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Question 1
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about psychotic depression?
Your Answer: It has an estimated community prevalence is 0.04%
Correct Answer: It is classified by the ICD-11 and the DSM-5 as a subtype of depression
Explanation:Psychotic Depression
Psychotic depression is a type of depression that is characterized by the presence of delusions and/of hallucinations in addition to depressive symptoms. This condition is often accompanied by severe anhedonia, loss of interest, and psychomotor retardation. People with psychotic depression are tormented by hallucinations and delusions with typical themes of worthlessness, guilt, disease, of impending disaster. This condition affects approximately 14.7-18.5% of depressed patients and is estimated to affect around 0.4% of community adult samples, with a higher prevalence in the elderly community at around 1.4-3.0%. People with psychotic depression are at a higher risk of attempting and completing suicide than those with non-psychotic depression.
Diagnosis
Psychotic depression is currently classified as a subtype of depression in both the ICD-11 and the DSM-5. The main difference between the two is that in the ICD-11, the depressive episode must be moderate of severe to qualify for a diagnosis of depressive episode with psychotic symptoms, whereas in the DSM-5, the diagnosis can be applied to any severity of depressive illness.
Treatment
The recommended treatment for psychotic depression is tricyclics as first-line treatment, with antipsychotic augmentation. Second-line treatment includes SSRI/SNRI. Augmentation of antidepressant with olanzapine or quetiapine is recommended. The optimum dose and duration of antipsychotic augmentation are unknown. If one treatment is to be stopped during the maintenance phase, then this should be the antipsychotic. ECT should be considered where a rapid response is required of where other treatments have failed. According to NICE (ng222), combination treatment with antidepressant medication and antipsychotic medication (such as olanzapine or quetiapine) should be considered for people with depression with psychotic symptoms. If a person with depression with psychotic symptoms does not wish to take antipsychotic medication in addition to an antidepressant, then treat with an antidepressant alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 2
Correct
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If a patient with depression is resistant to conventional medicine, which herbal remedy has been proven to be effective in treating depression?
Your Answer: Hypericum perforatum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 3
Correct
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A medical colleague contacts you for advice regarding the management of a teenage patient with HIV. You have previously looked after this patient due to her having borderline personality disorder and mania. The patient has a long history of self-harm and remains at high risk of suicide. Which of the following antiretrovirals would you suggest your colleague specifically avoid in this case?:
Your Answer: Efavirenz
Explanation:For exams, it is important to be aware that Efavirenz, an antiretroviral, has been associated with both mania and fatal suicide.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 4
Correct
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After a hospitalization for mania, a female patient with a history of hepatitis C presents with abnormal liver function. Which medication would be appropriate for long-term management of her mania?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Hepatic Impairment: Recommended Drugs
Patients with hepatic impairment may experience reduced ability to metabolize drugs, toxicity, enhanced dose-related side effects, reduced ability to synthesize plasma proteins, and elevated levels of drugs subject to first-pass metabolism due to reduced hepatic blood flow. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Ed recommends the following drugs for patients with hepatic impairment:
Antipsychotics: Paliperidone (if depot required), Amisulpride, Sulpiride
Antidepressants: Sertraline, Citalopram, Paroxetine, Vortioxetine (avoid TCA and MAOI)
Mood stabilizers: Lithium
Sedatives: Lorazepam, Oxazepam, Temazepam, Zopiclone 3.75mg (with care)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 5
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about eating disorders?
Your Answer: People with bulimia should always brush their teeth after vomiting
Correct Answer: Laxative misuse is ineffective at reducing calorie absorption
Explanation:When an imbalance in electrolytes is identified, the first step is to address the behavior causing it. In rare cases where supplementation is necessary to restore balance, oral administration is preferred over intravenous, unless there are issues with absorption in the gastrointestinal tract.
Eating Disorders: NICE Guidelines
Anorexia:
For adults with anorexia nervosa, consider individual eating-disorder-focused cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT-ED), Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA), of specialist supportive clinical management (SSCM). If these are not acceptable, contraindicated, of ineffective, consider eating-disorder-focused focal psychodynamic therapy (FPT). For children and young people, consider anorexia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-AN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Bulimia:
For adults, the first step is an evidence-based self-help programme. If this is not effective, consider individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer bulimia-nervosa-focused family therapy (FT-BN) of individual CBT-ED. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Binge Eating Disorder:
The first step is a guided self-help programme. If this is not effective, offer group of individual CBT-ED. For children and young people, offer the same treatments recommended for adults. Do not offer medication as the sole treatment.Advice for those with eating disorders:
Encourage people with an eating disorder who are vomiting to avoid brushing teeth immediately after vomiting, rinse with non-acid mouthwash, and avoid highly acidic foods and drinks. Advise against misusing laxatives of diuretics and excessive exercise.Additional points:
Do not offer physical therapy as part of treatment. Consider bone mineral density scans after 1 year of underweight in children and young people, of 2 years in adults. Do not routinely offer oral of transdermal oestrogen therapy to treat low bone mineral density in children of young people with anorexia nervosa. Consider transdermal 17-β-estradiol of bisphosphonates for women with anorexia nervosa.Note: These guidelines are taken from NICE guidelines 2017.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for a patient with epilepsy who has developed a psychotic illness, considering its minimal impact on seizure threshold?
Your Answer: Quetiapine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy
People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A child presents with paracetamol poisoning after accidentally ingesting a large amount. Blood tests show the need for treatment with N-acetylcysteine. IV N-acetylcysteine treatment is started, but the child experiences an anaphylactoid reaction characterized by a skin rash, itching, nausea, mild hypotension, and flushing.
What would be the most suitable course of action in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Suspend the IV acetylcysteine, apply supportive treatment and restart at a lower dose
Explanation:Paracetamol overdose can cause liver damage due to the production of a reactive metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinoneimine (NAPQI) by cytochrome P450 enzymes. Glutathione detoxifies NAPQI at therapeutic doses, but overdose depletes glutathione. Antidotes such as acetylcysteine and methionine provide a substrate for glutathione synthesis, reducing hepatotoxicity. IV acetylcysteine is the preferred option and more effective than oral acetylcysteine and methionine. Adverse reactions to IV acetylcysteine are rare but can include urticaria, pruritus, facial flushing, wheezing, dyspnoea, and hypotension. These reactions are not true anaphylaxis and do not require prior exposure to N-acetylcysteine. Patients should be observed for signs of anaphylactoid reactions, and management is supportive with temporary halting of slowing of the infusion and administration of antihistamines. Patients with a history of atopy and asthma may be at increased risk of developing an anaphylactoid reaction. (Benlamkadem, 2018).
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 8
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about self harm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Older people who self-harm often have a degree of suicidal intent
Explanation:Self Harm in Older Adults
Self harm in older adults should be taken very seriously as it often indicates suicidal intent. The NICE guidelines on Self Harm (2004) recommend that all acts of self-harm in people over 65 years of age should be regarded as evidence of suicidal intent until proven otherwise. This is because the number of older adults who complete suicide is much higher than in younger adults.
Unfortunately, many individuals who self-harm never receive psychiatric care and are discharged from emergency departments without any psychosocial needs assessment. This is contrary to the 2004 recommendations by the UK’s National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) for those who self-harm.
Self harm can take many forms, including overdose, cutting, burning, hitting of mutilating body parts, and attempted hanging of strangulation. It is important to recognize the signs of self harm and provide appropriate support and care to those who engage in this behavior.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lack of insight
Explanation:– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the likelihood of patients experiencing a relapse of their depressive illness within 3-6 months if they discontinue their antidepressant medication immediately upon recovery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Depression Treatment Duration
It is recommended to treat a single episode of depression for 6-9 months after complete remission. Abruptly stopping antidepressants after recovery can lead to a relapse in 50% of patients within 3-6 months. For patients who have experienced 2 of more depressive episodes in recent history, NICE recommends a minimum of 2 years of antidepressant treatment. These guidelines are outlined in the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about flumazenil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK
Explanation:Flumazenil is not authorized for treating benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, despite its widespread use. It works by competitively inhibiting the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABAA receptor, reversing the effects of benzodiazepines. Due to its brief half-life of approximately 10 minutes, it is important to note that multiple doses may be required in cases of benzodiazepine overdose.
Self-Harm and its Management
Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.
Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.
In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.
For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 12
Incorrect
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What is the primary treatment recommended for chronic insomnia that persists for more than three months?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CBT-I
Explanation:Insomnia is a sleep disorder characterized by difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, waking up too early, of feeling unrefreshed after sleep. The management of insomnia depends on whether it is short-term (lasting less than 3 months) of long-term (lasting more than 3 months). For short-term insomnia, sleep hygiene and a sleep diary are recommended first. If severe daytime impairment is present, a short course of a non-benzodiazepine hypnotic medication may be considered for up to 2 weeks. For long-term insomnia, cognitive behavioral therapy for insomnia (CBT-I) is the first-line treatment.
Pharmacological therapy should be avoided, but a short-term hypnotic medication may be appropriate for some individuals with severe symptoms of an acute exacerbation. Referral to a sleep clinic of neurology may be necessary if another sleep disorder is suspected of if long-term insomnia has not responded to primary care management. Good sleep hygiene practices include establishing fixed sleep and wake times, relaxing before bedtime, maintaining a comfortable sleeping environment, avoiding napping during the day, avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, avoiding exercise before bedtime, avoiding heavy meals late at night, and using the bedroom only for sleep and sexual activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A teenager presents with a three-year history of feeling sad for most of the day for approximately 2-3 weeks every month. Low mood is accompanied by reduced concentration and mild insomnia. They deny alterations in appetite, low self-worth, and any marked loss of interest of pleasure. They deny that their condition has ever been more severe than this. They report brief periods of feeling okay in between these episodes of low mood. There is no evidence of any history of elevated mood states, and they are otherwise fit and well with no issues of substance misuse. They claim to function reasonably well but emphasise that this requires significant effort when they are feeling down.
Which of the following ICD-11 diagnosis is most suggested by this description?:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dysthymic disorder
Explanation:Based on the patient report, it appears that they are experiencing symptoms consistent with Dysthymic Disorder. There is no indication that they have experienced a depressive episode that meets the criteria for a diagnosis of either single of recurrent depression. Additionally, there is no evidence of extended periods without symptoms, which would exclude a diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder. The absence of elevated mood suggests that neither Cyclothymic Disorder nor Bipolar Disorder Type I of II are likely diagnoses.
Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.
For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.
Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.
Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.
Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.
Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the estimated percentage of individuals in Great Britain who have a personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4.40%
Explanation:Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis
A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.
DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).
Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What was the degree of increase in the incidence of schizophrenia among Afro-Caribbeans in the AESOP study?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 9
Explanation:The AESOP study is a first-presentation study of schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders that identified all people presenting to services with psychotic symptoms in well-defined catchment areas in South London, Nottingham and Bristol. The study aimed to elucidate the overall rates of psychotic disorder in the 3 centres, confirm and extend previous findings of raised rates of psychosis in certain migrant groups in the UK, and explore in detail the biological and social risk factors in these populations and their possible interactions. The study found that the incidence of all psychoses was higher in African-Caribbean and Black African populations, particularly in schizophrenia and manic psychosis. These groups were also more likely to be compulsorily admitted to hospital and come to the attention of mental health services via police of other criminal justice agencies, and less likely to come via the GP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 16
Incorrect
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What is accurate about the gastrointestinal issues observed in individuals with anorexia nervosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mild transaminitis is common and often asymptomatic
Explanation:Eating disorders are linked to both acute and chronic pancreatitis.
Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.
The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is a true statement regarding schizophrenia in women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia in women is associated with fewer structural brain abnormalities than in men
Explanation:Schizophrenia presents differently in men and women. Women tend to have a later onset and respond better to treatment, requiring lower doses of antipsychotics. Men, on the other hand, have an earlier onset, poorer premorbid functioning, and more negative symptoms and cognitive deficits. They also have greater structural brain and neurophysiological abnormalities. Females display more affective symptoms, auditory hallucinations, and persecutory delusions, but have a more favorable short- and middle-term course of illness with less smoking and substance abuse. Families of males are more critical, and expressed emotion has a greater negative impact on them. Certain neurological soft signs may be more prevalent in males. There are no clear sex differences in family history, obstetric complications, and minor physical anomalies.
Schizophrenia Epidemiology
Prevalence:
– In England, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders (mostly schizophrenia) is around 0.4%.
– Internationally, the estimated annual prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.33%.
– The estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders in England is approximately 0.63% at age 43, consistent with the typically reported 1% prevalence over the life course.
– Internationally, the estimated lifetime prevalence for psychotic disorders is around 0.48%.Incidence:
– In England, the pooled incidence rate for non-affective psychosis (mostly schizophrenia) is estimated to be 15.2 per 100,000 years.
– Internationally, the incidence of schizophrenia is about 0.20/1000/year.Gender:
– The male to female ratio is 1:1.Course and Prognosis:
– Long-term follow-up studies suggest that after 5 years of illness, one quarter of people with schizophrenia recover completely, and for most people, the condition gradually improves over their lifetime.
– Schizophrenia has a worse prognosis with onset in childhood of adolescence than with onset in adult life.
– Younger age of onset predicts a worse outcome.
– Failure to comply with treatment is a strong predictor of relapse.
– Over a 2-year period, one-third of patients with schizophrenia showed a benign course, and two-thirds either relapsed of failed to recover.
– People with schizophrenia have a 2-3 fold increased risk of premature death.Winter Births:
– Winter births are associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia.Urbanicity:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with urbanicity.Migration:
– There is a higher incidence of schizophrenia associated with migration.Class:
– There is a higher prevalence of schizophrenia among lower socioeconomic classes.Learning Disability:
– Prevalence rates for schizophrenia in people with learning disabilities are approximately three times greater than for the general population. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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What is the most accurate approximation of the lifetime occurrence rate of major depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Epidemiological surveys and prevalence estimates have been conducted to determine the prevalence of various mental health conditions. The Epidemiological Catchment Area (ECA) study was conducted in the mid-1980s using the Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS) based on DSM-III criteria. The National Comorbidity Survey (NCS) used the Composite International Diagnostic Interview (CIDI) and was conducted in the 1990s and repeated in 2001. The Adult Psychiatric Morbidity Survey (APMS) used the Clinical Interview Schedule (CIS-R) and was conducted in England every 7 years since 1993. The WHO World Mental Health (WMH) Survey Initiative used the World Mental Health Composite International Diagnostic Interview (WMH-CIDI) and was conducted in close to 30 countries from 2001 onwards.
The main findings of these studies show that major depression has a prevalence of 4-10% worldwide, with 6.7% in the past 12 months and 16.6% lifetime prevalence. Generalised anxiety disorder (GAD) has a 3.1% 12-month prevalence and 5.7% lifetime prevalence. Panic disorder has a 2.7% 12-month prevalence and 4.7% lifetime prevalence. Specific phobia has an 8.7% 12-month prevalence and 12.5% lifetime prevalence. Social anxiety disorder has a 6.8% 12-month prevalence and 12.1% lifetime prevalence. Agoraphobia without panic disorder has a 0.8% 12-month prevalence and 1.4% lifetime prevalence. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) has a 1.0% 12-month prevalence and 1.6% lifetime prevalence. Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) has a 1.3-3.6% 12-month prevalence and 6.8% lifetime prevalence. Schizophrenia has a 0.33% 12-month prevalence and 0.48% lifetime prevalence. Bipolar I disorder has a 1.5% 12-month prevalence and 2.1% lifetime prevalence. Bulimia nervosa has a 0.63% lifetime prevalence, anorexia nervosa has a 0.16% lifetime prevalence, and binge eating disorder has a 1.53% lifetime prevalence.
These prevalence estimates provide important information for policymakers, healthcare providers, and researchers to better understand the burden of mental health conditions and to develop effective prevention and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What is the information provided by ICD-11 regarding bipolar disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypomania, is by definition, not accompanied by delusions of hallucinations
Explanation:Manic episodes have similar symptoms to hypomanic episodes, but they are more severe and can cause significant impairment in various areas of life. They may also require hospitalization to prevent harm to oneself of others, of be accompanied by delusions of hallucinations. Hypomanic episodes last for at least several days and may include flight of ideas, which is not a helpful way to distinguish between the two. If a hypomanic syndrome occurs during treatment with antidepressants of other therapies, it should be considered a hypomanic episode if it persists after treatment is stopped and meets the full diagnostic criteria for hypomania.
Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 20
Incorrect
-
What is the recommended pharmacological intervention for insomnia in a pregnant woman, as advised by NICE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Promethazine
Explanation:NICE recommends that promethazine may be considered for pregnant women experiencing insomnia, but only after non-medication options such as sleep hygiene measures and psychological interventions have been attempted. It is important to note that promethazine is licensed for sedation and not specifically for insomnia in pregnancy, except in cases where it is associated with urticaria of pruritus. Therefore, its use for insomnia in pregnancy would be considered off-label, although it is supported by NICE.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 21
Incorrect
-
A 50 year old man with schizophrenia is diagnosed with HIV. The physician overseeing his medical care seeks guidance on the appropriate psychotropic medication. What is the most suitable treatment option for individuals with HIV who require psychosis treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Risperidone
Explanation:For patients with HIV who experience psychosis, atypical antipsychotics are the preferred first-line treatment. Among these medications, risperidone has the strongest evidence base, while quetiapine, aripiprazole, and olanzapine are also viable options. However, if clozapine is used, patients must be closely monitored.
HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 22
Incorrect
-
Which plant species, commonly known as St John's Wort, is used for treating depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypericum perforatum
Explanation:Herbal Remedies for Depression and Anxiety
Depression can be treated with Hypericum perforatum (St John’s Wort), which has been found to be more effective than placebo and as effective as standard antidepressants. However, its use is not advised due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in preparations, and potential interactions with other drugs. St John’s Wort can cause serotonin syndrome and decrease levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. The effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may also be reduced.
Anxiety can be reduced with Piper methysticum (kava), but it cannot be recommended for clinical use due to its association with hepatotoxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 52-year-old individual with a history of hypertension and transient ischaemic attacks experiences sudden onset of nausea, vomiting and falls to the ground. Upon neurological examination, cerebellar signs, Horner's syndrome and sensory deficits are observed. Which region of the cerebral vasculature is the most probable site of damage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The patient has Wallenberg’s syndrome, which is caused by a blockage in the posterior inferior cerebellar artery. Symptoms typically appear suddenly and include severe dizziness, which can cause the patient to fall. Other common symptoms include nausea, vomiting, difficulty with coordination on the same side as the blockage, muscle stiffness, difficulty judging distance, and a tendency to lean to one side. The patient may also experience pain, tingling, of numbness on one side of the face, as well as involuntary eye movements, hiccups, difficulty swallowing, speaking, of breathing, and double vision. Horner’s syndrome, which affects the eye, is also common. Sensory changes may include a loss of pain and temperature sensation on one side of the face and reduced sensation on the opposite side of the body. This condition is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 40.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 24
Incorrect
-
A colleague in primary care contacts you for advice regarding a case of mild panic disorder in a 35-year-old woman. Medical causes have been ruled out.
According to NICE guidelines, what would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Individual self-help
Explanation:Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 25
Incorrect
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In which situations might lower doses of clozapine be necessary?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Female patients
Explanation:Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
-
What is the most crucial test of investigation to perform when a patient who has recently started taking clozapine experiences central chest pain accompanied by sweating and nausea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Troponin
Explanation:If a patient taking clozapine experiences chest pain, it is important to consider myocarditis as a potential cause. Conducting a troponin test can aid in confirming the presence of this condition.
Clozapine is an effective antipsychotic drug used in the management of treatment-resistant schizophrenia (TRS). It was reintroduced in the 1990s with mandatory blood monitoring due to the risk of agranulocyte
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 27
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an uncommon characteristic of individuals with schizoid personality disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Deceitfulness
Explanation:Antisocial personality disorder is marked by a prominent trait of deceitfulness.
Schizoid Personality Disorder: A Description of Symptoms
Schizoid personality disorder is a type of personality disorder that falls under cluster A. People with this disorder are often seen as distant, isolated, and emotionally detached. They tend to have a restricted range of emotions and struggle to form close relationships with others. Symptoms typically begin in early adulthood and can be observed in various contexts. To be diagnosed with schizoid personality disorder, an individual must exhibit at least four of the following symptoms:
1. Lack of desire for close relationships
2. Preferring solitary activities
3. Little interest in sexual experiences
4. Finding pleasure in few activities
5. Lack of close friends of confidants
6. Indifference to praise of criticism
7. Emotional coldness, detachment, of flattened affectivity
8. Symptoms cannot be attributed to another medical condition and do not occur in the context of schizophrenia, manic depression, autism spectrum disorder, of another affective disorder with psychotic features.It is important to note that the ICD-11 does not have a specific category for schizoid personality disorder. Instead, it has adopted a dimensional approach to diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Which statement accurately describes the evidence supporting the use of lithium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium has been shown to be an effective augmentation agent for people with unipolar depression
Explanation:Lithium – Clinical Usage
Lithium is primarily used as a prophylactic agent for bipolar disorder, where it reduces the severity and number of relapses. It is also effective as an augmentation agent in unipolar depression and for treating aggressive and self-mutilating behavior, steroid-induced psychosis, and to raise WCC in people using clozapine.
Before prescribing lithium, renal, cardiac, and thyroid function should be checked, along with a Full Blood Count (FBC) and BMI. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.
Once daily administration is preferred, and various preparations are available. Abrupt discontinuation of lithium increases the risk of relapse, and if lithium is to be discontinued, the dose should be reduced gradually over a period of at least 4 weeks.
Inadequate monitoring of patients taking lithium is common, and it is often an exam hot topic. Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio, and samples should ideally be taken 12 hours after the dose. The target range for prophylaxis is 0.6–0.75 mmol/L.
Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI and neuro symptoms.
The severity of toxicity can be assessed using the AMDISEN rating scale.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 29
Incorrect
-
A young adult with recurrent depression achieves remission with the use of sertraline. How long should drug treatment be continued to prevent relapse?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 years
Explanation:Depression Treatment Guidelines by NICE
The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) provides guidelines for the treatment of depression. The following are some general recommendations:
– Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are preferred when prescribing antidepressants.
– Antidepressants are not the first-line treatment for mild depression.
– After remission, continue antidepressant treatment for at least six months.
– Continue treatment for at least two years if at high risk of relapse of have a history of severe or prolonged episodes of inadequate response.
– Use a stepped care approach to depression treatment, starting at the appropriate level based on the severity of depression.The stepped care approach involves the following steps:
– Step 1: Assessment, support, psychoeducation, active monitoring, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 2: Low-intensity psychosocial interventions, psychological interventions, medication, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 3: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, combined treatments, collaborative care, and referral for further assessment and interventions.
– Step 4: Medication, high-intensity psychological interventions, electroconvulsive therapy, crisis service, combined treatments, multiprofessional and inpatient care.Individual guided self-help programs based on cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) principles should be supported by a trained practitioner and last 9 to 12 weeks. Physical activity programs should consist of three sessions per week of moderate duration over 10 to 14 weeks.
NICE advises against using antidepressants routinely to treat persistent subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression. However, they may be considered for people with a past history of moderate or severe depression, initial presentation of subthreshold depressive symptoms that have been present for a long period, of subthreshold depressive symptoms of mild depression that persist after other interventions.
NICE recommends a combination of antidepressant medication and a high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT of interpersonal therapy) for people with moderate of severe depression. Augmentation of antidepressants with lithium, antipsychotics, of other antidepressants may be appropriate, but benzodiazepines, buspirone, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, of valproate should not be routinely used.
When considering different antidepressants, venlafaxine is associated with a greater risk of death from overdose compared to other equally effective antidepressants. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) except for lofepramine are associated with the greatest risk in overdose. Higher doses of venlafaxine may exacerbate cardiac arrhythmias, and venlafaxine and duloxetine may exacerbate hypertension. TCAs may cause postural hypotension and arrhythmias, and mianserin requires hematological monitoring in elderly people.
The review frequency depends on the age and suicide risk of the patient. If the patient is over 30 and has no suicide risk, see them after two weeks and then at intervals of 2-4 weeks for the first three months. If the patient is under 30 and has a suicide risk, see them after one week.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What is the most prevalent personality disorder among individuals in Great Britain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anankastic
Explanation:Personality Disorder: Understanding the Clinical Diagnosis
A personality disorder is a long-standing pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, clinicians must first establish that the general diagnostic threshold is met before identifying the subtype(s) present. The course of personality disorders varies, with some becoming less evident of remitting with age, while others persist.
DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different classification systems for personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into three clusters (A, B, and C), while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain is 4.4%, with Cluster C being the most common. Clinicians are advised to avoid diagnosing personality disorders in children, although a diagnosis can be made in someone under 18 if the features have been present for at least a year (except for antisocial personality disorder).
Overall, understanding the clinical diagnosis of personality disorders is important for effective treatment and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 31
Incorrect
-
NICE recommends certain measures for the management of panic disorder.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:Anxiety (NICE guidelines)
The NICE Guidelines on Generalised anxiety disorder and panic disorder were issued in 2011. For the management of generalised anxiety disorder, NICE suggests a stepped approach. For mild GAD, education and active monitoring are recommended. If there is no response to step 1, low-intensity psychological interventions such as CBT-based self-help of psychoeducational groups are suggested. For those with marked functional impairment of those who have not responded to step 2, individual high-intensity psychological intervention of drug treatment is recommended. Specialist treatment is suggested for those with very marked functional impairment, no response to step 3, self-neglect, risks of self-harm or suicide, of significant comorbidity. Benzodiazepines should not be used beyond 2-4 weeks, and SSRIs are first line. For panic disorder, psychological therapy (CBT), medication, and self-help have all been shown to be effective. Benzodiazepines, sedating antihistamines, of antipsychotics should not be used. SSRIs are first line, and if they fail, imipramine of clomipramine can be used. Self-help (CBT based) should be encouraged. If the patient improves with an antidepressant, it should be continued for at least 6 months after the optimal dose is reached, after which the dose can be tapered. If there is no improvement after a 12-week course, an alternative medication of another form of therapy should be offered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 32
Incorrect
-
What would be an appropriate treatment option for a patient with panic disorder who has been taking citalopram for four months without improvement and is interested in trying a different medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:After a 12 week trial of an SSRI with no improvement, NICE recommends switching to a different type of antidepressant such as imipramine of clomipramine.
Understanding Panic Disorder: Key Facts, Diagnosis, and Treatment Recommendations
Panic disorder is a mental health condition characterized by recurrent unexpected panic attacks, which are sudden surges of intense fear of discomfort that reach a peak within minutes. Females are more commonly affected than males, and the disorder typically onsets during the early 20s. Panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.
To diagnose panic disorder, the individual must experience recurrent panic attacks that are not restricted to particular stimuli of situations and are unexpected. The panic attacks are followed by persistent concern of worry about their recurrence of negative significance, of behaviors intended to avoid their recurrence. The symptoms are not a manifestation of another medical condition of substance use, and they result in significant impairment in functioning.
Panic disorder is differentiated from normal fear reactions by the frequent recurrence of panic attacks, persistent worry of concern about the panic attacks of their meaning, and associated significant impairment in functioning. Treatment recommendations vary based on the severity of the disorder, with mild to moderate cases recommended for individual self-help and moderate to severe cases recommended for cognitive-behavioral therapy of antidepressant medication. The classes of antidepressants that have an evidence base for effectiveness are SSRIs, SNRIs, and TCAs. Benzodiazepines are not recommended for the treatment of panic disorder due to their association with a less favorable long-term outcome. Sedating antihistamines of antipsychotics should also not be prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 33
Incorrect
-
How can a diagnosis of mania be distinguished from depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased libido
Explanation:While an irritable mood can be present in both mania and depression, the symptom of increased libido is more indicative of mania. Therefore, selecting increased libido as the answer is the most appropriate choice.
Mania: Features and Characteristics
Mania is a mental state characterized by a range of symptoms that can significantly impact an individual’s behavior, thoughts, and emotions. Some of the key features of mania include an elated of irritable mood, restlessness, and overactivity. People experiencing mania may also exhibit disinhibited and reckless behavior, such as excessive spending of engaging in risky activities. They may have over-ambitious plans for the future and experience a flight of ideas and pressured speech. Additionally, mania can involve mood congruent delusions, increased libido, and a decreased need for sleep. Overall, mania can be a challenging and disruptive condition that requires professional treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 34
Incorrect
-
Which country's data is excluded from the World Mental Health Survey Initiative?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: England
Explanation:World Mental Health Survey Initiative: Variations in Prevalence of Mental Disorders Across Countries
The World Mental Health Survey Initiative aims to gather accurate cross-national information on the prevalence and correlates of mental, substance, and behavioural disorders. The initiative includes nationally of regionally representative surveys in 28 countries, with a total sample size of over 154,000. All interviews are conducted face-to-face by trained lay interviewers using the WMH-CIDI, a fully structured diagnostic interview.
As of 2009, data from 17 countries and 70,000 respondents have been returned. The main findings show that the US has the highest prevalence of any disorder, with anxiety disorder being the most common condition, followed by mood disorder. However, there is significant variation in prevalence between countries. These findings highlight the importance of understanding the cultural and societal factors that contribute to the prevalence of mental disorders in different regions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 35
Incorrect
-
A client is referred with depression and is eager to begin medication. You find out that they have hypertension. What would be the most suitable treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Antidepressants and Diabetes
Depression is a prevalent condition among patients with diabetes. It is crucial to select the appropriate antidepressant as some may have negative effects on weight and glucose levels. The first-line treatment for depression in diabetic patients is selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), with fluoxetine having the most supporting data. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs) are also likely to be safe, but there is less evidence to support their use. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) and monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) should be avoided. These recommendations are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 36
Incorrect
-
What is the best course of action for a pregnant patient who regularly attends clinic for moderate to severe depression and is taking paroxetine, but is unwilling to consider psychological options?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue the paroxetine
Explanation:If the patient’s depression history was only mild to moderate, NICE would suggest considering stopping paroxetine and using facilitated self-help. However, since the patient’s depression history is more severe, it would not be wise to discontinue antidepressant treatment. The Maudsley recommends continuing with the same antidepressant if it is effective, except for MAOIs, to prevent relapse. Although some studies have linked paroxetine to cardiac malformations, other studies have not replicated this finding and have implicated other SSRIs. While paroxetine may increase the likelihood of neonatal withdrawal effects compared to alternatives with a longer half-life, these effects are typically mild and self-limiting.
Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 37
Incorrect
-
What is the difference between rapid cycling and non-rapid cycling bipolar disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rapid cycling is more common in women
Explanation:Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis
Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.
Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.
Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.
Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.
Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.
Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 38
Incorrect
-
What is the primary treatment option for catatonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Explanation:When treating catatonia, the preferred initial treatment is benzodiazepines such as lorazepam. If this approach is unsuccessful, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) should be considered.
Catatonia Treatment
Catatonia can lead to complications such as dehydration, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, and pneumonia. Therefore, prompt treatment is essential. The first-line treatment is benzodiazepines, particularly lorazepam. If this is ineffective, electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) may be considered. The use of antipsychotics is controversial and should be avoided during the acute phase of catatonia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 39
Incorrect
-
What factor is the most probable cause of neural tube defects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Paroxetine Use During Pregnancy: Is it Safe?
Prescribing medication during pregnancy and breastfeeding is challenging due to the potential risks to the fetus of baby. No psychotropic medication has a UK marketing authorization specifically for pregnant of breastfeeding women. Women are encouraged to breastfeed unless they are taking carbamazepine, clozapine, of lithium. The risk of spontaneous major malformation is 2-3%, with drugs accounting for approximately 5% of all abnormalities. Valproate and carbamazepine are associated with an increased risk of neural tube defects, and lithium is associated with cardiac malformations. Benzodiazepines are associated with oral clefts and floppy baby syndrome. Antidepressants have been linked to preterm delivery and congenital malformation, but most findings have been inconsistent. TCAs have been used widely without apparent detriment to the fetus, but their use in the third trimester is known to produce neonatal withdrawal effects. Sertraline appears to result in the least placental exposure among SSRIs. MAOIs should be avoided in pregnancy due to a suspected increased risk of congenital malformations and hypertensive crisis. If a pregnant woman is stable on an antipsychotic and likely to relapse without medication, she should continue the antipsychotic. Depot antipsychotics should not be offered to pregnant of breastfeeding women unless they have a history of non-adherence with oral medication. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest specific drugs for use during pregnancy and breastfeeding. NICE CG192 recommends high-intensity psychological interventions for moderate to severe depression and anxiety disorders. Antipsychotics are recommended for pregnant women with mania of psychosis who are not taking psychotropic medication. Promethazine is recommended for insomnia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement about the psychiatric care provided to individuals with HIV?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Efavirenz is associated with depression and mania
Explanation:HIV and Mental Health: Understanding the Relationship and Treatment Options
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a blood-borne virus that causes cellular immune deficiency, resulting in a decrease in the number of CD4+ T-cells. People with severe mental illness are at increased risk of contracting and transmitting HIV, and the prevalence of HIV infection among them is higher than in the general population. Antiretroviral drugs are used to manage HIV, but they are not curative.
Depression is the most common mental disorder in the HIV population, and it can result from HIV of the psycho-social consequences of having the condition. HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is the umbrella term for the spectrum of neurocognitive impairment induced by HIV, ranging from mild impairment through to dementia. Poor episodic memory is the most frequently reported cognitive difficulty in HIV-positive individuals.
Treatment options for mental health issues in people with HIV include atypical antipsychotics for psychosis, SSRIs for depression and anxiety, valproate for bipolar disorder, and antiretroviral therapy for HAND. It is important to avoid benzodiazepines for delirium and MAOIs for depression. Understanding the relationship between HIV and mental health and providing appropriate treatment options can improve the quality of life for people living with HIV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A teenager prescribed theophylline experiences depression and is prescribed an antidepressant. Which of the following SSRIs is most likely to increase their theophylline levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluvoxamine
Explanation:Theophylline levels may be elevated by Fluvoxamine due to its inhibition of CYP1A2, while Fluoxetine does not affect CYP1A2.
Interactions of Antidepressants with Cytochrome P450 System
Antidepressants, particularly selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can have significant effects on the cytochrome P450 system. This can result in drug interactions that can affect the efficacy and safety of the medications.
One example of such interaction is between fluvoxamine and theophylline. Fluvoxamine is a potent inhibitor of CYP1A2, which can lead to increased levels of theophylline in the body. This can cause adverse effects such as nausea, vomiting, and tremors.
Another example is between fluoxetine and clozapine. Fluoxetine is a potent inhibitor of CYP2D6, which can increase the risk of seizures with clozapine. Clozapine is metabolized by CYP1A2, CYP3A4, and CYP2D6, and any inhibition of these enzymes can affect its metabolism and increase the risk of adverse effects.
It is important to be aware of these interactions and monitor patients closely when prescribing antidepressants, especially in those who are taking other medications that are metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 42
Incorrect
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In a male patient with a psychotic illness who responds well to risperidone but develops gynaecomastia and a raised prolactin level, what would you recommend adding to the treatment regimen to reduce the prolactin level while continuing with risperidone due to poor response to other antipsychotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with a variety of physical symptoms that have been present for the past 30 years. Numerous investigations and review by a variety of specialties have indicated no organic basis for his symptoms.
This is an example of:Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bodily distress disorder
Explanation:Somatoform and dissociative disorders are two groups of psychiatric disorders that are characterized by physical symptoms and disruptions in the normal integration of identity, sensations, perceptions, affects, thoughts, memories, control over bodily movements, of behavior. Somatoform disorders are characterized by physical symptoms that are presumed to have a psychiatric origin, while dissociative disorders are characterized by the loss of integration between memories, identity, immediate sensations, and control of bodily movements. The ICD-11 lists two main types of somatoform disorders: bodily distress disorder and body integrity dysphoria. Dissociative disorders include dissociative neurological symptom disorder, dissociative amnesia, trance disorder, possession trance disorder, dissociative identity disorder, partial dissociative identity disorder, depersonalization-derealization disorder, and other specified dissociative disorders. The symptoms of these disorders result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning. Diagnosis of these disorders involves a thorough evaluation of the individual’s symptoms and medical history, as well as ruling out other possible causes of the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which antipsychotic medication is most commonly linked to elevated TSH levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Biochemical Changes Associated with Psychotropic Drugs
Psychotropic drugs can have incidental biochemical of haematological effects that need to be identified and monitored. The evidence for many of these changes is limited to case reports of information supplied by manufacturers. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition summarises the important changes to be aware of.
One important parameter to monitor is ALT, a liver enzyme. Agents that can raise ALT levels include clozapine, haloperidol, olanzapine, quetiapine, chlorpromazine, mirtazapine, moclobemide, SSRIs, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, and valproate. On the other hand, vigabatrin can lower ALT levels.
Another liver enzyme to monitor is ALP. Haloperidol, clozapine, olanzapine, duloxetine, sertraline, and carbamazepine can raise ALP levels, while buprenorphine and zolpidem (rarely) can lower them.
AST levels are often associated with ALT levels. Trifluoperazine and vigabatrin can raise AST levels, while agents that raise ALT levels can also raise AST levels.
TSH levels, which are associated with thyroid function, can be affected by aripiprazole, carbamazepine, lithium, quetiapine, rivastigmine, sertraline, and valproate (slightly). Moclobemide can lower TSH levels.
Thyroxine levels can be affected by dexamphetamine, moclobemide, lithium (which can raise of lower levels), aripiprazole (rarely), and quetiapine (rarely).
Overall, it is important to monitor these biochemical changes when prescribing psychotropic drugs to ensure the safety and well-being of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 45
Incorrect
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What is a fundamental characteristic of oneiroid psychosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dream-like state
Explanation:Oneiroid psychosis is not considered a subtype of schizophrenia, but rather a condition where a patient is in a dream-like state, experiencing their own version of reality. Those in an oneiroid state often feel confused and disoriented in terms of time, location, and identity.
– Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
– Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
– The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
– Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
– Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
– Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
– Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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What therapy is founded on Otto Kernberg's idea of 'borderline personality organization'?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transference focused psychotherapy
Explanation:Personality Disorder (Borderline)
History and Terminology
The term borderline personality disorder originated from early 20th-century theories that the disorder was on the border between neurosis and psychosis. The term borderline was coined by Adolph Stern in 1938. Subsequent attempts to define the condition include Otto Kernberg’s borderline personality organization, which identified key elements such as ego weakness, primitive defense mechanisms, identity diffusion, and unstable reality testing.
Features
The DSM-5 and ICD-11 both define borderline personality disorder as a pervasive pattern of instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and affects, and marked impulsivity. Symptoms include efforts to avoid abandonment, unstable relationships, impulsivity, suicidal behavior, affective instability, chronic feelings of emptiness, difficulty controlling temper, and transient dissociative symptoms.
Abuse
Childhood abuse and neglect are extremely common among borderline patients, with up to 87% having suffered some form of trauma. The effect of abuse seems to depend on the stage of psychological development at which it takes place.
comorbidity
Borderline PD patients are more likely to receive a diagnosis of major depressive disorder, bipolar disorder, panic disorder, PTSD, OCD, eating disorders, and somatoform disorders.
Psychological Therapy
Dialectical Behavioral Therapy (DBT), Mentalization-Based Treatment (MBT), Schema-Focused Therapy (SFT), and Transference-Focused Psychotherapy (TFP) are the main psychological treatments for BPD. DBT is the most well-known and widely available, while MBT focuses on improving mentalization, SFT generates structural changes to a patient’s personality, and TFP examines dysfunctional interpersonal dynamics that emerge in interactions with the therapist in the transference.
NICE Guidelines
The NICE guidelines on BPD offer very little recommendations. They do not recommend medication for treatment of the core symptoms. Regarding psychological therapies, they make reference to DBT and MBT being effective but add that the evidence base is too small to draw firm conclusions. They do specifically say Do not use brief psychotherapeutic interventions (of less than 3 months’ duration) specifically for borderline personality disorder of for the individual symptoms of the disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 50 year old lady with breast cancer taking Tamoxifen visits her GP complaining of depression. The GP decides to prescribe an antidepressant. What medication should the GP steer clear of due to its interaction with Tamoxifen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Tamoxifen and Antidepressant Interactions
Tamoxifen is a medication used to treat breast cancer by reducing relapse rates and increasing overall survival. It works by antagonizing estrogen in the breast, with its anti-estrogen affinity depending on its primary metabolite, endoxifen. However, tamoxifen is metabolized to endoxifen through the liver enzyme CYP2D6, and any drug that inhibits this enzyme can reduce the conversion of tamoxifen to endoxifen.
Women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention may also take antidepressants for psychiatric disorders of hot flushes. Some antidepressants have been found to inhibit the metabolism of tamoxifen to its more active metabolites by the CYP2D6 enzyme, thereby decreasing its anticancer effect. Strong CYP2D6 inhibitors include paroxetine, fluoxetine, bupropion, and duloxetine, while moderate inhibitors include sertraline, escitalopram, and doxepin, and venlafaxine is a weak inhibitor.
Therefore, it is important for healthcare providers to consider potential drug interactions when prescribing antidepressants to women taking tamoxifen for breast cancer treatment of prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 48
Incorrect
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What is the policy in the UK regarding driving and seizures?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A person will still lose their driving licence if they have a seizure due to a change in their medication
Explanation:Epilepsy and Driving Regulations in the UK
If an individual has experienced epileptic seizures while awake and lost consciousness, they can apply for a car of motorbike licence if they haven’t had a seizure for at least a year. However, if the seizure was due to a change in medication, they can apply when the seizure occurred more than six months ago if they are back on their old medication.
In the case of a one-off seizure while awake and lost consciousness, the individual can apply for a licence after six months if there have been no further seizures.
If an individual has experienced seizures while asleep and awake, they may still qualify for a licence if the only seizures in the past three years have been while asleep.
If an individual has only had seizures while asleep, they may qualify for a licence if it has been 12 months of more since their first seizure.
Seizures that do not affect consciousness may still qualify for a licence if the seizures do not involve loss of consciousness and the last seizure occurred at least 12 months ago.
It is important to note that the rules for bus, coach, and lorry licences differ. For these licences, an individual must be seizure-free for 10 years if they have had more than one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication. If they have only had one previous seizure and have not been on antiepileptic medication, they must be seizure-free for five years.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 49
Incorrect
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What is the most consistently identified risk factor for the development of schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Family history
Explanation:A family history of schizophrenia is the most significant and extensively documented risk factor associated with the onset of the disorder.
Schizophrenia: Understanding the Risk Factors
Social class is a significant risk factor for schizophrenia, with people of lower socioeconomic status being more likely to develop the condition. Two hypotheses attempt to explain this relationship, one suggesting that environmental exposures common in lower social class conditions are responsible, while the other suggests that people with schizophrenia tend to drift towards the lower class due to their inability to compete for good jobs.
While early studies suggested that schizophrenia was more common in black populations than in white, the current consensus is that there are no differences in rates of schizophrenia by race. However, there is evidence that rates are higher in migrant populations and ethnic minorities.
Gender and age do not appear to be consistent risk factors for schizophrenia, with conflicting evidence on whether males of females are more likely to develop the condition. Marital status may also play a role, with females with schizophrenia being more likely to marry than males.
Family history is a strong risk factor for schizophrenia, with the risk increasing significantly for close relatives of people with the condition. Season of birth and urban versus rural place of birth have also been shown to impact the risk of developing schizophrenia.
Obstetric complications, particularly prenatal nutritional deprivation, brain injury, and influenza, have been identified as significant risk factors for schizophrenia. Understanding these risk factors can help identify individuals who may be at higher risk for developing the condition and inform preventative measures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with Cushing's syndrome is brought to the hospital with a sudden onset of schizophrenia. His son informs you that he is quite 'delicate' and has had several bone fractures in the past due to minor accidents. Which antipsychotic medication would be the most suitable for this patient until further assessments are conducted?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Given that Cushing’s disease causes excessive secretion of glucocorticoids by the adrenal glands, resulting in osteoporosis, the most suitable initial treatment option would be aripiprazole. This would be recommended until a DEXA scan is conducted to confirm of rule out the presence of osteoporosis. Aripiprazole is the preferred choice as it has the lowest likelihood of causing hyperprolactinemia compared to the other options, which reduces the risk of developing osteoporosis.
Management of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.
Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.
Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Adult Psychiatry
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