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Question 1
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A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Submandibular gland infection
Explanation:Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
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A 5-year-old boy is presented to a paediatrician with a cystic mass on the right lateral aspect of his neck, just below the angle of the jaw. The mother reports intermittent discharge from a small pit located just in front of the lower anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. What is the cause of this cyst, resulting from the failure of proliferation of which mesenchyme?
Your Answer: Second pharyngeal arch
Explanation:During embryonic development, the pharyngeal arches give rise to various structures in the head and neck. The second arch forms the external auditory meatus and can sometimes lead to the formation of a branchial cleft cyst. The third arch becomes the common carotid artery and gives rise to the stylopharyngeus muscle. The first arch becomes the maxillary and mandibular prominences and gives rise to the muscles of mastication. The fourth arch forms the laryngeal cartilages and is innervated by the superior laryngeal branch of the vagus nerve. The fifth arch regresses quickly. Understanding the development of these arches is important in understanding the anatomy and function of the head and neck.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 3
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A 70-year-old woman presents following a fall. During an assessment of her fall, she complained of balance problems, nausea and dizziness whenever she moves her head or looks up, eg to hang laundry on her washing line outside. She denies loss of consciousness and did not injure herself during the fall. Her past medical history consists of osteoarthritis of the knees and lower back.
On examination, her gait and balance and neurological examination are normal and there are no injuries. The Hallpike test is positive.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management for this patient’s vertigo?Your Answer: Epley manoeuvre
Explanation:Management Options for Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo (BPPV)
Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is a common condition that can cause dizziness and vertigo. The best first-line management option for BPPV is the Epley manoeuvre, which can reposition the debris in the vestibular canals and provide rapid relief. If symptoms persist, investigations may be necessary to rule out more serious brain pathologies, but a brain MRI is not typically required for a BPPV diagnosis. Medications such as prochlorperazine or betahistine may help with symptoms in the short term, but they do not treat the underlying cause. Vestibular retraining exercises, such as Brandt-Daroff exercises, can also be effective if symptoms persist despite the Epley manoeuvre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
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A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His mother had a right adrenal phaeochromocytoma which was successfully removed. The patient is 1.9m tall and weighs 74 kg. During examination, the doctor notices multiple yellowish white masses on the patient's lips and tongue. Three months later, the patient undergoes a total thyroidectomy. Which structure is innervated by the nerve most at risk during this procedure, and is also part of the vagus nerve?
Your Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:The aortic arch has baroreceptors that send afferent fibers to the vagus nerve. A patient with an enlarging neck mass, a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B), and a marfanoid habitus may have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is a feature of MEN2B. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but the recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve, is at risk during thyroidectomy. The chorda tympani innervates the taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, while the lingual nerve and hypoglossal nerve innervate the general somatic sensation and motor function, respectively. The platysma muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VII, and the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries general visceral afferent information from the carotid sinus to the brainstem. The spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) innervates both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
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A surgeon prepares to excise the submandibular gland for a suspected malignancy in a pediatric patient. He incises the skin and the platysma in the neck below the gland, then proceeds to dissect the gland free of its bed. As he dissects the deep lobe, he notes the submandibular duct, which he mobilises, ligates and cuts anteriorly.
When cutting the duct, which of the following needs the most care to be taken to avoid damage?Your Answer: The lingual nerve
Explanation:Anatomy of the Submandibular Gland and Related Structures
The submandibular gland is composed of a superficial and deep part, with the facial artery passing between the gland and mandible and the facial vein indenting it superiorly. To access the deep lobe of the gland, both structures must be ligated and cut. The mandibular branch of the facial nerve is at risk of damage during the initial incision, while the lingual nerve is closely related to the submandibular duct and carries various fibers. The facial artery and vein may also be ligated during dissection, but are not as intimately related to the duct as the lingual nerve. The lesser petrosal branch of the glossopharyngeal nerve carries parasympathetic supply to the parotid gland and synapses in the otic ganglion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with deteriorating hearing during pregnancy. There is no known family history of hearing loss. Upon examination, the tympanic membrane appears intact and pure tone audiometry indicates a conductive hearing loss with a Carhart notch.
What is the most probable location of the issue?Your Answer: External auditory canal
Correct Answer: Stapes
Explanation:Understanding Otosclerosis: Diagnosis and Treatment Options
Otosclerosis is a common autosomal dominant disorder that causes a conductive hearing loss, which typically worsens during pregnancy. The condition is caused by the fixation of the stapes bone in the ear, and it exhibits incomplete penetrance, meaning it can skip generations, and there may not be a positive family history of the condition.
Diagnosis of otosclerosis is typically made through examination findings and audiometry results. The Carhart notch, a dip seen on bone conduction audiometry, is a sign that is classically associated with otosclerosis. However, the tympanic membrane is unlikely to be the site of abnormality as it is mentioned that the tympanic membrane is intact on examination.
Treatment options for otosclerosis include amplification with hearing aids and medical treatment with sodium fluoride, which slows progression. Surgery, such as stapedectomy or stapedotomy, is becoming more popular and effective.
It is important to understand the diagnosis and treatment options for otosclerosis to effectively manage the condition and improve quality of life for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department by her mother who informs the Consultant of her repeated nosebleeds. She is an avid basketball player, and her mother has noticed multiple bruises after games. The Consultant goes through the list of recent laboratory investigations ordered by the girl’s Paediatrician. Full blood count (FBC), haemoglobin, platelet count, white blood cell count and clotting times [prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT)] were all found to be within normal values. Additional haematological test results were also normal, including activity assays for factor VIII and XIII, platelet aggregation assay and von Willebrand factor (vWF) antigen.
Which of the following physical findings would give the most effective information regarding her diagnosis?Your Answer: Petechial rashes on pressure sites
Correct Answer: Hypermobility of fingers and toes
Explanation:Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values
Introduction:
Bleeding problems with normal haematological values can be challenging to diagnose. This article discusses possible diagnoses for such cases based on physical findings.Hypermobility of Fingers and Toes:
Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, a collagen-based disorder, is a possible diagnosis for bleeding problems with normal haematological values. This is associated with hypermobility of the fingers and toes, ocular cutaneous haemorrhages, joint hypermobility, and increased skin elasticity.Subconjunctival Haemorrhages:
Subconjunctival haemorrhages can be caused by ocular or systemic factors. Systemic causes include hypertension, diabetes, and bleeding disorders. It is difficult to diagnose the specific cause without further investigation.Bruises in the Shins:
Easy bruising of the skin can be attributed to platelet disorders, drugs, and hepatic disorders. However, since the coagulation profiles and levels of clotting factors are normal, it is difficult to diagnose the specific cause. Further investigation is necessary.Petechial Rashes on Pressure Sites:
Petechial rashes, conjunctival haemorrhages, and bruising over the shins can indicate an associated bleeding disorder. However, normal haematological values make it difficult to diagnose a specific condition.Visual Acuity Defects and Albinism:
Normal haematological values do not rule out bleeding disorders. Hermansky–Pudlak syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition, can cause visual acuity defects and albinism along with bleeding tendencies. However, the platelet aggregation assay is typically deranged in these cases, which is not the case in this scenario.Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values and Associated Physical Findings
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 8
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The patient in the picture has a slow-growing facial lump and has been referred to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Clinic. He denies any other symptoms and is in good health. Radiology confirms a parotid swelling. What is the most likely pathology he has?
Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma
Explanation:Possible Parotid Gland Conditions and Their Characteristics
The parotid gland is a salivary gland located in front of the ear. It can be affected by various conditions, including pleomorphic adenoma, lymphoma, parotid adenitis, parotid abscess, and adenocarcinoma.
Pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumour of the parotid gland. It is a slow-growing, mixed benign tumour that can potentially become malignant and has a high chance of recurrence. Surgical removal through a parotidectomy is the current treatment approach.
Lymphoma is a possibility in the parotid gland, but it is less common than pleomorphic adenoma. Patients with lymphoma may have constitutional symptoms, such as night sweats, weight loss, and fever.
Parotid adenitis is inflammation of the parotid gland, which can occur for various reasons. It may be unilateral or bilateral, as seen in mumps. Inflammatory conditions typically cause more tenderness than swelling.
Parotid abscess is a collection of pus in the parotid gland. However, the unusual shape of the gland in combination with normal overlying skin is not typical of abscesses or inflammation.
Adenocarcinoma of the parotid gland is a malignant tumour that can involve the facial nerve. However, the lack of facial nerve involvement and the relative size of the tumour make adenocarcinoma unlikely in this case.
In summary, the characteristics of each condition can help differentiate between them, and a proper diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 9
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of a sore throat, coryzal symptoms, cough, feeling feverish and general malaise for the past week. She reports that she is eating and drinking well. Upon examination, her temperature is 37.1°C and her chest is clear. Her tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. She has no significant medical history except for carpal tunnel syndrome. Based on her Fever PAIN score, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Safety net and review in 1 week if no improvement
Explanation:Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use in Pharyngitis
Pharyngitis, or sore throat, is a common reason for patients to seek medical attention. However, not all cases of pharyngitis require antibiotics. In fact, inappropriate antibiotic use can lead to antibiotic resistance and other negative outcomes. To help providers determine which patients with pharyngitis have streptococcal pharyngitis, the FeverPAIN Score was developed.
The FeverPAIN Score assesses five factors: fever, presence of pus, how quickly symptoms attenuate, inflamed tonsils, and cough. A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection, while a score of 4 or more is associated with a high likelihood. For patients with a score of 2 or 3, delayed antibiotic use may be appropriate.
In the case of a woman with inflamed tonsils, her FeverPAIN Score indicates that antibiotics are not necessary. However, it is important to safety net patients and review their condition in one week if there is no improvement. By using the FeverPAIN Score, providers can make informed decisions about antibiotic use in pharyngitis and help reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 10
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A 48-year-old woman presents with a 10-day history of fever, sinus pain and fullness, bilateral yellow nasal discharge and difficulty smelling. Prior to this episode she describes having a minor cold, with sore throat and clear nasal discharge. She has no past medical history. On examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C and there is mild tenderness to palpation over the maxillofacial area. There are no nasal polyps. Her throat appears normal.
What should be included in the management of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Managing Acute Sinusitis: Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use
Acute sinusitis is a common condition that can cause discomfort and pain. Self-care measures such as paracetamol or ibuprofen can be used to manage symptoms of pain or fever. However, if symptoms persist for around ten days or more without improvement, a high-dose nasal corticosteroid may be prescribed for 14 days. While nasal corticosteroids may improve symptoms, they are not likely to affect how long they last and could cause systemic effects.
IV antibiotics should only be used in severe cases of systemic infection, intraorbital or periorbital complications, or intracranial complications. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses have shown that antibiotics, when compared with placebo, did not significantly increase the proportion of people in whom symptoms were cured or improved at 3–5 days follow-up. At 7–15 days follow-up, moderate quality evidence showed a statistically significant difference in effectiveness, but the clinical difference was small. This was not evident in the longer term.
For acute sinusitis following a cold, symptoms for <10 days are more commonly associated with a cold rather than viral or bacterial acute sinusitis. Prolonged symptoms (for around ten days or more without improvement) can be caused by either viral (more likely) or bacterial acute sinusitis. Only 0.5–2% of viral sinusitis is complicated by bacterial infection. Even then bacterial sinusitis is usually self-limiting and does not routinely need antibiotics. There is no evidence that topical antibiotics are useful in acute or chronic sinusitis. Understanding Treatment Options and Antibiotic Use for Acute Sinusitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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