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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man is worried about the development of his breasts and suspects that one of his medications may be responsible.
Which of the following drugs is linked to gynaecomastia?Your Answer: Ketoconazole
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Explanation:Medications and their Side Effects
Galactorrhoea is a side effect of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), according to the British National Formulary (BNF). On the other hand, gynaecomastia is not listed as a side effect of SSRIs. Tricyclics, however, are known to cause gynaecomastia by stimulating prolactin. Another medication that can cause gynaecomastia is anabolic steroids, which are not catabolic. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to consult with a healthcare provider if any concerns arise. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or alleviate these side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female with a 12 year history of hypertension and diabetes.
At annual review her blood pressure is 138/82 mmHg, pulse 78, fundi reveal background diabetic retinopathy, foot pulses are normal but she has evidence of a peripheral sensory loss to the ankles in both feet.
Her results show:
HbA1c 55 mmol/mol (20-46)
7.2% (3.8-6.4)
Urea 12.5 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
eGFR 29 mL/min/1.73m2 Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/L (<5.2)
According to the British National Formulary, which of the following medicines should be avoided?Your Answer: Ramipril
Correct Answer: Gliclazide
Explanation:Caution with Metformin and Ramipril in Chronic Renal Impairment
This patient shows signs of chronic renal impairment with elevated creatinine and urea levels. It is important to note that the British National Formulary (BNF) advises against the use of metformin if the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) is less than 30mL/min/1.73m2. This is due to the potential risk of life-threatening lactic acidosis, which has a reported prevalence of one to five cases per 100,000 and a mortality rate of up to 50%.
Metformin is excreted unchanged in the urine, and its half-life is prolonged with decreased renal clearance in proportion to any decrease in creatinine clearance. This can occur chronically in chronic renal impairment or acutely with dehydration, shock, and intravascular administration of iodinated contrast agents, all of which can alter renal function. Tissue hypoxia also plays a significant role, and acute or chronic conditions that may predispose to this condition, such as sepsis, acute myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolism, cardiac failure, and chronic liver disease, may act as triggers.
In the case of Ramipril, the BNF advises a maximum daily dose of 5 mg if the eGFR is between 30-60 mL/minute/1.73 m2 and a maximum initial dose of 1.25 mg once daily (not exceeding 5 mg daily) if the eGFR is less than 30 mL/minute/1.73 m2. There are no such limitations with amlodipine, bisoprolol, or gliclazide. It is important to exercise caution when prescribing medications in patients with chronic renal impairment and to follow the BNF guidelines to minimize the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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You have diagnosed a 40-year-old accountant with diabetes mellitus, on the basis of two fasting venous blood glucoses of 18 mmol/L and 16.5 mmol/L.
You have commenced her on metformin with dietary advice. She is learning to drive and has just applied for her driving test.
What advice should you give her as regards her requirements with respect to DVLA?Your Answer: She must inform DVLA if she suffers more than one episode of disabling hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months
Correct Answer: She must inform DVLA if she suffers an episode of disabling hypoglycaemia within 12 months
Explanation:DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Diabetes
According to DVLA guidelines, patients with diabetes who are treated with tablets and/or diet do not need to inform DVLA if they are free from a list of complications. While patients can experience hypoglycaemia on metformin, it is typically the sulphonylureas that cause the most problems, especially in the elderly. It is important for GPs to be cautious in pursuing HbA1c targets to avoid hypoglycaemic episodes.
The DVLA INF188/2 guidance outlines the list of complications that require patients to inform DVLA if they experience more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the last 12 months. It is important to note that there is no difference between holding a provisional and a full driving licence for cars and motorcycles in terms of requirements to inform DVLA.
It is important to distinguish between Group 1 entitlement (drivers of cars and motorcycles) and Group 2 entitlement (drivers of heavy goods vehicles and passenger vehicles such as buses). For Group 2 entitlement, all drivers diagnosed with diabetes mellitus must inform DVLA. By following these guidelines, drivers with diabetes can ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. He is currently on metformin, aspirin, and simvastatin, and there have been no changes to his medication for the past 18 months. As per the latest NICE guidelines, what is the recommended frequency for checking his HbA1c?
Your Answer: 3 monthly
Correct Answer: 6 monthly
Explanation:NICE suggests that individuals with type 2 diabetes mellitus should have their HbA1c levels checked every six months once their treatment has been stabilized.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of ataxia and bilateral gynaecomastia.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter's syndrome
Explanation:Gynaecomastia and Ataxia: Indicators of Lung Cancer
Gynaecomastia and ataxia are both symptoms that can indicate the presence of lung cancer. While Klinefelter’s syndrome can cause gynaecomastia and cerebellar stroke can cause ataxia, the combination of the two makes it more likely to be lung cancer. Gynaecomastia is a non-metastatic paraneoplastic syndrome that is often associated with non-small cell lung cancer. It can be painful and may also be accompanied by testicular atrophy. Ataxia, on the other hand, can occur as a result of paraneoplastic cerebellar degeneration associated with the malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female with hypothyroidism visits your GP clinic to discuss her pregnancy. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and wants to know if she should continue taking levothyroxine. She is taking 75 mcg of levothyroxine daily.
Her thyroid function tests were done 3 weeks ago, before she knew she was pregnant. The results are as follows:
TSH 3.2mU/L
What advice would you give her regarding her levothyroxine medication?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily
Explanation:An endocrinologist should be consulted for women with hypothyroidism who are planning pregnancy. According to a review in the British Journal of General Practice, their levothyroxine dose should be adjusted to maintain a preconception TSH concentration of less than 2.5 mu/L. Upon conception, the daily dose of levothyroxine should be increased by 25-50 mcg and thyroid function should be monitored to ensure TSH remains below 2.5 mU/L. Therefore, increasing the dose to 100 mcg levothyroxine daily would be the correct course of action, while doubling the dose may be too large an increase. It would be inappropriate to reduce, stop, or maintain the same medication dosage as thyroxine requirements increase during pregnancy.
During pregnancy, there is an increase in the levels of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG), which causes an increase in the levels of total thyroxine. However, this doesn’t affect the free thyroxine level. If left untreated, thyrotoxicosis can increase the risk of fetal loss, maternal heart failure, and premature labor. Graves’ disease is the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy, but transient gestational hyperthyroidism can also occur due to the activation of the TSH receptor by HCG. Propylthiouracil has traditionally been the antithyroid drug of choice, but it is associated with an increased risk of severe hepatic injury. Therefore, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend using propylthiouracil in the first trimester and switching to carbimazole in the second trimester. Maternal free thyroxine levels should be kept in the upper third of the normal reference range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism. Thyrotrophin receptor stimulating antibodies should be checked at 30-36 weeks gestation to determine the risk of neonatal thyroid problems. Block-and-replace regimens should not be used in pregnancy, and radioiodine therapy is contraindicated.
On the other hand, thyroxine is safe during pregnancy, and serum thyroid-stimulating hormone should be measured in each trimester and 6-8 weeks postpartum. Women require an increased dose of thyroxine during pregnancy, up to 50% as early as 4-6 weeks of pregnancy. Breastfeeding is safe while on thyroxine. It is important to manage thyroid problems during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man presents with general malaise. He has recently been prescribed carbimazole for hyperthyroidism. What is the most crucial blood test to conduct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:Exclusion of agranulocytosis is necessary when using carbimazole.
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male had routine bloods done. He is a known type 2 diabetic and takes metformin 500mg BD and atorvastatin 20 mg ON. His blood results showed cholesterol at 7.2 mmol/L with raised triglycerides. His Hba1c increased from 72 mmol/L three months ago to 81 mmol/L currently. His urea and electrolytes are stable. He reports no significant changes in his diet and is compliant with his medications.
What is the most appropriate course of action regarding his medication regimen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase metformin to 500mg TDS and repeat bloods in three months
Explanation:To manage hyperlipidaemia, it is important to address any accompanying hyperglycaemia. The patient’s abnormal cholesterol levels could be a result of his deteriorating diabetic condition. Therefore, the best course of action would be to maintain the current statin dosage and adjust the metformin dosage accordingly. By treating the hyperglycaemia, there is a possibility of improving the patient’s cholesterol levels.
Management of Hyperlipidaemia: NICE Guidelines
Hyperlipidaemia, or high levels of lipids in the blood, is a major risk factor for cardiovascular disease (CVD). In 2014, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on lipid modification, which caused controversy due to the recommendation of statins for a significant proportion of the population over the age of 60. The guidelines suggest a systematic strategy to identify people over 40 years who are at high risk of CVD, using the QRISK2 CVD risk assessment tool. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and patients with very high cholesterol levels should be investigated for familial hyperlipidaemia. The new guidelines recommend offering a statin to people with a QRISK2 10-year risk of 10% or greater, with atorvastatin 20 mg offered first-line. Special situations, such as type 1 diabetes mellitus and chronic kidney disease, are also addressed. Lifestyle modifications, including a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, alcohol intake, and smoking cessation, are important in managing hyperlipidaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with her husband. She has distressing symptoms of sweating, and her husband, while archiving photos from recent years, noticed an increased prominence of her jaw now. Last year she was diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Other past history of note is that she has recently been operated on for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Which of the following statements about this patients condition is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Growth-hormone levels are likely to remain above 1 µg/l after a 75 g glucose load
Explanation:Understanding Acromegaly: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Acromegaly is a condition caused by the overproduction of growth hormone, usually due to a pituitary tumor. A diagnosis is confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test, as growth hormone levels remain elevated above 1 µg/l. Symptoms include coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, and soft tissue swellings. Nerve compression, hypertension, and cardiovascular complications may also occur. Insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1) levels are elevated in patients with acromegaly and can be used to monitor treatment efficacy. Random growth hormone testing is unsuitable due to episodic secretion. Treatment involves trans-sphenoidal resection of the pituitary tumor. Additionally, some patients with acromegaly may have increased levels of 1,25-OH vitamin D, which can cause hypercalcemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old overweight woman with type 2 diabetes wants to modify her eating habits. What food item has the greatest glycaemic index?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Baked potato
Explanation:Brown rice has a lower glycaemic index (GI) of 58 compared to white rice GI of 87.
Understanding the Glycaemic Index
The glycaemic index (GI) is a measure of how quickly a food raises blood glucose levels compared to glucose in individuals with normal glucose tolerance. Foods with a high GI are believed to increase the risk of obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus due to their association with postprandial hyperglycaemia.
Foods are classified into three categories based on their GI: high, medium, and low. Examples of high GI foods include white rice, baked potatoes, and white bread. Medium GI foods include couscous, boiled new potatoes, and digestive biscuits, while low GI foods include fruits, vegetables, and peanuts.
The GI is expressed as a number in brackets, with glucose having a GI of 100 by definition. Understanding the GI of different foods can help individuals make informed choices about their diet and manage their blood glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with a BMI of 26 presents to the diabetic clinic with poor glycaemic control while on gliclazide 160mg bd. Her latest blood results reveal a HbA1c of 9.4%. Her laboratory values are as follows: Na+ 139 mmol/l, K+ 4.1 mmol/l, urea 8.4 mmol/l, creatinine 180 µmol/l, ALT 25 iu/l, and yGT 33 iu/l. What medication should be added to her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pioglitazone
Explanation:Considering her overweight status, adding metformin would be a logical choice. However, due to the elevated creatinine levels, pioglitazone would be a more suitable alternative. It is important to note that if the creatinine level exceeds 130 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 45 ml/min), the metformin dosage should be reassessed and discontinued if the creatinine level exceeds 150 µmol/l (or eGFR falls below 30 ml/min). It is worth noting that pioglitazone may cause weight gain, which could be problematic given her BMI of 26.
Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications
Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which helps to reduce insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.
The PPAR-gamma receptor is a type of nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is normally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the function and development of fat cells.
While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have some adverse effects. These can include weight gain, liver problems (which should be monitored with regular liver function tests), and fluid retention. Because of the risk of fluid retention, these medications are not recommended for people with heart failure. Recent studies have also suggested that there may be an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in people taking thiazolidinediones, particularly pioglitazone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman is discovered to have the subsequent blood tests:
TSH 0.05 mu/l
Free T4 19 pmol/l (range 9-25 pmol/l)
Free T3 7 pmol/l (range 3-9 pmol/l)
What are the potential outcomes if no treatment is given?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supraventricular arrhythmias and osteoporosis
Explanation:Understanding Subclinical Hyperthyroidism
Subclinical hyperthyroidism is a condition that is becoming more recognized in the medical field. It is characterized by normal levels of free thyroxine and triiodothyronine, but with a thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) that falls below the normal range, usually less than 0.1 mu/l. The condition is often caused by a multinodular goitre, particularly in elderly females, or excessive thyroxine intake.
It is important to recognize subclinical hyperthyroidism because it can have negative effects on the cardiovascular system, such as atrial fibrillation, and on bone metabolism, leading to osteoporosis. It can also impact quality of life and increase the likelihood of dementia.
Management of subclinical hyperthyroidism involves monitoring TSH levels, as they may revert to normal on their own. If levels remain persistently low, a therapeutic trial of low-dose antithyroid agents for approximately six months may be recommended to induce remission. It is important to address subclinical hyperthyroidism to prevent potential complications and improve overall health.
Overall, understanding subclinical hyperthyroidism and its potential effects is crucial for proper management and prevention of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is discovered collapsed in the hallway. A nurse is present and has conducted a finger-prick glucose test, which shows a reading of 1.8 mmol/l. Upon examination, you observe that she is unresponsive to verbal cues, with a pulse rate of 84/min. The nurse has already positioned the patient in the recovery position. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give intramuscular glucagon
Explanation:Placing any object in the mouth of an unconscious patient can be risky as they may not be adequately safeguarding their airway.
In cases of heparin overdose, protamine sulfate is administered.
Insulin therapy can have side-effects that patients should be aware of. One of the most common side-effects is hypoglycaemia, which can cause sweating, anxiety, blurred vision, confusion, and aggression. Patients should be taught to recognize these symptoms and take 10-20g of a short-acting carbohydrate, such as a glass of Lucozade or non-diet drink, three or more glucose tablets, or glucose gel. It is also important for every person treated with insulin to have a glucagon kit for emergencies where the patient is not able to orally ingest a short-acting carbohydrate. Patients who have frequent hypoglycaemic episodes may develop reduced awareness, and beta-blockers can further reduce hypoglycaemic awareness.
Another potential side-effect of insulin therapy is lipodystrophy, which typically presents as atrophy or lumps of subcutaneous fat. This can be prevented by rotating the injection site, as using the same site repeatedly can cause erratic insulin absorption. It is important for patients to be aware of these potential side-effects and to discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider. By monitoring their blood sugar levels and following their treatment plan, patients can manage the risks associated with insulin therapy and maintain good health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus attends for her routine review and says she is keen on becoming pregnant.
What factor is most likely to make you ask her to defer her pregnancy at this stage?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HbA1c 80 mmol/mol
Explanation:Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy: Key Considerations
Pregnancy in women with type 1 diabetes is associated with increased risks of congenital abnormalities, neonatal morbidity and mortality, and operative delivery rates. However, pre-pregnancy counselling and achieving near-normal levels of glycosylated haemoglobin (HbA1c) can improve pregnancy outcomes. While microalbuminuria and background retinopathy may not be contraindications to pregnancy, regular monitoring and prompt referral to specialists are necessary to prevent progression of these complications. Sensory neuropathy may cause severe vomiting due to gastroparesis, but it is not a contraindication to pregnancy. Additionally, women with diabetes should take 5 mg folic acid daily pre-pregnancy to reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Good diabetic control remains the most important factor in managing diabetes in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most common cause of hypopituitarism in elderly individuals?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary tumour
Explanation:Causes of Hypopituitarism: Understanding Anterior Pituitary Tumours
Hypopituitarism is a condition characterized by the underproduction of hormones by the pituitary gland. While several factors can cause this condition, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. These tumours, including adenomas and other brain tumours, can present with a range of symptoms, from asymptomatic to acute pituitary failure with acute collapse and coma. The presentation depends on the aetiology, rapidity of onset, and predominant hormones involved.
In addition to causing hypopituitarism, space-occupying lesions may produce headaches and visual-field defects. Large lesions involving the hypothalamus may produce polydipsia and inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
While autoimmune disorders, anterior pituitary infarction, head injury, and sarcoidosis can also cause hypopituitarism, they are less common than anterior pituitary tumours. Lymphocytic hypophysitis is a rare autoimmune inflammatory disorder of the pituitary, usually associated with pregnancy. Postpartum pituitary necrosis (Sheehan syndrome) is caused by ischaemic necrosis, due to blood loss and hypovolemic shock during and after childbirth. Traumatic brain injury as a cause is being more frequently recognized. The hypothalamus is the most frequently involved of all the endocrine glands in sarcoidosis, and hypothalamic insufficiency is the major cause for hypopituitarism.
In summary, while several factors can cause hypopituitarism, anterior pituitary tumours are the most common cause. Understanding the symptoms and potential causes of hypopituitarism is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female is undergoing investigation for macrocytic anemia. Her blood tests indicate a deficiency in vitamin B12. Which of the following medications could be a contributing factor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin is a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus, as well as polycystic ovarian syndrome and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. Unlike other medications, such as sulphonylureas, metformin doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or weight gain, making it a first-line treatment option, especially for overweight patients. Its mechanism of action involves activating the AMP-activated protein kinase, increasing insulin sensitivity, decreasing hepatic gluconeogenesis, and potentially reducing gastrointestinal absorption of carbohydrates. However, metformin can cause gastrointestinal upsets, reduced vitamin B12 absorption, and in rare cases, lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with severe liver disease or renal failure. It is contraindicated in patients with chronic kidney disease, recent myocardial infarction, sepsis, acute kidney injury, severe dehydration, and those undergoing iodine-containing x-ray contrast media procedures. When starting metformin, it should be titrated up slowly to reduce the incidence of gastrointestinal side-effects, and modified-release metformin can be considered for patients who experience unacceptable side-effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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An otherwise healthy woman of 35 years has a second attack of renal colic in two years and passes a stone. Blood urea is normal.
Which one of the following investigations would be the most important to conduct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum calcium concentration
Explanation:Recommended Investigations for Young Patients with Renal Colic
Further investigation is recommended for young patients who experience a second episode of renal colic. To begin with, a plasma calcium test is important to rule out a predisposition towards forming the most common types of urinary tract stones, which are composed of calcium oxalate and calcium phosphate. A urine culture should also be conducted to exclude concurrent infection, as infection is associated with stone formation.
Another relevant investigation is urinary amino-acid chromatography, which can help assess for cystinuria or renal tubular acidosis. However, a urinary albumin-creatinine ratio is not particularly relevant in this situation unless the patient is found to have proteinuria.
It is important to note that an x-ray of the hands, renal biopsy, or cystoscopy are not required for this type of investigation. By conducting these recommended tests, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat young patients with renal colic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are seeing a woman in her 60s with type 2 diabetes for review. She holds a group 1 driving license.
Her current treatment consists of metformin 500 mg TDS and gliclazide 80 mg BD. As part of her review, you discuss any episodes of hypoglycaemia.
She tells you that she has had episodes of hypoglycaemia since she was last seen for review almost a year ago. On further questioning, there have been two episodes when she felt significantly unwell. During these episodes, her husband checked her finger prick blood sugar and it was less than 3 mmol/L. On both of these occasions, she felt sweaty, shaky and nauseated.
Her husband is with her and he tells you that she quite quickly became unwell and 'confused' with these episodes and he had to help her rest on the sofa and give her some dextrose tablets to get her sugar back up. She has not had any episodes of hypoglycaemia whilst driving.
With regard to her driving, what should you advise?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: He should only drive with another person in the car in case he requires assistance or becomes unwell whilst driving
Explanation:New Medical Driving Standards for Diabetes Patients
The medical driving standards for individuals with diabetes have recently changed. For those with a group 1 entitlement who are managed with tablets that carry the risk of inducing hypoglycaemia, they must stop driving and inform the DVLA if they have had more than one episode of severe hypoglycaemia within the preceding 12 months. Severe hypoglycaemia is defined as an episode that requires external help. In this case, the patient has experienced two episodes where external help from his wife was needed. As a result, the patient should cease driving until 12 months after the last but one episode and can only resume driving when stable control is demonstrated. These new standards aim to ensure the safety of both the driver and other individuals on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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What criteria must a patient meet to be diagnosed with diabetes mellitus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A 69-year-old asymptomatic gentleman who is otherwise well who has a one-off random glucose of 11.5 mmol/L
Explanation:Diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus
In a patient showing symptoms such as thirst, polyuria, nocturia, and blurred vision, diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed if any of the following criteria are met: HbA1c ≥48 mmol/mol, fasting glucose ≥7.0 mmol/L, OGTT 2 hour value ≥11.1 mmol/L, or random glucose ≥11.1 mmol/L. However, in the absence of classic symptoms or hyperglycaemic crisis, the test(s) should be repeated to confirm the criteria are met before a diagnosis can be made.
The correct answer to diagnose diabetes mellitus is a gentleman who has a raised fasting glucose. Although the fasting glucose on its own is not diagnostic of diabetes mellitus, it would have to be ≥7.0 mmol/L and confirmed on a repeat test. However, the HbA1c is compatible with the diagnosis, and a second HbA1c test confirms the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man comes in for a diabetic review. He is currently taking metformin twice daily at a dose of 1 g and gliclazide once daily at 80 mg. He started taking metformin 18 months ago and gliclazide 12 months ago. Additionally, he takes ramipril once daily at 10 mg and simvastatin 40 mg at night.
Upon reviewing his blood results, it is evident that his HbA1c has worsened from 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) to 64 mmol/mol (8%) over the past year. His body mass index is 36.2 kg/m2.
During the discussion of his current medication, the patient reports experiencing frequent hypoglycemic episodes, typically in the late morning, which has been confirmed with finger prick glucose measurements. There are no other issues or side effects with his treatment.
What is the most appropriate next step in treating this patient's high blood sugar levels?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the metformin and the gliclazide and refer for consideration of insulin therapy
Explanation:Reviewing Treatment for Deteriorating Glycaemic Control and Hypoglycaemic Episodes
This patient’s glycaemic control has deteriorated and he is experiencing hypoglycaemic episodes due to his sulphonylurea. It is important to review his existing treatment and make necessary changes. Metformin should be continued unless there are side-effects or contraindications. The gliclazide should be stopped or reduced in dose, as it can contribute to weight gain and the patient is already obese. Pioglitazone can also cause weight gain, so a DPP-4 inhibitor may be a more suitable second-line adjunct to treatment. DPP-4 inhibitors are weight neutral and can be used in combination with metformin. It is important to monitor HbA1c levels and adjust treatment accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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When managing hypertension in a diabetic patient, which of the following combinations of Antihypertensive medications should be avoided, if possible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Beta-blocker + thiazide
Explanation:Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus
Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that tighter blood pressure control did not significantly improve outcomes for patients with diabetes, except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. However, autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. It is important to note that the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, especially when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A woman visits her GP for a check-up of her type 2 diabetes. She is taking metformin at the maximum tolerated dose. Her most recent HbA1c reading is 64 mmol/mol.
The GP prescribes gliclazide and schedules another HbA1c test in 3 months.
What is the new target HbA1c for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 53
Explanation:The target HbA1c for patients taking a drug that may cause hypoglycaemia, such as gliclazide, is 53 mmol/mol or below. This target applies to adults who are prescribed a single hypoglycaemic agent or two or more antidiabetic drugs in combination. For adults with type 2 diabetes who are managed by diet and lifestyle alone or a single antidiabetic drug not associated with hypoglycaemia, the target HbA1c is 48 mmol/mol. Therefore, the correct answer for the HbA1c target for a patient starting on gliclazide is 53 mmol/mol. The answers 58 mmol/mol and 63 mmol/mol are incorrect.
NICE has updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022 to reflect advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. For the average patient taking metformin for T2DM, lifestyle changes and titrating up metformin to aim for a HbA1c of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) is recommended. A second drug should only be added if the HbA1c rises to 58 mmol/mol (7.5%). Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates, controlling intake of saturated fats and trans fatty acids, and initial target weight loss of 5-10% in overweight individuals.
Individual HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients to encourage motivation, and HbA1c should be checked every 3-6 months until stable, then 6 monthly. Targets should be relaxed on a case-by-case basis, with particular consideration for older or frail adults with type 2 diabetes. Metformin remains the first-line drug of choice, and SGLT-2 inhibitors should be given in addition to metformin if the patient has a high risk of developing cardiovascular disease (CVD), established CVD, or chronic heart failure. If metformin is contraindicated, SGLT-2 monotherapy or a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, or sulfonylurea may be used.
Further drug therapy options depend on individual clinical circumstances and patient preference. Dual therapy options include adding a DPP-4 inhibitor, pioglitazone, sulfonylurea, or SGLT-2 inhibitor (if NICE criteria are met). If a patient doesn’t achieve control on dual therapy, triple therapy options include adding a sulfonylurea or GLP-1 mimetic. GLP-1 mimetics should only be added to insulin under specialist care. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and ACE inhibitors or ARBs are first-line for hypertension. Antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease, and only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of gynaecomastia. He is currently being treated for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux.
Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia
Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, cimetidine, ciclosporin, and omeprazole are some of the drugs associated with this condition. Ramipril has only been rarely linked to gynaecomastia.
Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of use. If you are experiencing breast enlargement or any other unusual symptoms while taking medication, it is best to consult with your healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents with amenorrhoea for six months. A pregnancy test is negative. Over the past few months, she has occasionally been leaking milk and presents now as this has occurred more and more during stimulation and intercourse and she is becoming distressed by it. Thyroid function testing is normal. She takes no medication. Her serum prolactin level is 2400 mU/l.
Which of the following statements regarding this patients diagnosis and management is correct?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cabergoline is effective therapy
Explanation:Understanding Cabergoline Therapy for Prolactinomas
Prolactinomas are benign tumors of the pituitary gland that secrete prolactin, a hormone responsible for lactation. In women, high levels of prolactin can cause menstrual irregularities, infertility, and osteoporosis. Cabergoline is a dopamine agonist that effectively lowers prolactin levels and shrinks microprolactinomas.
Diagnosis of a microprolactinoma is typically made through MRI scanning and elevated serum prolactin levels. Cabergoline is the preferred treatment option, as it has fewer adverse effects than bromocriptine and can normalize prolactin levels in 70-100% of patients. Long-term treatment may be necessary, but withdrawal can be attempted after two years.
A visual field defect is unlikely unless the patient has a macroadenoma, which can cause pressure effects due to its size. Surgery may be necessary for macroprolactinomas to reduce tumor size. Observation may be appropriate for asymptomatic patients, but treatment is indicated for adverse effects of hyperprolactinemia, such as infertility and osteoporosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of hypertension has a 10-year cardiovascular disease risk of 20%. It is decided to initiate treatment with atorvastatin 20 mg. Before starting the medication, liver function tests are conducted:
Bilirubin 10 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
ALP 96 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
ALT 40 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
Gamma-GT 28 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)
After three months, the LFTs are repeated:
Bilirubin 12 µmol/l (3 - 17 µmol/l)
ALP 107 u/l (30 - 150 u/l)
ALT 104 u/l (10 - 45 u/l)
Gamma-GT 76 u/l (10 - 40 u/l)
What is the most appropriate action to take?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue treatment and repeat LFTs in 1 month
Explanation:If serum transaminase levels remain consistently 3 times higher than the upper limit of the reference range, treatment with statins must be stopped.
Statins are drugs that inhibit the action of HMG-CoA reductase, which is the enzyme responsible for cholesterol synthesis in the liver. However, they can cause adverse effects such as myopathy, liver impairment, and an increased risk of intracerebral hemorrhage in patients with a history of stroke. Statins should not be taken during pregnancy or in combination with macrolides. NICE recommends statins for patients with established cardiovascular disease, a 10-year cardiovascular risk of 10% or higher, type 2 diabetes mellitus, or type 1 diabetes mellitus with certain criteria. It is recommended to take statins at night, especially simvastatin, which has a shorter half-life than other statins. NICE recommends atorvastatin 20 mg for primary prevention and atorvastatin 80 mg for secondary prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman has had type 2 diabetes for six years.
She is obese with a BMI of 32 kg/m2. There is no family history of diabetes and she is otherwise well. She is highly motivated to gain control of her diabetes. She has managed to lose about 4 kg in weight over the last year with a combination of calorie restriction and exercise; she enjoys swimming and yoga.
Her current medication is:
Metformin 500 mg qds
Gliclazide 80 mg daily
Aspirin 75 mg OD
She says she would prefer not to take any additional medication.
Her BP is 135/90 mmHg. She has a good record of self-monitoring of blood glucose with an average fasting glucose of about 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL). She attends for review and her current HbA1c is 62 mmol/mol (7.8%).
What would be the best advice for this woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increase gliclazide
Explanation:Management of Type 2 Diabetes in Adults
According to NICE guidelines, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be based on the effectiveness, safety, and tolerability of drug treatment, as well as the individual’s clinical circumstances, preferences, and needs. In the case of a patient who has had success with lifestyle changes, adding anti-obesity treatment may not be the most appropriate option. Instead, strategies for maintaining the changes already made should be considered. Increasing the dosage of gliclazide may be a better option than increasing Metformin, which can often be difficult for patients to tolerate. However, careful monitoring is necessary as gliclazide can increase weight. Insulin is also an option, but only if the patient is not on maximum oral hypoglycaemic agents. Overall, the management of Type 2 diabetes in adults should be tailored to the individual’s specific circumstances and needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to the surgery for review. She complains of feeling hungry all the time although, despite this, she has lost weight. She also complains of palpitations that have been present for the past three months.
She has a past history of anxiety and has taken a course of SSRI four years ago for two years in total.
Examination reveals a BP of 120/80 mmHg, pulse is 92 and regular. She has a fine tremor. There is a small, 1.5 cm nodule within the left lobe of the thyroid.
Investigations reveal:
Hb 125 g/L (115-160)
WCC 6.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
PLT 281 ×109/L (150-450)
Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
Cr 78 µmol/L (70-110)
TSH 0.02 mU/L (0.4-4.5)
FT4 62 pmol/L (10-24)
You decide to refer this lady, but which of the following is likely to be the next step in her management without need to first consult a specialist colleague?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start propranolol
Explanation:Management of Thyrotoxicosis in Primary Care
In cases of suspected benign thyroid adenoma causing thyrotoxicosis, it is appropriate to prescribe a beta blocker such as propranolol to relieve adrenergic symptoms while awaiting specialist endocrinology assessment. According to Clinical Knowledge Summaries (CKS), further evaluation should include a thyroid uptake scan and ultrasound, with radioiodine being the intervention of choice for a solitary toxic nodule.
If symptoms persist despite treatment with a beta blocker or if a beta blocker is not tolerated or contraindicated, or if the patient is at risk of complications from hyperthyroidism, specialist advice should be sought regarding other treatment options such as starting carbimazole. In cases where the patient is taking a drug such as amiodarone or lithium, liaison between the specialist prescribing the drug and an endocrinologist may be necessary.
RET mutation testing is useful for evaluating familial medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN-2B syndrome, but this is not an investigation that is typically carried out in primary care as these conditions are rare and unlikely to be the diagnosis in this case. Thyroid uptake scanning and ultrasound are useful in the evaluation of a nodule, but should not delay starting anti-thyroid drugs. Urgent referral for fine-needle aspiration is not necessary in this low-risk situation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You have recommended a 60-year-old patient to purchase over-the-counter vitamin D at a dose of 10 micrograms. Later that day, the patient contacts you to inquire about the required dose in International Units since all medication labels at their local pharmacy are in this form.
To convert Vitamin D dose from International Units to micrograms, divide the number of units by 40.
What is the equivalent number of International Units for 10 mcg of Vitamin D?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.25
Explanation:Common Mistakes in AKT Exams
A common mistake made by candidates in RCGP AKT exams is making silly errors when performing simple calculations. This often results in incorrect answers. However, at onExamination, we have noticed that candidates also tend to misread questions, leading to incorrect answers.
For instance, in a dose conversion question, candidates were asked to convert mcg to IU, but some failed to notice this and divided the 10 mcg dose by 40, resulting in an incorrect answer of 0.25. The correct method would have been to multiply the 10 mcg dose by 40 to convert to IU, giving the correct answer of 400.
To avoid such errors, the RCGP advises candidates to do a reality check after their calculation. For example, if you are familiar with the CKS NICE recommended adult intake of Vitamin D (which is 400 IU), you should be able to recognize that 0.25 is not the correct answer and double-check your calculation. By paying attention to details and doing a reality check, candidates can avoid making common mistakes in AKT exams.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Galactorrhoea is a potential feature of which of the following conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Causes of Galactorrhoea: Understanding the Link to Hypothyroidism
Galactorrhoea, the spontaneous flow of milk from the breast, can be caused by a variety of factors. Physiological causes include postpartum changes, hormonal fluctuations during puberty or menopause, and elevated prolactin levels due to conditions such as prolactinoma. Other medical conditions, such as chronic renal failure, bronchogenic carcinoma, and sarcoidosis, can also lead to galactorrhoea.
One lesser-known cause of galactorrhoea is primary hypothyroidism. This occurs when the thyroid gland fails to produce enough thyroid hormone, leading to increased levels of thyroid-releasing hormone and subsequent secretion of prolactin. The longer the hypothyroidism goes untreated, the more likely it is to cause hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea.
It’s important to note that breast cancer and schizophrenia are not causes of galactorrhoea. While breast cancer may present with unilateral breast discharge, it is typically not milky. Schizophrenia itself doesn’t cause hyperprolactinaemia, but antipsychotic drugs used to treat the condition can. Other medications, such as antidepressants and spironolactone, can also produce galactorrhoea.
In summary, galactorrhoea can have a variety of causes, including physiological changes, medical conditions, and certain medications. Primary hypothyroidism is one potential cause that should not be overlooked, as it can lead to hyperprolactinaemia and galactorrhoea if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are consulted for a 50-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes who presents with a 24-hour history of polyuria, polydipsia, and vomiting. The patient is currently taking metformin, gliclazide, and empagliflozin. On examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.4°C, blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg, pulse of 100, blood glucose of 13 mmol/L, and blood ketones of 3.3 mmol/L. Urinalysis shows +++ ketones, but is otherwise normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis
Explanation:Patients with type 2 diabetes can experience diabetic ketoacidosis, as seen in this case where the patient has a blood glucose level of ≥11mmol/L and blood ketones of ≥3mmol/L. Immediate hospital admission is necessary for treatment with intravenous fluids and insulin. It is important to note that individuals taking SGLT2 inhibitors, such as empagliflozin, are at risk of DKA even with moderate blood glucose levels. DKA is more prevalent in Afro-Caribbean patients with type 2 diabetes. Hyperosmolar non-ketotic state (HONK) is characterized by elevated blood glucose levels but less than 2+ ketones in urine or 3mmol/L blood ketones.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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