affected, leading to complications like sclerosing cholangitis and pancreatitis.
To diagnose cryptosporidiosis, a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain (acid-fast stain) of the stool may reveal the characteristic red cysts of Cryptosporidium. Management for immunocompetent patients is largely supportive, while antiretroviral therapy is recommended for HIV patients. Nitazoxanide may be used for immunocompromised patients, and rifaximin is sometimes used for those with severe disease.
Overall, understanding cryptosporidiosis is crucial for prompt diagnosis and management, especially in vulnerable populations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Correct
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A medical resident has been instructed by the geriatric consultant to review the medication chart of an elderly patient with a history of hypertension, heart failure, and biliary colic. The resident noticed a significant drop in systolic blood pressure upon standing and discontinued a medication that may have contributed to the postural hypotension. However, a few hours later, the patient's continuous cardiac monitoring showed tachycardia. Which medication cessation could have caused the tachycardia in this elderly patient?
Your Answer: Atenolol
Explanation:Abruptly stopping atenolol, a beta blocker, can lead to ‘rebound tachycardia’. None of the other drugs listed have been associated with this condition. While ramipril, an ace-inhibitor, may have contributed to the patient’s postural hypotension, it is not known to cause tachycardia upon cessation. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can worsen postural hypotension by causing volume depletion, but it is not known to cause tachycardia upon discontinuation. Aspirin and clopidogrel, both antiplatelet drugs, are unlikely to be stopped abruptly and are not associated with either ‘rebound tachycardia’ or postural hypotension.
Beta-blockers are a class of drugs that are primarily used to manage cardiovascular disorders. They have a wide range of indications, including angina, post-myocardial infarction, heart failure, arrhythmias, hypertension, thyrotoxicosis, migraine prophylaxis, and anxiety. Beta-blockers were previously avoided in heart failure, but recent evidence suggests that certain beta-blockers can improve both symptoms and mortality. They have also replaced digoxin as the rate-control drug of choice in atrial fibrillation. However, their role in reducing stroke and myocardial infarction has diminished in recent years due to a lack of evidence.
Examples of beta-blockers include atenolol and propranolol, which was one of the first beta-blockers to be developed. Propranolol is lipid-soluble, which means it can cross the blood-brain barrier.
Like all drugs, beta-blockers have side-effects. These can include bronchospasm, cold peripheries, fatigue, sleep disturbances (including nightmares), and erectile dysfunction. There are also some contraindications to using beta-blockers, such as uncontrolled heart failure, asthma, sick sinus syndrome, and concurrent use with verapamil, which can precipitate severe bradycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 14
Correct
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Samantha, a 75-year-old female, arrives at the emergency department after falling down a flight of stairs. She reports experiencing discomfort in her right upper arm.
Upon examination, the physician orders an X-ray which reveals a mid shaft humeral fracture on the right.
What is the most probable symptom associated with this type of fracture?Your Answer: Wrist drop
Explanation:A mid shaft humeral fracture can result in wrist drop, which is a clinical sign indicating damage to the radial nerve. The radial nerve controls the muscles responsible for extending the wrist, and when it is damaged, the wrist remains in a flexed position. Other clinical signs associated with nerve or vascular damage include the hand of benediction (median nerve), ulnar claw (ulnar nerve), and Volkmann’s contracture (brachial artery).
The Radial Nerve: Anatomy, Innervation, and Patterns of Damage
The radial nerve is a continuation of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus, with root values ranging from C5 to T1. It travels through the axilla, posterior to the axillary artery, and enters the arm between the brachial artery and the long head of triceps. From there, it spirals around the posterior surface of the humerus in the groove for the radial nerve before piercing the intermuscular septum and descending in front of the lateral epicondyle. At the lateral epicondyle, it divides into a superficial and deep terminal branch, with the deep branch crossing the supinator to become the posterior interosseous nerve.
The radial nerve innervates several muscles, including triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, and extensor carpi radialis. The posterior interosseous branch innervates supinator, extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum, and other muscles. Denervation of these muscles can lead to weakness or paralysis, with effects ranging from minor effects on shoulder stability to loss of elbow extension and weakening of supination of prone hand and elbow flexion in mid prone position.
Damage to the radial nerve can result in wrist drop and sensory loss to a small area between the dorsal aspect of the 1st and 2nd metacarpals. Axillary damage can also cause paralysis of triceps. Understanding the anatomy, innervation, and patterns of damage of the radial nerve is important for diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old construction worker becomes dehydrated after spending the day working under the sun.
What can be inferred about this person?Your Answer: Reduced activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Correct Answer: Most of the ultrafiltrated water in the nephron to be reabsorbed in the proximal tubule
Explanation:The majority of filtered water is absorbed in the proximal tubule, while the highest amount of sodium reabsorption occurs in this area due to the Na+/K+ ATPase mechanism. This results in the movement of fluid from the proximal tubules to peritubular capillaries.
After a strenuous run, the individual is likely to be slightly dehydrated, leading to an increased activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. This would cause an increase in aldosterone release from the zona glomerulosa. Additionally, vasopressin (also known as ADH) would be elevated to enhance water reabsorption in the collecting duct.
Renal cortical blood flow is higher than medullary blood flow, as tubular cells are more susceptible to ischaemia.
The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology
The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 4-year-old girl is brought to her pediatrician by her father who is concerned that his daughter seems to be very weak compared to what he had previously experienced with his elder daughter who had a normal development. The father also reports that he noticed that his daughter is always hungry and her constant craving for food has resulted in a significant weight gain. The girl is not being breastfed anymore but the father does confirm her sucking seemed to be very weak at the time. The girl was born via a cesarean section and there were no complications at birth. Upon examination, the pediatrician confirms that the girl has poor muscle tone as well as undeveloped genitals. The pediatrician makes a referral to the pediatrician geneticist and upon genetic testing, the girl is diagnosed with a condition which often leads to significant obesity as one of the main features of the disease. What is the main genetic mechanism of inheritance for this disease?
Your Answer: Autosomal recessive
Correct Answer: Imprinting
Explanation:The individual exhibited indications and manifestations that strongly suggest the presence of Prader-Willi syndrome, a hereditary disorder that typically manifests in early childhood and is characterized by hypotonia, hyperphagia, and obesity. Additionally, cognitive impairment leading to intellectual disability may also be observed.
Understanding Prader-Willi Syndrome
Prader-Willi syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the absence of the active Prader-Willi gene on chromosome 15. This disorder is an example of genetic imprinting, where the phenotype depends on whether the deletion occurs on a gene inherited from the mother or father. If the gene is deleted from the father, it results in Prader-Willi syndrome, while if it is deleted from the mother, it results in Angelman syndrome.
There are two main causes of Prader-Willi syndrome. The first is a microdeletion of paternal 15q11-13, which accounts for 70% of cases. The second is maternal uniparental disomy of chromosome 15. This means that both copies of chromosome 15 are inherited from the mother, and there is no active Prader-Willi gene from the father.
The features of Prader-Willi syndrome include hypotonia during infancy, dysmorphic features, short stature, hypogonadism and infertility, learning difficulties, childhood obesity, and behavioral problems in adolescence. These symptoms can vary in severity and may require lifelong management.
In conclusion, Prader-Willi syndrome is a complex genetic disorder that affects multiple aspects of an individual’s health and development. Understanding the causes and features of this syndrome is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old patient is brought into GP by her mother with concerns that she has not yet entered puberty. The patient reports experiencing bullying amongst her peers due to her appearance, short height, and recent weight gain despite eating very little. She also reports feeling low and no longer enjoying activities she used to like. The patient is worried about being the only girl in her class who has not yet experienced periods and the lack of breast development with widely spaced nipples.
During examination, the patient is found to have a webbed neck and a high-arched palate. The patient is referred to a paediatrician who then refers her to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team orders a karyotype.
What results would be expected from the karyotype given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: 47,XXY
Correct Answer: 45,X0
Explanation:This patient’s clinical presentation is consistent with Turner syndrome, which is typically caused by a karyotype of 45,XO. Symptoms may include short stature, widely spaced nipples, webbed neck, and high-arched palate. Patients with Turner syndrome are also at higher risk for hypothyroidism, which can cause weight gain, lethargy, and depressive symptoms. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) and Edwards’ syndrome (trisomy 18) have distinct clinical features that differ from those seen in Turner syndrome. Klinefelter syndrome is not relevant to this patient’s presentation.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is identified as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (present in 15% of cases), coarctation of the aorta (present in 5-10% of cases), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially in the feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is also more common in individuals with Turner’s syndrome, as well as an increased incidence of autoimmune diseases such as autoimmune thyroiditis and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and is characterized by various physical features and health conditions. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a patient in the emergency department who has experienced abrupt onset chest pain, dyspnoea and diaphoresis. After reviewing the patient's ECG, you identify changes within a specific section and promptly arrange for transfer to the catheterisation laboratory.
What is the underlying process indicated by the affected section of the ECG?Your Answer: Sino-atrial node firing
Correct Answer: Period between ventricular depolarisation and repolarisation
Explanation:The ST segment on an ECG indicates the period when the entire ventricle is depolarized. In the case of a suspected myocardial infarction, it is crucial to examine the ST segment for any elevation or depression, which can indicate a STEMI or NSTEMI, respectively.
The ECG does not have a specific section that corresponds to the firing of the sino-atrial node, which triggers atrial depolarization (represented by the p wave). The T wave represents ventricular repolarization.
In atrial fibrillation, the p wave is absent or abnormal due to the irregular firing of the atria.
Understanding the Normal ECG
The electrocardiogram (ECG) is a diagnostic tool used to assess the electrical activity of the heart. The normal ECG consists of several waves and intervals that represent different phases of the cardiac cycle. The P wave represents atrial depolarization, while the QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. The ST segment represents the plateau phase of the ventricular action potential, and the T wave represents ventricular repolarization. The Q-T interval represents the time for both ventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur.
The P-R interval represents the time between the onset of atrial depolarization and the onset of ventricular depolarization. The duration of the QRS complex is normally 0.06 to 0.1 seconds, while the duration of the P wave is 0.08 to 0.1 seconds. The Q-T interval ranges from 0.2 to 0.4 seconds depending upon heart rate. At high heart rates, the Q-T interval is expressed as a ‘corrected Q-T (QTc)’ by taking the Q-T interval and dividing it by the square root of the R-R interval.
Understanding the normal ECG is important for healthcare professionals to accurately interpret ECG results and diagnose cardiac conditions. By analyzing the different waves and intervals, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the electrical activity of the heart and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man visits an ophthalmology clinic with a complaint of experiencing double vision while descending stairs. He reports a recent mountain biking accident that required him to seek emergency medical attention. Although he has recuperated, he mentions that he sustained a severe frontal head injury after colliding with a tree.
During the examination, his left eye is raised and deviated medially, and he experiences vertical diplopia when looking up and down.
Which cranial nerve is most likely affected in this individual?Your Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Correct Answer: Trochlear nerve
Explanation:Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness upon standing up from a chair. He has a medical history of asthma, migraine, atrial fibrillation, and benign prostate hypertrophy.
The radiology reports come back normal, but his vital signs show a lying blood pressure of 120/77 mmHg and a standing blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg.
After reviewing his medication chart, the doctor decides to discontinue a drug that may have caused his current condition.
Which medication did the doctor discontinue?Your Answer: Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Doxazosin
Explanation:Doxazosin is known to cause postural hypotension as an adverse effect. This medication is an alpha-1 blocker and is commonly used to manage hypertension and benign prostate hypertrophy. It is important to note that doxazosin can increase the risk of postural hypotension, especially when used in combination with other antihypertensive medications. As a result, it is likely that this medication would have been discontinued.
On the other hand, paracetamol and venlafaxine are not typically associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Instead, they may cause an increase in blood pressure.
Prednisolone, on the other hand, is known to raise blood pressure and would not be the correct answer in this scenario.
Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples
Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.
Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.
Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.
Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy comes to the GP after experiencing unusual behavior. His mother accompanies him and reports that her son suddenly started smacking his lips together for a brief period. She adds that he then complained of smelling a foul odor that she couldn't detect. Given the family history of epilepsy, you suspect that he may have had a seizure. What type of seizure is typically associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer: Temporal lobe seizure
Explanation:Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations, including olfactory hallucinations, which is likely the cause of this patient’s presentation.
Flashes and floaters are a common symptom of occipital lobe seizures.
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy can cause occasional generalized seizures and daytime absences.
Parietal lobe seizures can result in paraesthesia.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old male patient complains of malaise, weight loss, and lymphadenopathy. After a lymph node biopsy, the histology report reveals the presence of granuloma formation and central necrosis. What could be the probable underlying cause?
Your Answer: Rheumatoid nodule
Correct Answer: Infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Explanation:In TB, the presence of necrosis within granulomas is a common histological feature that suggests an infectious cause. On the other hand, Churg Strauss syndrome is a type of vasculitis that typically shows granulomas in its histological presentation, but necrosis is not commonly observed.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man is diagnosed with pleomorphic adenoma and requires surgical resection. During the procedure, which of the following structures is least likely to be encountered in the resection of the parotid gland?
Your Answer: Zygomatic branch of the facial nerve
Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve
Explanation:The parotid gland is traversed by several important structures, including the facial nerve and its branches, the external carotid artery and its branches (such as the maxillary and superficial temporal arteries), the retromandibular vein, and the auriculotemporal nerve. However, the mandibular nerve is located at a safe distance from the gland. The maxillary vein joins with the superficial temporal vein to form the retromandibular vein, which passes through the parotid gland. Damage to the auriculotemporal nerve during a parotidectomy can result in regrowth that attaches to sweat glands, leading to gustatory sweating (Freys Syndrome). The marginal mandibular branch of the facial nerve is also associated with the parotid gland.
The parotid gland is located in front of and below the ear, overlying the mandibular ramus. Its salivary duct crosses the masseter muscle, pierces the buccinator muscle, and drains adjacent to the second upper molar tooth. The gland is traversed by several structures, including the facial nerve, external carotid artery, retromandibular vein, and auriculotemporal nerve. The gland is related to the masseter muscle, medial pterygoid muscle, superficial temporal and maxillary artery, facial nerve, stylomandibular ligament, posterior belly of the digastric muscle, sternocleidomastoid muscle, stylohyoid muscle, internal carotid artery, mastoid process, and styloid process. The gland is supplied by branches of the external carotid artery and drained by the retromandibular vein. Its lymphatic drainage is to the deep cervical nodes. The gland is innervated by the parasympathetic-secretomotor, sympathetic-superior cervical ganglion, and sensory-greater auricular nerve. Parasympathetic stimulation produces a water-rich, serous saliva, while sympathetic stimulation leads to the production of a low volume, enzyme-rich saliva.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department with a fractured neck of femur. After undergoing emergency surgery, she makes a good recovery in the following weeks. During a routine blood screening, it is discovered that she has a deficiency in vitamin D.
What is the accurate statement regarding the metabolism of this nutrient?Your Answer: It is responsible for preventing over-absorption of calcium from the gastrointestinal tract
Correct Answer: It is converted into its active form in the kidneys
Explanation:The correct answer is that calcifediol is converted into calcitriol, the biologically active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. This conversion is necessary to produce active vitamin D.
Similar to vitamin D produced from UVB exposure to the skin, orally absorbed vitamin D also requires metabolic processes in the liver and kidneys to become active.
Active vitamin D does not prevent over-absorption of calcium; instead, it increases the absorption of calcium and other minerals.
UVB radiation on the skin produces an inactive form of vitamin D, which must undergo metabolic processes in the liver and kidneys to be converted into active vitamin D.
Contrary to popular belief, sunlight is not necessary for the production of active vitamin D because the initial inactive form required to make active vitamin D in the liver and kidneys can be obtained through ingestion.
Understanding Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a type of vitamin that is soluble in fat and is essential for the metabolism of calcium and phosphate in the body. It is converted into calcifediol in the liver and then into calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, in the kidneys. Vitamin D can be obtained from two sources: vitamin D2, which is found in plants, and vitamin D3, which is present in dairy products and can also be synthesized by the skin when exposed to sunlight.
The primary function of vitamin D is to increase the levels of calcium and phosphate in the blood. It achieves this by increasing the absorption of calcium in the gut and the reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys. Vitamin D also stimulates osteoclastic activity, which is essential for bone growth and remodeling. Additionally, it increases the reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys.
A deficiency in vitamin D can lead to two conditions: rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults. Rickets is characterized by soft and weak bones, while osteomalacia is a condition where the bones become weak and brittle. Therefore, it is crucial to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin D to maintain healthy bones and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old male patient visits the gastroenterology clinic complaining of abdominal pain, weight loss, and diarrhoea for the past 6 months. During gastroscopy, a gastrinoma is discovered in the antrum of his stomach. What is the purpose of the hormone produced by this tumor?
Your Answer: It increases HCL production and reduces gastric motility
Correct Answer: It increases HCL production and increases gastric motility
Explanation:A tumor that secretes gastrin is known as a gastrinoma, which leads to an increase in both gastrointestinal motility and HCL production. It should be noted that while gastrin does increase gastric motility, it does not have an effect on the secretion of pancreatic fluid. This is instead regulated by hormones such as VIP, CCK, and secretin.
Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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What grade of proof does a group of specialists provide, as per the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine (CEBM)?
Your Answer: 4
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Levels and Grades of Evidence in Evidence-Based Medicine
In order to evaluate the quality of evidence in evidence-based medicine, levels or grades are often used to organize the evidence. Traditional hierarchies placed systematic reviews or randomized control trials at the top and case-series/report at the bottom. However, this approach is overly simplistic as certain research questions cannot be answered using RCTs. To address this, the Oxford Centre for Evidence-Based Medicine introduced their 2011 Levels of Evidence system which separates the type of study questions and gives a hierarchy for each. On the other hand, the GRADE system is a grading approach that classifies the quality of evidence as high, moderate, low, or very low. The process begins by formulating a study question and identifying specific outcomes. Outcomes are then graded as critical or important, and the evidence is gathered and criteria are used to grade the evidence. Evidence can be promoted or downgraded based on certain circumstances. The use of levels and grades of evidence helps to evaluate the quality of evidence and make informed decisions in evidence-based medicine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old patient is admitted to the ICU with septic shock. The patient presents with a temperature of 39ºC, pulse rate of 120/min, respiratory rate of 28/min, and blood pressure of 60/30 mmHg. The administration of intravenous phenylephrine is initiated. What is the mechanism of action of this drug and how can it benefit the patient?
Your Answer: Decrease heart rate
Correct Answer: Smooth muscle contraction
Explanation:Alpha-1 receptors cause smooth muscle contraction, while beta-1 receptors cause increased heart rate and cardiac muscle contraction, and beta-2 receptors cause smooth muscle relaxation. Phenylephrine selectively binds to alpha-1 receptors, causing blood vessels to constrict and is used as a decongestant or to increase blood pressure. It also causes pupillary dilatation.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman contacts her community midwife due to persistent vomiting for the past two weeks. The vomiting is more severe in the morning and has been gradually worsening since the beginning of her pregnancy. She is currently 14 weeks pregnant, and this is her second pregnancy. She recalls experiencing similar symptoms during her first pregnancy, which was achieved through IVF therapy. The woman reports weight loss, and a urine dipstick test shows ketonuria. An ultrasonographer reports a placental lambda sign.
What is the probable diagnosis for the cause of this woman's symptoms?Your Answer: Physiological vomiting
Correct Answer: Multiple gestation
Explanation:The most likely cause of the patient’s intractable vomiting during pregnancy is multiple gestation. This condition, known as hyperemesis gravidarum, is characterized by vomiting, dehydration, weight loss, and ketonuria. Multiple gestations can lead to hormone imbalances due to increased levels of βhCG, which can increase vomiting. Risk factors for multiple gestations include the use of fertility-enhancing treatments like IVF and older maternal age. The presence of the placental lambda sign is characteristic of a dichorionic pregnancy.
Complete molar pregnancy is an unlikely diagnosis as it typically presents with abnormal uterine bleeding, pelvic pain, and a snowstorm appearance on ultrasound. Partial molar pregnancy is also unlikely as it is associated with lower levels of βhCG and often has fetal parts present on ultrasound. Physiological vomiting, while common in pregnancy, is not the most likely cause in this case as the patient is experiencing weight loss and ketonuria.
Hyperemesis gravidarum is a severe form of nausea and vomiting that affects around 1% of pregnancies. It is usually experienced between 8 and 12 weeks of pregnancy but can persist up to 20 weeks. The condition is thought to be related to raised beta hCG levels and is more common in women who are obese, nulliparous, or have multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, or hyperthyroidism. Smoking is associated with a decreased incidence of hyperemesis.
The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommend that a woman must have a 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance before a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum can be made. Validated scoring systems such as the Pregnancy-Unique Quantification of Emesis (PUQE) score can be used to classify the severity of NVP.
Management of hyperemesis gravidarum involves using antihistamines as a first-line treatment, with oral cyclizine or oral promethazine being recommended by Clinical Knowledge Summaries. Oral prochlorperazine is an alternative, while ondansetron and metoclopramide may be used as second-line treatments. Ginger and P6 (wrist) acupressure can be tried, but there is little evidence of benefit. Admission may be needed for IV hydration.
Complications of hyperemesis gravidarum can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth restriction, pre-term birth, and cleft lip/palate (if ondansetron is used during the first trimester). The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend considering admission if a woman is unable to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics, has ketonuria and/or weight loss (greater than 5% of body weight), or has a confirmed or suspected comorbidity that may be adversely affected by nausea and vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old patient, Sarah, suffered severe left-sided craniofacial trauma in a car accident. Following a period in the ICU, Sarah has been discharged to the ward and requires rehabilitation therapy due to suspected cranial nerve damage. Sarah experiences numbness on the left side of her face and struggles with chewing. However, she can still smile and reports no alteration in her sense of taste. The left eye lacks the corneal reflex, while the right eye has it. What other symptom is likely present in Sarah?
Your Answer: Tongue deviation to the right
Correct Answer: Jaw deviation to the left
Explanation:Tom’s jaw deviation towards the left is consistent with trigeminal nerve damage from his accident. The trigeminal nerve controls facial sensation and the muscles of mastication. His ability to smile and report no change in taste suggests that his facial nerve is intact, and he is not experiencing upper motor neuron lesion. Jaw deviation to the right, tongue deviation to the left or right, and inability to wrinkle the forehead are not consistent with trigeminal nerve palsy.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 30
Correct
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A 9-year-old girl is taken to her doctor by her father with intense throat discomfort and is diagnosed with a probable bacterial throat infection. The doctor prescribes an antibiotic that specifically targets bacterial protein synthesis.
What is the name of the prescribed antibiotic?Your Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Bacterial protein synthesis is the target of erythromycin.
Bacterial division is inhibited by ciprofloxacin through targeting DNA gyrase.
The production of bacterial cell wall is inhibited by penicillin through targeting the beta-lactam ring.
The activation of folic acid in susceptible organisms is inhibited by trimethoprim.
The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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