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  • Question 1 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.

      Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 72-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for review, two months after...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for review, two months after being discharged from hospital. She has hypothyroidism, maintained on 75 µg levothyroxine once a day. Following discharge, she also began taking amlodipine, amitriptyline, ferrous fumarate and ranitidine.
      Investigations reveal that her thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level is 9.1 mU/l (normal range: 0.25–4.0 mU/l), while her free thyroxine (T4) is 8.1 pmol/l (normal range: 12.0–22.0 pmol/l).
      She is compliant with her medications and takes them all together in the morning.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s results?

      Your Answer: Ferrous fumarate

      Explanation:

      Interactions with Levothyroxine: Understanding the Effects of Different Medications

      Levothyroxine is a medication used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. However, certain medications can interact with levothyroxine and affect its absorption and effectiveness. Let’s explore the effects of different medications on levothyroxine and how they can impact thyroid function tests.

      Ferrous Fumarate: Iron salts can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine, leading to inadequate replacement and hypothyroidism. It is recommended to take these medications at least four hours apart to avoid this interaction.

      Amitriptyline: While thyroid hormones can enhance the effect of amitriptyline, this medication does not reduce the effect of levothyroxine and would not cause hypothyroidism.

      Amlodipine: There is no interaction between amlodipine and levothyroxine, and this medication would not affect thyroid function tests.

      Aspirin: Similarly, there is no interaction between aspirin and levothyroxine, and the use of this medication would not impact thyroid function tests.

      Ranitidine: While antacids can reduce levothyroxine absorption, ranitidine is an H2 receptor antagonist and not classified as an antacid. Therefore, there is no interaction between ranitidine and levothyroxine.

      In conclusion, it is important to be aware of potential interactions between medications and levothyroxine to ensure adequate treatment of hypothyroidism. By understanding the effects of different medications, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions and adjust medication schedules as needed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      1.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old male visits his GP complaining of new visual symptoms. He is having difficulty reading the newspaper, particularly at night, and his symptoms appear to be fluctuating in severity. Upon fundoscopy, the doctor observes small deposits of extracellular material between Bruch's membrane and the retinal pigment epithelium, but otherwise the examination is unremarkable. The patient has a history of lifelong smoking. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration is also known as drusen. This condition is characterized by a gradual loss of central vision, which can fluctuate and worsen over time. Symptoms may include difficulty seeing in low light conditions and distorted or blurry vision. There are two forms of macular degeneration: dry and wet.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      3.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old woman develops a red and hot right shin. She is afebrile and otherwise well. She has no known allergies. Her Wells' score is -2.
      Which of the following would be the best option?
      Select the SINGLE best option from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cellulitis and the Use of Doppler Ultrasound for DVT Diagnosis

      Cellulitis is a common bacterial skin infection that can be treated with oral flucloxacillin, according to UK antimicrobial guidelines. Hospital admission for cellulitis treatment is only necessary for febrile and ill patients or those with comorbidities. Oral co-amoxiclav is recommended for facial cellulitis, but not for cellulitis in other locations. Oral vancomycin is used for Clostridium difficile infection, not cellulitis.

      A Doppler ultrasound scan can be useful in diagnosing deep venous thrombosis (DVT), but it is unlikely to be necessary for a patient with cellulitis who is otherwise well and has a low Wells’ score. The Wells’ score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of DVT based on clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      8.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria....

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with generalised fatigue and polyuria. These symptoms started three months ago but became much more pronounced in the preceding hour.
      At the clinic, she also starts complaining of extreme thirst and mild lower back pain. She is noted to be breathing heavily, with her breath smelling of acetone.
      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of general fatigue and polyuria suggest the possibility of type I diabetes, which can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA can occur as a complication of existing type I diabetes or as the first presentation of the disease. In rare cases, extreme stress can also cause DKA in patients with type II diabetes. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in excess free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. Common triggers include infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction.

      Anxiety attacks can cause heavy breathing and abdominal pain, but they do not explain the polyuria, polydipsia, and pear-drops-smelling breath. Symptoms of anxiety attacks include chest pain, palpitations, nausea and vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency.

      Acute pancreatitis should be ruled out in cases of central abdominal pain. Symptoms of acute pancreatitis include severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Cullen’s sign and Grey-Turner’s sign are rare.

      Addison’s disease, the most common cause of primary hypoadrenalism in the UK, can present similarly to this case with general fatigue and abdominal pain. Other symptoms of Addison’s disease include anorexia, nausea and vomiting, weight loss, salt-craving, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.

      Hyperparathyroidism can also cause polyuria, polydipsia, and abdominal pain, but the Kussmaul respiration and pear-drops-smelling breath suggest a likely diagnosis of DKA. Symptoms of hyperparathyroidism include bone pain, osteopenia and osteoporosis, increased risk of kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting and abdominal pain, and fatigue, depression, and memory impairment, all of which are symptoms of underlying hypercalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of general malaise, lethargy...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of general malaise, lethargy and ankle swelling. She was commenced on omeprazole eight weeks ago to treat indigestion. Urea, electrolytes and eGFR demonstrate that her renal function has declined significantly. She is referred to the renal team and a diagnosis of acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) is suspected.
      What would be the next most useful investigation in order to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Acute Interstitial Nephritis

      Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) can present with non-specific symptoms of acute kidney dysfunction, such as nausea, vomiting, and malaise. A decline in kidney function is typical, and a raised creatinine on U+ESs may already be present. A drug history, along with a raised eosinophilia on full blood count (FBC), can aid in the diagnosis of AIN. Common causes of AIN include drugs like proton-pump inhibitors, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories, and antibiotics, as well as autoimmune disorders or other systemic diseases.

      Antinuclear antibody (ANA) testing should be performed to rule out systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which can coexist with AIN. However, a positive ANA test alone would not confirm a diagnosis of AIN.

      Urinary dipstick testing for protein is not useful in diagnosing AIN, as patients with AIN typically do not have protein in their urine. Nephrotic syndrome can occur as a rare complication of AIN.

      Renal biopsy may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis of AIN, as it is characterized by an inflammatory infiltrate in the kidney interstitium. However, if the patient’s condition is drug-induced, a renal biopsy may not be required if a raised creatinine and eosinophil count, along with the drug history, are sufficient for diagnosis.

      Chest X-ray (CXR) may be necessary to investigate other potential causes of AIN, such as sarcoidosis. If sarcoidosis is suspected and the CXR is inconclusive, a computed tomography chest may be performed. However, if the patient has been exposed to a drug that predisposes them to AIN, a diagnosis of drug-induced interstitial nephritis is more likely than an underlying systemic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted to the hospital 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. The paediatric team prescribed him a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer before his discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia that she has been experiencing for the past 4 years. She reports severe pain during her menstrual cycle and feels nauseous. Additionally, she mentions that she and her partner have been trying to conceive for 2 years without any success. What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The main indicators of this condition are cyclic abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia, which may be accompanied by fertility issues. Unlike endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease does not typically cause pain during menstruation. A bicornuate uterus, which is a congenital anomaly resulting in a heart-shaped uterus, is associated with a higher risk of recurrent miscarriages. Cervical carcinomas are usually accompanied by abnormal bleeding, such as post-coital and inter-menstrual bleeding, but they are unlikely to have been present for as long as three years.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions

      Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric urology clinic due to recurrent...

    Correct

    • A 3-year-old boy is brought to the paediatric urology clinic due to recurrent urinary tract infections. A renal ultrasound revealed dilatation of the ureters. The boy's father remembers having a similar issue with a valve in his ureters during childhood, resulting in urine flowing back towards the kidneys. What is the most suitable test to assess the severity of the probable underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Micturating cystography

      Explanation:

      Vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) is a likely cause of recurrent urinary tract infections (UTIs) in children under 6 years old. The family history, age of the patient, and abnormal ultrasound findings suggest VUR as the underlying issue. To determine the severity of VUR, a voiding cystourethrogram (micturating cystography) is necessary. This test involves injecting dye into the bladder via a catheter and taking x-ray images while the child urinates. Early detection of VUR is crucial to prevent kidney scarring (reflux nephropathy).

      Bladder ultrasound is not an appropriate method for grading VUR severity. While ultrasound imaging of the urinary tract, including the kidneys, can be useful, it cannot grade VUR severity.

      A CT abdomen is not necessary and would expose the child to unnecessary radiation.

      A dimercaptosuccinic acid (DMSA) scan can assess renal parenchymal defects resulting from VUR and is typically performed within six months of an acute infection in children with recurrent UTIs. However, it cannot grade the severity of VUR.

      Understanding Vesicoureteric Reflux

      Vesicoureteric reflux (VUR) is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder into the ureter and kidney. This is a common urinary tract abnormality in children and can lead to urinary tract infections (UTIs). In fact, around 30% of children who present with a UTI have VUR. It is important to investigate for VUR in children following a UTI as around 35% of children develop renal scarring.

      The pathophysiology of VUR involves the ureters being displaced laterally, which causes a shortened intramural course of the ureter. This means that the vesicoureteric junction cannot function properly. VUR can present in different ways, such as hydronephrosis on ultrasound during the antenatal period, recurrent childhood UTIs, and reflux nephropathy, which is chronic pyelonephritis secondary to VUR. Renal scarring can also produce increased quantities of renin, which can cause hypertension.

      To diagnose VUR, a micturating cystourethrogram is usually performed. A DMSA scan may also be done to check for renal scarring. VUR is graded based on the severity of the condition, with Grade I being the mildest and Grade V being the most severe.

      Overall, understanding VUR is important in preventing complications such as UTIs and renal scarring. Early diagnosis and management can help improve outcomes for children with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      6.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 46-year-old male patient presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old male patient presented to the emergency department with sudden onset of pain, photophobia, and redness in his left eye. During examination, an irregularly sized left pupil and hypopyon in the anterior chamber were observed. The patient has a history of a condition marked by stiffness and back pain. What is the most probable diagnosis for his eye issue?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis is frequently observed in conditions linked to HLA-B27, such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and psoriatic arthritis. This type of uveitis can cause an irregular pupil due to the formation of posterior synechiae, which occurs when inflammation within the eye causes the iris to stick to the anterior lens surface. However, intermediate and posterior uveitis are not associated with HLA-B27 and do not typically cause pain, irregular pupil size, or hypopyon. Scleritis and episcleritis also do not present with an irregular pupil or hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. It is a common cause of red eye and is associated with HLA-B27, which may also be linked to other conditions. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small or irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness, tearing, and the presence of pus and inflammatory cells in the front part of the eye. This condition may be associated with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and treatment may involve the use of cycloplegics and steroid eye drops.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
      Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?

      Your Answer: Theophylline

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications

      Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:

      Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.

      Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.

      Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.

      Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.

      Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      4.6
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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents with four days of right otalgia, discharge and reduced hearing. There is no significant past medical history, and she is systemically well. She never had any similar symptoms before.
      On examination, there is an inflamed auditory canal and a small amount of debris, the tympanic membrane appears to be normal.
      What is the best initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Start topical antibiotic and steroid

      Explanation:

      Management of Otitis Externa: Recommended Actions and Guidelines

      Otitis externa is a common condition that affects the outer ear canal. The management of this condition depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Here are some recommended actions and guidelines for managing otitis externa:

      1. Start topical antibiotic and steroid: This is recommended for patients with acute otitis externa who present with more severe inflammation. The treatment should last for seven days.

      2. Start topical acetic acid 2% spray: This is recommended for patients with mild otitis externa who do not have hearing loss or discharge.

      3. Refer to ENT urgently: This is not part of initial management but should be considered for patients with chronic diffuse otitis externa when treatment is prolonged beyond two to three months.

      4. Start oral amoxicillin: Oral antibiotics are rarely indicated for otitis externa. They should only be considered for patients with severe infection or at high risk of severe infection.

      5. Take an ear swab and start topical antibiotic: Ear swab is not recommended as first-line management. It should only be done if there is no response to initial treatment or in recurrent infections.

      In summary, the management of otitis externa depends on the severity of the inflammation and the presence of other symptoms. Following these recommended actions and guidelines can help improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      5
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  • Question 14 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conduct disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses

      Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:

      Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.

      Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.

      Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.

      In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      3.3
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  • Question 15 - After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner...

    Correct

    • After being stung by a bee, a 20-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with swollen face and lips, along with wheezing. He is experiencing breathing difficulties and his blood pressure is 83/45 mmHg as per manual reading.
      What would be the most suitable course of action to manage this situation?

      Your Answer: Give 1 : 1 000 intramuscular (im) adrenaline

      Explanation:

      Administering Adrenaline for Anaphylaxis: Dosage and Route

      Anaphylaxis is a severe medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. The administration of adrenaline is crucial in managing anaphylactic shock. However, the dosage and route of administration depend on the severity of the symptoms.

      For mild symptoms, such as skin rash or itching, the administration of iv hydrocortisone and chlorpheniramine is sufficient. But if the symptoms progress to involve the airways or circulation, adrenaline should be given as soon as possible. The recommended dosage for intramuscular (im) adrenaline is 1:1000.

      It’s important to note that the dosage for cardiac arrest is different, and it’s given intravenously (iv) at a concentration of 1:10,000. However, routine use of iv adrenaline is not recommended unless the healthcare provider is skilled and experienced in its use.

      Hydrocortisone, even by an iv route, takes several hours to have an effect and is no longer deemed to be part of emergency treatment of anaphylaxis. Therefore, it’s not an appropriate course of action for rapidly life-threatening situations.

      In summary, administering adrenaline for anaphylaxis requires careful consideration of the dosage and route of administration. It’s crucial to act quickly and seek emergency medical attention to prevent fatal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      4.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A four-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due...

    Correct

    • A four-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents due to a new rash on his abdomen. The parents deny any recent infections or injuries. Upon examination, you observe a widespread petechial rash on the anterior abdomen and right forearm. The child appears pale and uninterested in the toys provided. Additionally, you note hepatosplenomegaly and cervical lymphadenopathy. While waiting for blood test results, you perform a urinalysis, which is unremarkable, and record a tympanic temperature of 36.6Âş. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      DIC can cause haemorrhagic or thrombotic complications in cases of acute lymphoblastic leukaemia.

      While a petechial rash can be a result of trauma, it is unlikely to be the case with this child given the other significant symptoms present. The non-blanching rash may initially suggest meningococcal disease, but the absence of fever and a clear source of infection makes this less likely. Additionally, the lesions associated with Henoch-Schonlein purpura typically appear on specific areas of the body and are accompanied by other symptoms such as haematuria or joint pain, which are not present in this case.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that commonly affects children and accounts for 80% of childhood leukaemias. It is most prevalent in children between the ages of 2-5 years, with boys being slightly more affected than girls. Symptoms of ALL can be divided into those caused by bone marrow failure, such as anaemia, neutropaenia, and thrombocytopenia, and other features like bone pain, splenomegaly, and hepatomegaly. Fever is also present in up to 50% of new cases, which may indicate an infection or a constitutional symptom. Testicular swelling may also occur.

      There are three types of ALL: common ALL, T-cell ALL, and B-cell ALL. Common ALL is the most common type, accounting for 75% of cases, and is characterized by the presence of CD10 and a pre-B phenotype. Poor prognostic factors for ALL include age less than 2 years or greater than 10 years, a white blood cell count greater than 20 * 109/l at diagnosis, T or B cell surface markers, non-Caucasian ethnicity, and male sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.8
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  • Question 17 - A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area...

    Correct

    • A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?

      Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.3
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  • Question 18 - Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has...

    Correct

    • Sarah, a 5-year-old child visits the allergy clinic with her parents. She has a confirmed milk protein allergy and her parents are interested in using the milk ladder to manage it. Which food item would be suitable to gradually introduce?

      Your Answer: Malted milk biscuits

      Explanation:

      Children with cows milk protein allergy can use the milk ladder to reintroduce milk protein after they turn 6 months old.

      To gradually introduce milk, the milk ladder starts with cooked or baked milk. The process begins with malted milk biscuits and then progresses in a step-by-step manner towards pasteurised milk.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      2.4
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  • Question 19 - A 58-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 10-day history of intermittent...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man presents to the clinic with a 10-day history of intermittent stabbing pains over his left cheek. He reports that the pain worsens when he goes outside into the cold air and when he washes his face in the morning. Upon examination, there are no notable findings.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Facial Pain: Trigeminal Neuralgia, Cluster Headache, Acute Sinusitis, Bell’s Palsy, and Temporal Arteritis

      Facial pain can be caused by a variety of conditions, and it is important to differentiate between them in order to provide appropriate treatment. Here are five possible diagnoses for facial pain:

      1. Trigeminal Neuralgia: This condition causes sudden, sharp shooting pain in the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, eating, talking, or exposure to the cold.

      2. Cluster Headache: Recurrent attacks of severe pain around the eye or temporal region, which tend to occur at the same time each day, eg on waking.

      3. Acute Sinusitis: This condition presents with nasal blockage or discharge, facial pain or pressure, and sometimes a reduction or loss of smell.

      4. Bell’s Palsy: This condition typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy.

      5. Temporal Arteritis: This condition presents with a localised, unilateral headache around the temporal region, tenderness over the area with redness and pulsation.

      It is important to consider all of these diagnoses when evaluating a patient with facial pain, and to provide appropriate management based on the specific condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.8
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  • Question 20 - A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness,...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of left eye redness, a sensation of grittiness, and a foreign body feeling in the left eye for the past three days. She also reports experiencing significant photophobia and a watering eye. The patient has a history of using contact lenses. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Keratitis

      Explanation:

      Keratitis, which is likely caused by contact lens wear, is characterized by a red eye, sensitivity to light, and a feeling of grittiness. Episcleritis typically does not cause pain or light sensitivity. Blepharitis is inflammation of the eyelid and does not typically result in light sensitivity. Conjunctivitis usually causes minimal pain or light sensitivity.

      Understanding Keratitis: Inflammation of the Cornea

      Keratitis is a condition that refers to the inflammation of the cornea. While conjunctivitis is a common eye infection that is not usually serious, microbial keratitis can be sight-threatening and requires urgent evaluation and treatment. The causes of keratitis can vary, with bacterial infections typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus and Pseudomonas aeruginosa commonly seen in contact lens wearers. Fungal and amoebic infections can also cause keratitis, with acanthamoebic keratitis accounting for around 5% of cases. Parasitic infections such as onchocercal keratitis can also cause inflammation of the cornea.

      Other factors that can cause keratitis include viral infections such as herpes simplex keratitis, environmental factors like photokeratitis (e.g. welder’s arc eye), and exposure keratitis. Clinical features of keratitis include a red eye with pain and erythema, photophobia, a foreign body sensation, and the presence of hypopyon. Referral is necessary for contact lens wearers who present with a painful red eye, as an accurate diagnosis can only be made with a slit-lamp examination.

      Management of keratitis involves stopping the use of contact lenses until symptoms have fully resolved, as well as the use of topical antibiotics such as quinolones. Cycloplegic agents like cyclopentolate can also be used for pain relief. Complications of keratitis can include corneal scarring, perforation, endophthalmitis, and visual loss. Understanding the causes and symptoms of keratitis is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 21 - Which one of the following clinical features would be least consistent with a...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following clinical features would be least consistent with a diagnosis of severe pre-eclampsia?

      Your Answer: Reflexes difficult to elicit

      Explanation:

      Hyperreflexia and clonus are commonly observed in patients with severe pre-eclampsia, while a decrease in platelet count may indicate the onset of HELLP syndrome.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old newly qualified nurse presents with a bilateral erythematous rash on both hands. She has recently moved from the Philippines and has no significant medical history. The suspected diagnosis is contact dermatitis. What is the most appropriate test to determine the underlying cause?

      Your Answer: Skin patch test

      Explanation:

      The skin patch test can be beneficial in this scenario as it has the potential to detect irritants in addition to allergens.

      Types of Allergy Tests

      Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.

      Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3
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  • Question 23 - A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old smoker presents with non-healing sores on his lower lip that have been gradually enlarging for several months. Upon examination, a lesion is found at the vermilion border of the lower lip. What is the most probable type of lesion?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Lesions and Cancers: Characteristics and Clinical Presentations

      Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), actinic keratosis, Bowen’s disease, cold sores, and leukoplakia are common skin lesions and cancers that have distinct characteristics and clinical presentations.

      SCC is a malignant tumour that commonly affects the backs of the hands and forearms, the upper part of the face, and the lower lip and pinna in men. The first clinical sign is induration, which may take on nodular, plaque-like, verrucous, or ulcerated characteristics. The limits of induration are not sharp and usually extend beyond the visible margins of the lesion. The surrounding tissue is often inflamed. SCCs rarely metastasize.

      Actinic keratosis is a sun-induced scaly or hyperkeratotic lesion that has the potential to become malignant. It is characterized by multifocal, scaly, hyperpigmented or scaly lesions, usually brown with a scaly base, occurring on the head, neck, forearms, and hands.

      Bowen’s disease is an intraepidermal (in situ) squamous cell carcinoma that arises in sun-exposed sites, especially the lower legs in women. It is characterized by well-defined pink and scaly patches or plaques that may become crusty, fissured, or ulcerated as lesions grow.

      Cold sores are recurrent infections of orofacial herpes simplex that present as grouped vesicles, especially of the lips and perioral skin. The eruption is often preceded by a tingling, itching, or burning sensation. Over a few days, the vesicles form a crust, and the eruption resolves within 7–10 days.

      Leukoplakia is a white patch or plaque of the oral mucosa that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other condition.

      A non-healing lesion is also of concern, especially in patients with a history of smoking and advanced age, as it may indicate a malignant cause. Early detection and treatment are crucial in preventing the progression of these skin lesions and cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      4.8
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  • Question 24 - A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery,...

    Correct

    • A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
      What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      3.5
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  • Question 25 - A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old teacher is referred to the Respiratory Clinic with a 6-month history of progressive shortness of breath and dry cough. She denies fever or weight loss and there is no past medical history of note. She reports smoking 5 cigarettes a day for 3 years whilst at college but has since stopped. There are no known allergies.
      On examination, her respiratory rate is 18 breaths per minute with an oxygen saturation of 94% on air. There are audible crackles at the lung bases with expiratory wheeze.
      She is referred for spirometry testing:
      Forced expiratory volume (FEV1): 60% predicted
      Forced vital capacity (FVC): 80% predicted
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Obstructive Lung Disease: Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency

      Alpha-1 antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is a genetic disorder that causes emphysematous changes in the lungs due to the loss of elasticity. This disease presents similarly to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with symptoms such as shortness of breath, cough, and wheeze. However, AAT deficiency typically affects young men between 30-40 years old and is exacerbated by smoking. Spirometry testing reveals an obstructive pattern of disease (FEV1/FVC < 0.7). Other potential diagnoses for obstructive lung disease include hypersensitivity pneumonitis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. However, these are less likely in this patient’s case. Hypersensitivity pneumonitis is caused by allergen exposure and presents with acute symptoms such as fever and weight loss. Kartagener’s syndrome is a genetic disease that leads to recurrent respiratory infections and bronchiectasis. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is characterized by progressive fibrosis of the lung parenchyma and typically affects individuals between 50-70 years old. In contrast to AAT deficiency, spirometry testing in fibrotic disease would show a result greater than 0.7 (FEV1/FVC > 0.7).

      In conclusion, AAT deficiency should be considered in the differential diagnosis for a patient presenting with obstructive lung disease, particularly in young men with a smoking history. Spirometry testing can help confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      4.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male with a history of bipolar disorder is experiencing an acute state of confusion. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause lithium toxicity in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazides can cause lithium toxicity, while sodium bicarbonate and aminophylline can lower plasma levels of lithium.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician complaining of a fishy-smelling watery discharge from her vagina, which worsens after sexual activity. What test would be the most helpful in diagnosing her condition?

      Your Answer: Test vaginal pH

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by a shift in the vaginal flora, resulting in a change in pH. Here are some diagnostic tests that can be used to identify BV:

      1. Test vaginal pH: A vaginal pH of > 4.5 in conjunction with a fishy odour and the characteristic discharge is diagnostic of BV.

      2. Blood serology testing: BV cannot be diagnosed through blood serology testing as it is not caused by a single organism.

      3. High vaginal swab for sexually transmitted infections: BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but the presence of other STIs can increase the prevalence of BV.

      4. Low vaginal swab: A culture of the vaginal organisms via a low vaginal swab is not a useful way to diagnose BV.

      5. Urinary microscopy, sensitivity, and culture: Urinary culture is not used to diagnose BV. Diagnosis is based on characteristic findings at examination.

      In conclusion, a combination of a high vaginal swab for STIs and a test for vaginal pH can be used to diagnose BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      2.6
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  • Question 28 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue....

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to the Paediatric Emergency with fever and fatigue. She seems sick and sleepy. Neck stiffness is found during examination.
      What is the main factor that would prevent a lumbar puncture (LP) in this case?

      Your Answer: Extensive rash on trunk and limbs

      Explanation:

      Contraindications for Lumbar Puncture in Children with Suspected Bacterial Meningitis

      When a child presents with suspected bacterial meningitis, a lumbar puncture (LP) should be performed as soon as possible. However, there are certain contraindications that must be considered before attempting an LP. These include signs of raised intracranial pressure (ICP), haemodynamic instability, extensive or spreading purpura, seizures (until stabilised), coagulation abnormalities, infection at the site of LP, and respiratory compromise.

      A Glasgow coma scale (GCS) score of 13 is not a contraindication for LP. However, an LP should not be attempted when there are signs of raised ICP, such as a GCS score < 9, drop in GCS of 3, relative bradycardia and hypertension, focal neurological signs, abnormal posturing, anisocoria (unequal pupils), papilloedema, or tense or bulging fontanelle. A history of febrile seizure in the past is not a contraindication for LP. However, if the child has ongoing seizures, an LP should not be attempted. Tachycardia is also not a contraindication for LP, as it could be a result of fever. However, if there is any feature of haemodynamic compromise, such as prolonged capillary refill, hypotension, or reduced urine output, an LP should not be attempted. Coagulation abnormalities are contraindications for LP. A LP should not be attempted when the platelet count is < 100 Ă— 109/l, the patient is on anticoagulants, or bleeding and clotting parameters are deranged. It is important to consider these contraindications before attempting an LP in children with suspected bacterial meningitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      2.9
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  • Question 29 - As a junior doctor in a general practice, you come across a patient...

    Correct

    • As a junior doctor in a general practice, you come across a patient with severe hay fever. The patient is in her early 20s and expresses her desire to take antihistamines but is worried about feeling drowsy. What would be the best medication option for her?

      Your Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine and cetirizine are antihistamines that are not likely to cause sedation, unlike chlorpheniramine which is known to be more sedating.

      While loratadine may still cause sedation, it is less likely to do so compared to other antihistamines such as chlorphenamine and promethazine. Buclizine, on the other hand, is primarily used as an anti-emetic for migraines but also has antihistamine properties. Mirtazapine, although it has antihistamine properties, is mainly used as an antidepressant and appetite stimulant.

      Antihistamines for Allergic Rhinitis and Urticaria

      Antihistamines, specifically H1 inhibitors, are effective in treating allergic rhinitis and urticaria. Sedating antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine have antimuscarinic properties that can cause side effects like urinary retention and dry mouth. On the other hand, non-sedating antihistamines like loratidine and cetirizine are less likely to cause drowsiness. However, there is some evidence that cetirizine may still cause more drowsiness compared to other non-sedating antihistamines. Overall, antihistamines are a valuable treatment option for those suffering from allergic rhinitis and urticaria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of heaviness and discomfort in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents with a 4-month history of heaviness and discomfort in her upper legs, which is present after walking for more than 5 minutes. She used to enjoy walking regularly, but now finds it difficult to participate. However, she is still able to drive to her part-time job as a receptionist. She has a history of hypertension and was recently started on medication. She quit smoking 3 years ago. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg. Her pulse is 64 and regular. Her peripheral pulses are palpable, but the capillary return in her toes is slow. Neurological examination of her arms and legs is normal, except for diminished ankle jerks and reduced vibration sense distally.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lumbar canal stenosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Progressive Exertional Leg Pain: A Review of Possible Conditions

      Progressive exertional leg pain can be a symptom of various medical conditions. In this article, we will review some of the possible differential diagnoses for this symptom.

      Lumbar Canal Stenosis
      Lumbar canal stenosis is a degenerative condition associated with the ageing spine, resulting in narrowing of the central spinal canal, lateral recess or neural foramina. It is usually due to progressive hypertrophy of the facet joints and disc degeneration. It is a syndrome of buttock or leg pain, with or without back pain, associated with a narrow space available for the neural and vascular elements in the lumbar spine.

      Metabolic Muscle Disease
      This is a diverse group of hereditary muscle disorders caused by specific enzymatic defects due to defective genes. Disorders of muscle energy metabolism result in skeletal muscle dysfunction. Most metabolic myopathies are considered primary inborn errors of metabolism and are associated with enzymatic defects that affect the ability of muscle fibres to maintain energy and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) concentrations. These include abnormalities of glycogen, lipid, purine or mitochondrial biochemistry.

      Idiopathic Parkinson’s Disease
      Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease (IPD) commonly presents with tremor, stiffness, slowness and balance/gait issues. In addition, PD classically displays a unilateral onset. This patient has no resting symptoms suggestive of IPD.

      Hypothyroid Muscle Disease
      Hypothyroidism is associated with proximal myopathy. There is commonly proximal muscle weakness and raised creatine kinase (CK). Patients may suffer muscle cramping, proximal symmetrical muscle weakness, muscle stiffness and exercise intolerance. Reduced reflexes/ankle reflexes are commonly seen.

      Abdominal Aortic Stenosis
      This refers to narrowing of the aorta during its course in the abdomen. This would produce bilateral vascular claudication symptoms, due to reduced blood flow distal to the stenosis. The progressive exertional leg pain described here could be in keeping with vascular claudication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.8
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Respiratory Medicine (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Dermatology (5/5) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (5/5) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
ENT (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/1) 100%
Infectious Diseases (2/2) 100%
Passmed