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  • Question 1 - A 35 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old woman arrives at the emergency department with complaints of pain and numbness in her middle finger, index finger, and thumb on the right hand. Upon reviewing her medical history, you discover that she has a previous diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following clinical features would you expect to find in this patient with hypothyroidism?

      Your Answer: Heat intolerance

      Correct Answer: Decreased deep tendon reflexes

      Explanation:

      Hypothyroidism often presents with various clinical features. These include weight gain, lethargy, intolerance to cold temperatures, non-pitting edema (such as swelling in the hands and face), dry skin, hair thinning and loss, loss of the outer part of the eyebrows, decreased appetite, constipation, decreased deep tendon reflexes, carpal tunnel syndrome, and menorrhagia.

      Further Reading:

      The thyroid gland is an endocrine organ located in the anterior neck. It consists of two lobes connected by an isthmus. The gland produces hormones called thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate energy use, protein synthesis, and the body’s sensitivity to other hormones. The production of T4 and T3 is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) secreted by the pituitary gland, which is in turn stimulated by thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus.

      Thyroid disorders can occur when there is an imbalance in the production or regulation of thyroid hormones. Hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones, while hyperthyroidism is characterized by an excess. The most common cause of hypothyroidism is autoimmune thyroiditis, also known as Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. It is more common in women and is often associated with goiter. Other causes include subacute thyroiditis, atrophic thyroiditis, and iodine deficiency. On the other hand, the most common cause of hyperthyroidism is Graves’ disease, which is also an autoimmune disorder. Other causes include toxic multinodular goiter and subacute thyroiditis.

      The symptoms and signs of thyroid disorders can vary depending on whether the thyroid gland is underactive or overactive. In hypothyroidism, common symptoms include weight gain, lethargy, cold intolerance, and dry skin. In hyperthyroidism, common symptoms include weight loss, restlessness, heat intolerance, and increased sweating. Both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism can also affect other systems in the body, such as the cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, and neurological systems.

      Complications of thyroid disorders can include dyslipidemia, metabolic syndrome, coronary heart disease, heart failure, subfertility and infertility, impaired special senses, and myxedema coma in severe cases of hypothyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, complications can include Graves’ orbitopathy, compression of the esophagus or trachea by goiter, thyrotoxic periodic paralysis, arrhythmias, osteoporosis, mood disorders, and increased obstetric complications.

      Myxedema coma is a rare and life-threatening complication of severe hypothyroidism. It can be triggered by factors such as infection or physiological insult and presents with lethargy, bradycardia, hypothermia, hypotension, hypoventilation, altered mental state, seizures and/or coma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1191.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old Caucasian woman comes in with itchy, hyperpigmented patches on her chest and back. She recently returned from her vacation in Ibiza and the areas have become much more noticeable since being exposed to the sun.
      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pityriasis versicolor

      Explanation:

      Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a common skin condition caused by an infection with the yeasts Malassezia furfur and Malassezia globosa. It typically presents as multiple patches of altered pigmentation, primarily on the trunk. In individuals with fair skin, these patches are usually darker in color, while in those with darker skin or a tan, they may appear lighter (known as pityriasis versicolor alba). It is not uncommon for the rash to cause itching.

      The recommended treatment for pityriasis versicolor involves the use of antifungal agents. One particularly effective option is ketoconazole shampoo, which is sold under the brand name Nizoral. To use this shampoo, it should be applied to the affected areas and left on for approximately five minutes before being rinsed off. This process should be repeated daily for a total of five days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient visits your clinic with concerns about a recent alteration in her usual vaginal discharge. She is not sexually active at the moment and has no other health issues. She does not report any itching symptoms but has observed a strong fishy odor in the discharge.
      Which organisms should be the primary target for initial treatment in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis and Chlamydia trachomatis

      Correct Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis only

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common condition that affects up to a third of women during their childbearing years. It occurs when there is an overgrowth of bacteria, specifically Gardnerella vaginalis. This bacterium is anaerobic, meaning it thrives in environments without oxygen. As it multiplies, it disrupts the balance of bacteria in the vagina, leading to a rise in pH levels and a decrease in lactic acid-producing lactobacilli. It’s important to note that BV is not a sexually transmitted infection.

      The main symptom of BV is a greyish discharge with a distinct fishy odor. However, it’s worth mentioning that around 50% of affected women may not experience any symptoms at all.

      To diagnose BV, healthcare providers often use Amsel’s criteria. This involves looking for the presence of three out of four specific criteria: a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, a positive fishy smell test when potassium hydroxide is added, the presence of clue cells on microscopy, and a thin, white, homogeneous discharge.

      The primary treatment for BV is oral metronidazole, typically taken for 5-7 days. This medication has an initial cure rate of about 75%. It’s crucial to provide special care to pregnant patients diagnosed with BV, as it has been linked to an increased risk of late miscarriage, early labor, and chorioamnionitis. Therefore, prompt treatment for these patients is of utmost importance.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Sexual Health
      43.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A child with a known history of latex allergy arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A child with a known history of latex allergy arrives at the Emergency Department with a severe allergic reaction caused by accidental exposure.
      Which of the following fruits is this child MOST likely to have an allergy to as well?

      Your Answer: Banana

      Explanation:

      The connection between latex sensitivity and food allergy is commonly known as the latex-fruit syndrome. Foods that have been found to be allergenic in relation to latex are categorized into high, moderate, or low risk groups.

      High risk foods include banana, avocado, chestnut, and kiwi fruit.

      Moderate risk foods include apple, carrot, celery, melon, papaya, potato, and tomato.

      Citrus fruits and pears are considered to have a low risk of causing allergic reactions in individuals with latex sensitivity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She...

    Incorrect

    • You evaluate a 78-year-old woman who has come in after a fall. She is frail and exhibits signs of recent memory loss. You administer an abbreviated mental test score (AMTS) and record the findings in her medical records.
      Which ONE of the following is NOT included in the AMTS assessment?

      Your Answer: Time to the nearest hour

      Correct Answer: Subtraction of serial 7s

      Explanation:

      The subtraction of serial 7s is included in the 30-point Folstein mini-mental state examination (MMSE), but it is not included in the AMTS. The AMTS consists of ten questions that assess various cognitive abilities. These questions include asking about age, the nearest hour, the current year, the name of the hospital or location, the ability to recognize two people, date of birth, knowledge of historical events, knowledge of the present monarch or prime minister, counting backwards from 20 to 1, and recalling an address given earlier in the test. The AMTS is referenced in the RCEM syllabus under the topic of memory loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      19.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her parents. For the past two days, she has had severe diarrhoea and vomiting. She has not passed urine so far today. She normally weighs 20 kg. On examination, she has sunken eyes and dry mucous membranes. She is tachycardia and tachypnoeic and has cool peripheries. Her capillary refill time is prolonged.
      What is her estimated percentage dehydration?

      Your Answer: 5%

      Correct Answer: 10%

      Explanation:

      Generally speaking, if a child shows clinical signs of dehydration but does not exhibit shock, it can be assumed that they are 5% dehydrated. On the other hand, if shock is also present, it can be assumed that the child is 10% dehydrated or more. To put it in simpler terms, 5% dehydration means that the body has lost 5 grams of fluid per 100 grams of body weight, which is equivalent to 50 milliliters per kilogram of fluid. Similarly, 10% dehydration implies a loss of 100 milliliters per kilogram of fluid.

      The clinical features of dehydration and shock are summarized below:

      Dehydration (5%):
      – The child appears unwell
      – The heart rate may be normal or increased (tachycardia)
      – The respiratory rate may be normal or increased (tachypnea)
      – Peripheral pulses are normal
      – Capillary refill time (CRT) is normal or slightly prolonged
      – Blood pressure is normal
      – Extremities feel warm
      – Decreased urine output
      – Reduced skin turgor
      – Sunken eyes
      – Depressed fontanelle
      – Dry mucous membranes

      Clinical shock (10%):
      – The child appears pale, lethargic, and mottled
      – Tachycardia (increased heart rate)
      – Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate)
      – Weak peripheral pulses
      – Prolonged CRT
      – Hypotension (low blood pressure)
      – Extremities feel cold
      – Decreased urine output
      – Decreased level of consciousness

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department by her father. For the past three days, she has been experiencing severe diarrhea. She has had no wet diapers today and is lethargic and not behaving as usual. She was recently weighed by her pediatrician's nurse and was 7 kg.

      What is this child's DAILY maintenance fluid requirement when in good health?

      Your Answer: 800 ml/day

      Explanation:

      The intravascular volume of an infant is approximately 80 ml/kg. As children get older, their intravascular volume decreases to around 70 ml/kg. Dehydration itself does not lead to death, but it can cause shock. Shock can occur when there is a loss of 20 ml/kg from the intravascular space. Clinical dehydration, on the other hand, is only noticeable after total losses greater than 25 ml/kg.

      The table below summarizes the maintenance fluid requirements for well and normal children:

      Bodyweight:
      – First 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 100 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 4 ml/kg
      – Second 10 kg: Daily fluid requirement of 50 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 2 ml/kg
      – Subsequent kg: Daily fluid requirement of 20 ml/kg and hourly fluid requirement of 1 ml/kg

      For a well and normal child weighing less than 10 kg, their daily maintenance fluid requirement would be 800 ml/day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old male patient is brought into the emergency department due to a recent onset of high fever and feeling unwell that has worsened over the past day, with the patient becoming increasingly drowsy. Despite initial resuscitation efforts, there is minimal response and it is decided to intubate the patient before transferring to the intensive care unit for ventilatory and inotropic support. Your consultant requests that you apply pressure over the cricoid during the procedure. What is the reason for this?

      Your Answer: Improve visualisation of local anatomy for easier introduction of endotracheal tube

      Correct Answer: Prevent aspiration of gastric contents

      Explanation:

      Cricoid pressure is applied during intubation to compress the oesophagus and prevent the backflow of stomach contents, reducing the risk of aspiration.

      Further Reading:

      Rapid sequence induction (RSI) is a method used to place an endotracheal tube (ETT) in the trachea while minimizing the risk of aspiration. It involves inducing loss of consciousness while applying cricoid pressure, followed by intubation without face mask ventilation. The steps of RSI can be remembered using the 7 P’s: preparation, pre-oxygenation, pre-treatment, paralysis and induction, protection and positioning, placement with proof, and post-intubation management.

      Preparation involves preparing the patient, equipment, team, and anticipating any difficulties that may arise during the procedure. Pre-oxygenation is important to ensure the patient has an adequate oxygen reserve and prolongs the time before desaturation. This is typically done by breathing 100% oxygen for 3 minutes. Pre-treatment involves administering drugs to counter expected side effects of the procedure and anesthesia agents used.

      Paralysis and induction involve administering a rapid-acting induction agent followed by a neuromuscular blocking agent. Commonly used induction agents include propofol, ketamine, thiopentone, and etomidate. The neuromuscular blocking agents can be depolarizing (such as suxamethonium) or non-depolarizing (such as rocuronium). Depolarizing agents bind to acetylcholine receptors and generate an action potential, while non-depolarizing agents act as competitive antagonists.

      Protection and positioning involve applying cricoid pressure to prevent regurgitation of gastric contents and positioning the patient’s neck appropriately. Tube placement is confirmed by visualizing the tube passing between the vocal cords, auscultation of the chest and stomach, end-tidal CO2 measurement, and visualizing misting of the tube. Post-intubation management includes standard care such as monitoring ECG, SpO2, NIBP, capnography, and maintaining sedation and neuromuscular blockade.

      Overall, RSI is a technique used to quickly and safely secure the airway in patients who may be at risk of aspiration. It involves a series of steps to ensure proper preparation, oxygenation, drug administration, and tube placement. Monitoring and post-intubation care are also important aspects of RSI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Anaesthetics
      16.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with a past medical history of recurrent episodes of profuse sweating, rapid heartbeat, and sudden high blood pressure is found to have a phaeochromocytoma. What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Alpha-blocker

      Explanation:

      A phaeochromocytoma is a rare functional tumor that develops from chromaffin cells in the adrenal medulla. Extra-adrenal paragangliomas, also known as extra-adrenal pheochromocytomas, are similar tumors that originate in the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system but are less common. These tumors secrete catecholamines and cause a range of symptoms and signs related to hyperactivity of the sympathetic nervous system.

      The most common initial symptom is high blood pressure, which can be either sustained or sporadic. Symptoms tend to come and go, occurring multiple times a day or very infrequently. As the disease progresses, the symptoms usually become more severe and frequent.

      Surgical removal is the preferred and definitive treatment option. If the tumor is completely removed without any spread to other parts of the body, it often leads to a cure for hypertension.

      Before surgery, it is crucial to manage the condition medically to reduce the risk of hypertensive crises during the operation. This is typically done by using a combination of non-competitive alpha-blockers (such as phenoxybenzamine) and beta-blockers. Alpha-blockade should be started first, at least 7-10 days before the surgery, to allow for expansion of blood volume. Once this is achieved, beta-blockade can be initiated to help control rapid heart rate and certain irregular heart rhythms. Starting beta-blockade too early can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

      Genetic counseling should also be provided, and any associated conditions should be identified and managed appropriately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      1.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 35-year-old patient with asthma comes in with acute theophylline toxicity. Along with...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient with asthma comes in with acute theophylline toxicity. Along with theophylline, they use salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers.
      What factor is most likely to have caused this episode?

      Your Answer: St. John’s wort

      Correct Answer: Viral infection

      Explanation:

      Theophylline is a medication used to treat severe asthma. It is a bronchodilator that comes in modified-release forms, which can maintain therapeutic levels in the blood for 12 hours. Theophylline works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase and blocking the breakdown of cyclic AMP. It also competes with adenosine on A1 and A2 receptors.

      Achieving the right dose of theophylline can be challenging because there is a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic levels. The half-life of theophylline can be influenced by various factors, further complicating dosage adjustments. It is recommended to aim for serum levels of 10-20 mg/l six to eight hours after the last dose.

      Unlike many other medications, the specific brand of theophylline can significantly impact its effects. Therefore, it is important to prescribe theophylline by both its brand name and generic name.

      Several factors can increase the half-life of theophylline, including heart failure, cirrhosis, viral infections, and certain drugs. Conversely, smoking, heavy drinking, and certain medications can decrease the half-life of theophylline.

      There are several drugs that can either increase or decrease the plasma concentration of theophylline. Calcium channel blockers, cimetidine, fluconazole, macrolides, methotrexate, and quinolones can increase the concentration. On the other hand, carbamazepine, phenobarbitol, phenytoin, rifampicin, and St. John’s wort can decrease the concentration.

      The clinical symptoms of theophylline toxicity are more closely associated with acute overdose rather than chronic overexposure. Common symptoms include headache, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, rapid heartbeat, dysrhythmias, seizures, mild metabolic acidosis, low potassium, low magnesium, low phosphates, abnormal calcium levels, and high blood sugar.

      Seizures are more prevalent in acute overdose cases, while chronic overdose typically presents with minimal gastrointestinal symptoms. Cardiac dysrhythmias are more common in chronic overdose situations compared to acute overdose.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      7.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Sexual Health (0/1) 0%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (0/1) 0%
Nephrology (1/2) 50%
Basic Anaesthetics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (0/1) 0%
Passmed