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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male librarian presents with sudden loss of hearing in both ears. There is no ear pain, history of recent upper respiratory tract infection or history of trauma. He has no past medical history of note and does not take any regular prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Tuning fork testing suggests right side sensorineural hearing loss. Examination of the auditory canals and tympanic membranes is unremarkable, as is neurological examination. He is referred to the acute ear, nose and throat (ENT) clinic. Audiometry reveals a 40 db hearing loss in the right ear at multiple frequencies.
      Which of the following represents the most appropriate initial management plan?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent computed tomography (CT) of the head

      Correct Answer: Arrange an urgent magnetic resonance (MR) of the brain

      Explanation:

      Management of Sudden Sensorineural Hearing Loss

      Sudden sensorineural hearing loss (SSNHL) is a medical emergency that requires urgent evaluation and management. Patients with unexplained sudden hearing loss should be referred to an ENT specialist and offered an MRI scan. A CT scan may also be indicated to rule out stroke, although it is unlikely to cause unilateral hearing loss.

      Antiviral medication such as acyclovir is not recommended unless there is evidence of viral infection. Antibiotics are also not indicated unless there is evidence of bacterial infection.

      The mainstay of treatment for SSNHL is oral prednisolone, which should be started as soon as possible and continued for 14 days. While the cause of SSNHL is often unknown, it is important to consider a wide range of differential diagnoses, including trauma, drugs, space-occupying lesions, autoimmune inner ear disease, and many other conditions. Prompt evaluation and treatment can improve the chances of recovery and prevent further hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.1
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  • Question 2 - A 38-year-old man presents with a one-month history of feeling a lump in...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old man presents with a one-month history of feeling a lump in his throat. The feeling comes and goes and has not progressed. He has no difficulty swallowing food or liquids; in fact, eating and drinking help to relieve the symptoms. He has not lost weight. He is a non-smoker. He was recently diagnosed with gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) and is taking a proton pump inhibitor. He also has chronic sinusitis, for which he takes a steroid nasal spray.
      Examination is normal, without cervical lymphadenopathy.
      What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Globus pharyngeus

      Explanation:

      Globus pharyngeus is a condition where patients feel a painless lump at the back of their throat. The cause of this condition is unknown, but it is often attributed to anxiety, pharyngeal spasm, reflux disease, or hiatus hernia. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions such as thyroid disorders or cancer before diagnosing globus pharyngeus. An oesophageal ring is a benign structure at the lower end of the oesophagus that can cause swallowing difficulties. While not always symptomatic, patients may experience regurgitation and food obstruction. A diagnosis is confirmed through upper gastrointestinal endoscopy to rule out more serious causes such as oesophageal cancer. Achalasia is a disorder of the oesophagus where the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax, causing difficulty swallowing and regurgitation. A barium swallow and manometry can confirm the diagnosis. Eosinophilic oesophagitis is an allergic reaction that causes pain and heartburn upon swallowing, as well as vomiting and loss of appetite. Laryngeal squamous cell carcinoma is a type of head and neck cancer associated with smoking and other carcinogens. Symptoms include hoarseness, coughing, difficulty swallowing, and systemic signs of distant metastases. However, the patient in question had no warning signs or risk factors for this type of cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      4.6
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  • Question 3 - A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with an enlarging neck mass. His mother had a right adrenal phaeochromocytoma which was successfully removed. The patient is 1.9m tall and weighs 74 kg. During examination, the doctor notices multiple yellowish white masses on the patient's lips and tongue. Three months later, the patient undergoes a total thyroidectomy. Which structure is innervated by the nerve most at risk during this procedure, and is also part of the vagus nerve?

      Your Answer: Aortic arch

      Explanation:

      The aortic arch has baroreceptors that send afferent fibers to the vagus nerve. A patient with an enlarging neck mass, a family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2B (MEN2B), and a marfanoid habitus may have medullary carcinoma of the thyroid, which is a feature of MEN2B. Surgery is the definitive treatment, but the recurrent laryngeal nerve, a branch of the vagus nerve, is at risk during thyroidectomy. The chorda tympani innervates the taste sensation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, while the lingual nerve and hypoglossal nerve innervate the general somatic sensation and motor function, respectively. The platysma muscle is innervated by cranial nerve VII, and the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX) carries general visceral afferent information from the carotid sinus to the brainstem. The spinal accessory nerve (cranial nerve XI) innervates both the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles.

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      • ENT
      5.8
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  • Question 4 - A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling like...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling like there is a lump in her throat. She reports an itching sensation, but no pain. The symptoms are intermittent and not related to swallowing solids or liquids, and there is no persistent hoarseness. She also reports feeling anxious and tired. There is no significant family history. She was a heavy smoker between the ages of 22-32 but has since quit smoking and drinking. Her blood profile and thyroid function tests show the following results:
      - Haemoglobin: 98 g/l (normal range: 115-165 g/l)
      - Mean corpuscular value: 75 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      - Thyroid stimulating hormone: 2.2 mU/L (normal range: 0.45-4.1 mU/L)

      What is the most appropriate initial investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Naso-endoscopy

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing globus sensation, but before being discharged, it is important to rule out any serious conditions. Given the patient’s history of smoking and anemia, a naso-endoscopy should be performed as an initial investigation. If the results are clear, the patient can be reassured and discharged. A CT neck is not necessary at this time unless the endoscopy results are inconclusive. A barium swallow would only be appropriate if a tumor was suspected, making it a second-line investigation. An ultrasound of the neck would only be necessary if a specific mass or thyroid issue was suspected, which is not the case here. Globus sensation can typically be diagnosed through a clinical examination and a ridged endoscopy. Overall, the initial investigation should focus on ruling out any serious conditions before considering further tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      6.5
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  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hearing loss and ringing in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of hearing loss and ringing in her ears for the past six months. She experienced this after being hospitalized for two weeks due to a soft tissue infection that was complicated by a bloodstream infection caused by methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. During her hospital stay, she was treated with flucloxacillin, gentamicin, and vancomycin. The tinnitus is present in both ears, and her ear and neurological examinations are normal. What is the probable underlying cause of this patient's tinnitus?

      Your Answer: Ototoxic medication

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of hearing loss and tinnitus

      Gentamicin-induced ototoxicity

      A patient presenting with bilateral tinnitus and hearing loss after recent use of gentamicin is likely experiencing ototoxicity from this antibiotic. Gentamicin can damage the vestibular system and cause sensorineural hearing loss.

      Bacteraemia and viral labyrinthitis

      Bacteraemia, especially from methicillin-resistant S. aureus, would not cause tinnitus. Viral labyrinthitis may cause tinnitus, but it is usually accompanied by severe vertigo and hearing loss.

      Hyperlipidaemia and noise-induced hearing loss

      Hyperlipidaemia, particularly hypertriglyceridaemia, has been linked to an increased risk of noise-induced hearing loss and tinnitus. A low-cholesterol diet and atorvastatin may help alleviate these symptoms.

      Ménière’s disease and betahistine

      Ménière’s disease is a disorder of the inner ear characterized by excess endolymph, leading to severe vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus. Betahistine is a medication used to manage the symptoms of Ménière’s disease, but there is no cure for this condition.

      Otosclerosis and conductive hearing loss

      Otosclerosis is a condition that affects the bony ossicles of the ear, leading to conductive hearing loss. It results from abnormal sclerosis of the malleus, incus, and stapes, which are crucial for sound conduction from the outer to the inner ear.

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      • ENT
      2.1
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  • Question 6 - A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient...

    Correct

    • A 12-year-old girl is brought to the Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) Outpatient Department by her mother who informs the Consultant of her repeated nosebleeds. She is an avid basketball player, and her mother has noticed multiple bruises after games. The Consultant goes through the list of recent laboratory investigations ordered by the girl’s Paediatrician. Full blood count (FBC), haemoglobin, platelet count, white blood cell count and clotting times [prothrombin time (PT), partial thromboplastin time (PTT)] were all found to be within normal values. Additional haematological test results were also normal, including activity assays for factor VIII and XIII, platelet aggregation assay and von Willebrand factor (vWF) antigen.
      Which of the following physical findings would give the most effective information regarding her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypermobility of fingers and toes

      Explanation:

      Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values

      Introduction:
      Bleeding problems with normal haematological values can be challenging to diagnose. This article discusses possible diagnoses for such cases based on physical findings.

      Hypermobility of Fingers and Toes:
      Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, a collagen-based disorder, is a possible diagnosis for bleeding problems with normal haematological values. This is associated with hypermobility of the fingers and toes, ocular cutaneous haemorrhages, joint hypermobility, and increased skin elasticity.

      Subconjunctival Haemorrhages:
      Subconjunctival haemorrhages can be caused by ocular or systemic factors. Systemic causes include hypertension, diabetes, and bleeding disorders. It is difficult to diagnose the specific cause without further investigation.

      Bruises in the Shins:
      Easy bruising of the skin can be attributed to platelet disorders, drugs, and hepatic disorders. However, since the coagulation profiles and levels of clotting factors are normal, it is difficult to diagnose the specific cause. Further investigation is necessary.

      Petechial Rashes on Pressure Sites:
      Petechial rashes, conjunctival haemorrhages, and bruising over the shins can indicate an associated bleeding disorder. However, normal haematological values make it difficult to diagnose a specific condition.

      Visual Acuity Defects and Albinism:
      Normal haematological values do not rule out bleeding disorders. Hermansky–Pudlak syndrome, an autosomal recessive condition, can cause visual acuity defects and albinism along with bleeding tendencies. However, the platelet aggregation assay is typically deranged in these cases, which is not the case in this scenario.

      Possible Diagnoses for Bleeding Problems with Normal Haematological Values and Associated Physical Findings

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      3.1
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with a swelling under the left jaw that comes and goes but leaves a dull ache behind. The problem has been present for around 2 weeks and is getting worse. The pain is most noticeable at mealtimes. In the last day, the swelling has become fixed and he reports an unpleasant taste in his mouth. He smokes five cigarettes a day and drinks ten units of alcohol a week, usually on a Saturday night. On examination, there is a smooth, tender swelling in the superior part of the left anterior triangle and, on inspection of the oral cavity, there is poor dentition and pus present just behind the lower incisors.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Submandibular gland infection

      Explanation:

      Submandibular Gland Infection: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      A submandibular gland infection is often caused by the presence of a stone in the left submandibular duct, which can lead to a secondary infection due to the stasis of gland secretions. Stones are more common in the submandibular gland due to the length and tortuosity of the duct. Symptoms include a smooth, tender swelling, pain worse at mealtimes, and pus behind the lower incisors. Management involves antibiotics to treat the infection and referral to an ENT or oral surgeon for stone removal, which can usually be done under local anesthesia. In some cases, excision of the entire submandibular gland may be necessary. It is important to note that the presence of bacterial infection indicates an ongoing issue beyond just the stone. Other conditions, such as gingivostomatitis and dental abscess, can cause similar symptoms but have different underlying causes. Mumps, on the other hand, can cause swelling of the parotid gland, not the submandibular gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      2.5
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  • Question 8 - A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old child, who was born in Germany, is brought to the General Practitioner (GP) by his mother because of recurrent sinus infections and failure to thrive. She is also concerned that the child has had diarrhoea for a few months, which is not resolving.
      During the examination, you notice several shiny, pink masses occupying the nasal canals.
      What is the most suitable initial step in treating this patient?

      Your Answer: Testing in which pilocarpine is administered

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Testing for Nasal Polyps in Children: The Role of Pilocarpine Sweat Test

      Nasal polyps in children should raise suspicion of cystic fibrosis (CF), especially when accompanied by other symptoms. The gold standard test for CF diagnosis is the sweat test, which involves administering the direct-acting muscarinic agonist pilocarpine and measuring the chloride content of sweat. Loratadine, a second-generation antihistamine, is not the first step in managing nasal polyps. Genetic testing is more expensive and time-consuming than the sweat test and is not the initial diagnostic choice. Biopsy is not necessary for benign nasal polyps. Bacterial culture is not relevant to the pathology underlying nasal polyps in children.

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      • ENT
      12.2
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with her husband who has noticed a gradual decrease in hearing on her left side over the past six months. She also reports difficulty walking and a tendency to lean towards the left side. Upon referral to the ENT Department, the Consultant observes nystagmus and dysdiadochokinesia, as well as sensorineural loss in her left ear. What is the most suitable diagnostic test for this patient?

      Your Answer: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acoustic Neuroma: An Overview

      Acoustic neuroma is a type of tumor that affects the vestibular nerve and can cause symptoms such as unilateral hearing loss and unsteady gait. To diagnose this condition, several diagnostic tests are available.

      Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the most reliable test for detecting acoustic neuroma, as it can detect tumors as small as 1-1.3 mm. MRI with gadolinium contrast is recommended in cases where brainstem testing is abnormal or there is a high suspicion of vestibular schwannoma.

      Plain computerized tomography (CT) scan can provide prognostic information on post-operative hearing loss, but it cannot detect all cases of acoustic neuroma. Otoscopy is of limited or no value in cases of sensorineural deafness.

      Pure tone audiometry (PTA) is the best initial screening test for acoustic neuroma, as only 5% of patients will have a normal test. Brainstem-evoked response audiometry can be used as a further screening measure in patients with unexplained asymmetries on standard audiometric testing.

      Vestibular testing has limited utility as a screening test for acoustic neuroma, but a decreased or absent caloric response on the affected side may be seen in some cases. Overall, a combination of these tests can help diagnose acoustic neuroma and guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      11.5
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  • Question 10 - A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old patient experiences a severe nose bleed after being hit directly in the nose during a rugby game. The bleeding is resolved with direct pressure and packing of the nose. Which vascular territory is most likely to have been impacted?

      Your Answer: Kiesselbach’s plexus

      Explanation:

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, can occur from two areas: the anterior bleed from the Kiesselbach’s plexus and the posterior bleed from the sphenopalatine artery. The former is usually caused by trauma, while the latter is due to underlying pathologies such as hypertension or old age.

      To manage epistaxis, direct pressure to the bleeding point, packing of the nose, or surgical ligation or selective embolisation of the relevant artery may be necessary. It is important to check clotting and haemoglobin levels, especially in significant episodes of epistaxis that may lead to considerable blood loss, which can be masked by ingestion of the blood into the digestive tract.

      It is worth noting that the nasal artery and the superficial temporal artery are not involved in epistaxis, while the zygomatic artery has no significant role in it. Understanding the causes and management of epistaxis can help individuals respond appropriately to this common medical condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      2.7
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

ENT (9/10) 90%
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