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  • Question 1 - A 6-month-old boy has been brought to the hospital for evaluation of a...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old boy has been brought to the hospital for evaluation of a severe respiratory infection. The medical team suspects a diagnosis of pertussis (whooping cough).
      What is the MOST SUITABLE investigation for this case?

      Your Answer: Culture of nasopharyngeal aspirate

      Correct Answer: PCR testing

      Explanation:

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis. It is transmitted through respiratory droplets and has an incubation period of about 7-21 days. This disease is highly contagious and can be transmitted to around 90% of close household contacts.

      The clinical course of whooping cough can be divided into two stages. The first stage is called the catarrhal stage, which resembles a mild respiratory infection with symptoms like low-grade fever and a runny nose. A cough may be present, but it is usually mild compared to the second stage. The catarrhal stage typically lasts for about a week.

      The second stage is known as the paroxysmal stage. During this phase, the cough becomes more severe as the catarrhal symptoms start to subside. The coughing occurs in spasms, often preceded by an inspiratory whoop sound, followed by a series of rapid coughs. Vomiting may occur, and patients may develop subconjunctival hemorrhages and petechiae. Patients generally feel well between coughing spasms, and there are usually no abnormal chest findings. This stage can last up to 3 months, with a gradual recovery over time. The later stages of this phase are sometimes referred to as the convalescent stage.

      Complications of whooping cough can include secondary pneumonia, rib fractures, pneumothorax, hernias, syncopal episodes, encephalopathy, and seizures.

      Public Health England (PHE) provides recommendations for testing whooping cough based on the patient’s age, time since onset of illness, and severity of symptoms. For infants under 12 months of age who are hospitalized, PCR testing is recommended. Non-hospitalized infants within two weeks of symptom onset should undergo culture testing of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate. Non-hospitalized infants presenting over two weeks after symptom onset should be tested for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels using serology.

      For children over 12 months of age and adults, culture testing of a nasopharyngeal swab or aspirate is recommended within two weeks of symptom onset. Children aged 5 to 16 who have not received the vaccine within the last year and present over two weeks after symptom onset should undergo oral fluid testing for anti-pertussis toxin IgG antibody levels. Children under 5 or adults over

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that...

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    • A 45-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department with a painful rash that seems to be indicative of shingles.
      What is the most suitable method to confirm a shingles diagnosis in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History and examination alone

      Explanation:

      Shingles is caused by the varicella-zoster virus (VZV), which primarily infects individuals during childhood as chickenpox. However, the initial infection can also be subclinical. After the primary infection, the virus remains dormant in the sensory nervous system, specifically in the geniculate, trigeminal, or dorsal root ganglia.

      During the dormant phase, the virus is kept under control by the immune system for many years. However, it can later become active and cause a flare-up in a specific dermatomal segment. This reactivation occurs when the virus travels down the affected nerve over a period of 3 to 5 days, leading to inflammation within and around the nerve. The decline in cell-mediated immunity is believed to trigger the virus’s reactivation.

      Several factors can trigger the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, including advancing age (with most patients being older than 50), immunosuppressive illnesses, physical trauma, and psychological stress. In immunocompetent patients, the most common site of reactivation is the thoracic nerves, followed by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve.

      Diagnosing shingles can usually be done based on the patient’s history and clinical examination alone, as it has a distinct history and appearance. While various techniques can be used to detect the virus or antibodies, they are often unnecessary. Microscopy and culture tests using scrapings and smears typically yield negative results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her younger brother....

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    • A 25-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her younger brother. He states her behavior has been strange lately and that he is extremely concerned about her. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following would indicate a diagnosis of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emotional incongruity

      Explanation:

      Emotional incongruity, although not a primary symptom, is one of the negative symptoms that define chronic schizophrenia. These symptoms, as described by Kurt Schneider, are known as first-rank symptoms. They include auditory hallucinations such as hearing third-person voices discussing the patient, thought echo, and commentary on actions. Passivity phenomena, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control, are also considered first-rank symptoms. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are another characteristic of schizophrenia.

      Chronic schizophrenia is primarily characterized by negative symptoms. These symptoms include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, poverty of thought and speech. On the other hand, symptoms like loss of inhibitions, pressure of speech, and grandiose delusions are more indicative of mania. Increased anxiety in social circumstances is often associated with social anxiety disorder.

      In summary, emotional incongruity is a negative symptom of chronic schizophrenia, while the first-rank symptoms described by Kurt Schneider encompass auditory hallucinations, passivity phenomena, and delusions. It is important to differentiate these symptoms from those associated with mania or social anxiety disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 4 - A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion...

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    • A 68-year-old woman with a history of chronic anemia receives a blood transfusion as part of her treatment protocol. She has a known history of heart failure, for which she takes metoprolol and hydrochlorothiazide. She becomes short of breath, volume overloaded, and edematous during the transfusion.
      Which of the following tests will be most useful in confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: BNP

      Explanation:

      Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is a reaction that occurs when a large volume of blood is infused rapidly. It is the second leading cause of deaths related to transfusions, accounting for about 20% of all fatalities.

      TACO typically happens in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia who receive a fast blood transfusion. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are particularly vulnerable.

      The common signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heartbeat, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening fluid accumulation in the lungs on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid retention.

      The B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) can be a helpful diagnostic tool for TACO. Usually, the BNP level is elevated to at least 1.5 times the baseline before the transfusion.

      In many cases, simply slowing down the rate of transfusion, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient. In more severe cases, the transfusion should be stopped, and non-invasive ventilation may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 5 - You evaluate a 45-year-old male patient with a swollen and red right calf....

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    • You evaluate a 45-year-old male patient with a swollen and red right calf. His D-dimer levels are elevated, and you schedule an ultrasound scan which confirms the presence of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in his right calf. He has a history of a previous DVT and his INR today is 2.5.
      What is the MOST suitable course of action for management in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His target INR should be raised to 3.5

      Explanation:

      When managing a first episode of acute venous thromboembolism (VTE), it is recommended to start warfarin in combination with a parenteral anticoagulant, such as unfractionated heparin, low-molecular-weight heparin, or fondaparinux. The parental anticoagulant should be continued for a minimum of 5 days and ideally until the international normalized ratio (INR) is above 2 for at least 24 hours.

      To prevent the extension of the blood clot and recurrence in calf deep vein thrombosis (DVT), at least 6 weeks of anticoagulant therapy is necessary. For proximal DVT, a minimum of 3 months of anticoagulant therapy is required.

      For first episodes of VTE, the ideal target INR is 2.5. However, in cases where patients experience recurrent VTE while being anticoagulated within the therapeutic range, the target INR should be increased to 3.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
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  • Question 6 - You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a...

    Incorrect

    • You intend to utilize plain 1% lidocaine for a ring block on a finger that requires suturing. How much lidocaine hydrochloride is present in every 1 ml of plain 1% lidocaine solution?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 10 mg lidocaine hydrochloride

      Explanation:

      Each milliliter of plain 1% lidocaine solution contains 10 milligrams of lidocaine hydrochloride.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pain & Sedation
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  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain and a high temperature. During the examination, he experiences tenderness in the right iliac fossa, leading to a preliminary diagnosis of acute appendicitis. However, he adamantly refuses to flex his thigh at the hip, and when you attempt to extend it passively, his abdominal pain intensifies.
      Which muscle is most likely in contact with the inflamed structure causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Psoas major

      Explanation:

      This patient is exhibiting the psoas sign, which is a medical indication of irritation in the iliopsoas group of hip flexors located in the abdomen. In this particular case, it is highly likely that the patient has acute appendicitis.

      The psoas sign can be observed by extending the patient’s thigh while they are lying on their side with their knees extended, or by asking the patient to actively flex their thigh at the hip. If these movements result in abdominal pain or if the patient resists due to pain, then the psoas sign is considered positive.

      The pain occurs because the psoas muscle is adjacent to the peritoneal cavity. When the muscles are stretched or contracted, they rub against the inflamed tissues nearby, causing discomfort. This strongly suggests that the appendix is positioned retrocaecal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with complaints of painful urination and frequent urination. A urine dipstick test is conducted, which shows the presence of blood, protein, white blood cells, and nitrites. Based on these findings, you diagnose her with a urinary tract infection and prescribe antibiotics.
      Which antibiotic has the highest resistance rate against E.coli in the UK?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Trimethoprim

      Explanation:

      Nitrofurantoin is currently the preferred antibiotic for treating uncomplicated urinary tract infections in non-pregnant women. However, antibiotic resistance is becoming a significant concern in the management of urinary tract infections and pyelonephritis in the UK. In England, the resistance of E. coli (the main bacteria causing these infections) to certain antibiotics is as follows:

      Trimethoprim: 30.3% (varies between areas from 27.1% to 33.4%)
      Co-amoxiclav: 19.8% (varies between areas from 10.8% to 30.7%)
      Ciprofloxacin: 10.6% (varies between areas from 7.8% to 13.7%)
      Cefalexin: 9.9% (varies between areas from 8.1% to 11.4%)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
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  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a medical condition during the...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man is given a medication for a medical condition during the 2nd-trimester of his partner's pregnancy. As a result, the newborn experienced delayed onset labor and premature closure of the ductus arteriosus.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these abnormalities?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diclofenac sodium

      Explanation:

      The use of NSAIDs in the third trimester of pregnancy is linked to several risks. These risks include delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus, which is a condition where bilirubin causes brain dysfunction. Additionally, there is a slight increase in the risk of first-trimester abortion if NSAIDs are used early in pregnancy.

      Below is a list outlining commonly encountered drugs that have adverse effects during pregnancy:

      ACE inhibitors (e.g. ramipril): If given in the second and third trimester, these drugs can cause hypoperfusion, renal failure, and the oligohydramnios sequence.

      Aminoglycosides (e.g. gentamicin): These drugs can cause ototoxicity and deafness.

      Aspirin: High doses of aspirin can lead to first-trimester abortions, delayed onset of labor, premature closure of the fetal ductus arteriosus, and fetal kernicterus. However, low doses (e.g. 75 mg) do not pose a significant risk.

      Benzodiazepines (e.g. diazepam): When given late in pregnancy, these drugs can cause respiratory depression and a neonatal withdrawal syndrome.

      Calcium-channel blockers: If given in the first trimester, these drugs can cause phalangeal abnormalities. If given in the second and third trimester, they can lead to fetal growth retardation.

      Carbamazepine: This drug can cause hemorrhagic disease of the newborn and neural tube defects.

      Chloramphenicol: Use of this drug can result in grey baby syndrome.

      Corticosteroids: If given in the first trimester, corticosteroids may cause orofacial clefts.

      Danazol: If given in the first trimester, this drug can cause masculinization of the female fetuses genitals.

      Finasteride: Pregnant women should avoid handling finasteride. Crushed or broken tablets can be absorbed through the skin and affect male sex organ development.

      Haloperidol: If given in the first trimester, this drug may cause limb malformations. If given in the third trimester, there is an increased risk of extrapyramidal symptoms in the neonate.

      Heparin: Use of heparin during pregnancy can lead to maternal bleeding and thrombocytopenia.

      Isoniazid: This drug can cause maternal liver damage

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his father with an itchy, red...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought in by his father with an itchy, red and watery right eye. On examination, there is mild erythema of palpebral conjunctiva, and follicles are visible on eversion of the eyelid. Lid oedema is evident, and you can also see a few petechial subconjunctival haemorrhages. The eye appears watery, and there is no purulent discharge. He has recently recovered from a mild upper respiratory tract infection. You make a diagnosis of viral conjunctivitis.

      How long does Public Health England recommend that he should be excluded from school?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No school exclusion is necessary

      Explanation:

      According to Public Health England, there is no recommended exclusion period for viral or bacterial conjunctivitis from school, nursery, or childminders, unless there is an outbreak or cluster of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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