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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and sensitivity to light. She...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with right eye pain and sensitivity to light. She reports that the eye pain worsens when she reads or uses her computer. Her eye is excessively watery. During the examination, her right pupil is constricted, and there is noticeable redness around the iris. Her visual acuity is measured and found to be 6/6. She has a history of ankylosing spondylitis and takes a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medication.

      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      Anterior uveitis refers to the inflammation of the middle layer of the eye, which includes the iris and the ciliary body. If left untreated, it can lead to permanent damage and vision loss due to the development of conditions like glaucoma, cataract, or retinal edema.

      There are various causes of anterior uveitis, including eye trauma from being hit or having a foreign object in the eye. It can also be associated with inflammatory disorders such as ankylosing spondylitis.

      The clinical features of anterior uveitis are characterized by a red and sore eye, accompanied by pain that worsens when the ciliary muscles contract. Other symptoms include watering of the eye, blurred vision, sensitivity to light (photophobia), and a constricted or distorted pupil. The visual acuity may be normal or reduced.

      Overall, anterior uveitis is a condition that requires prompt attention and treatment to prevent further complications and preserve vision.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      40.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 7-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of blurred vision in her...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl presents with a 4-day history of blurred vision in her left eye. She is also experiencing eye pain and fatigue. On examination, her temperature is 38.0°C, but her other vital signs are normal. There is significant redness in the conjunctiva, and a collection of pus (hypopyon) is present in her left eye. Her visual acuity in that eye is reduced to counting fingers. She recently received a kitten as a pet from her parents.

      What is the SINGLE most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Toxocara canis

      Explanation:

      Toxocariasis is a rare infection caused by the parasitic roundworm Toxocara canis. The main way it spreads to humans is through contact with dog feces. However, practicing good hand hygiene can help prevent transmission. While most people who come into contact with Toxocara canis don’t show any symptoms, a small number may experience a mild flu-like illness.

      The most common presentation of toxocariasis is in children, who may experience unilateral visual loss. This loss of vision is typically caused by conditions such as vitritis, macular edema, and tractional retinal detachment. It is believed that these lesions occur due to a toxic or immunoallergic reaction to the larval antigens.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      61.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You assess a patient with a decreased potassium level.
    Which of the following is...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a patient with a decreased potassium level.
      Which of the following is NOT a known factor contributing to hypokalemia?

      Your Answer: Type 1 renal tubular acidosis

      Correct Answer: Type 4 renal tubular acidosis

      Explanation:

      Hypokalaemia, or low potassium levels, can be caused by various factors. One common cause is inadequate dietary intake, where a person does not consume enough potassium-rich foods. Gastrointestinal loss, such as through diarrhoea, can also lead to hypokalaemia as the body loses potassium through the digestive system. Certain drugs, like diuretics and insulin, can affect potassium levels and contribute to hypokalaemia.

      Alkalosis, a condition characterized by an imbalance in the body’s pH levels, can also cause hypokalaemia. Hypomagnesaemia, or low magnesium levels, is another potential cause. Renal artery stenosis, a narrowing of the arteries that supply blood to the kidneys, can lead to hypokalaemia as well.

      Renal tubular acidosis, specifically types 1 and 2, can cause hypokalaemia. These conditions affect the kidneys’ ability to regulate acid-base balance, resulting in low potassium levels. Conn’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome, and Gitelman’s syndrome are all rare inherited defects that can cause hypokalaemia. Bartter’s syndrome affects the ascending limb of the loop of Henle, while Gitelman’s syndrome affects the distal convoluted tubule of the kidney.

      Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis is another condition that can cause low potassium levels. Excessive ingestion of liquorice, a sweet treat made from the root of the liquorice plant, can result in hypokalaemia due to its impact on mineralocorticoid levels.

      It is important to note that while type 1 and 2 renal tubular acidosis cause hypokalaemia, type 4 renal tubular acidosis actually causes hyperkalaemia, or high potassium levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Nephrology
      39.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 3 year old girl who recently moved to the UK from Sierra...

    Correct

    • A 3 year old girl who recently moved to the UK from Sierra Leone is brought to the emergency department by her mother. The child developed a fever and a sore throat yesterday but today her condition has worsened. Upon examination, the patient is sitting forward, drooling, and there is a noticeable high-pitched breathing noise during inspiration. Additionally, the child's voice sounds muffled when she speaks to her mother. The patient's temperature is 38.8ºC and her pulse rate is 130 bpm.

      What is the most likely organism responsible for causing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae type B

      Explanation:

      The most likely organism responsible for causing this patient’s symptoms is Haemophilus influenzae type B. This is indicated by the patient’s symptoms of fever, sore throat, high-pitched breathing noise during inspiration, and muffled voice. These symptoms are consistent with epiglottitis, which is a severe infection of the epiglottis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. This bacterium is known to cause respiratory tract infections, and it is particularly common in young children.

      Further Reading:

      Epiglottitis is a rare but serious condition characterized by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, which can lead to a complete blockage of the airway. It is more commonly seen in children between the ages of 2-6, but can also occur in adults, particularly those in their 40s and 50s. Streptococcus infections are now the most common cause of epiglottitis in the UK, although other bacterial agents, viruses, fungi, and iatrogenic causes can also be responsible.

      The clinical features of epiglottitis include a rapid onset of symptoms, high fever, sore throat, painful swallowing, muffled voice, stridor and difficulty breathing, drooling of saliva, irritability, and a characteristic tripod positioning with the arms forming the front two legs of the tripod. It is important for healthcare professionals to avoid examining the throat or performing any potentially upsetting procedures until the airway has been assessed and secured.

      Diagnosis of epiglottitis is typically made through fibre-optic laryngoscopy, which is considered the gold standard investigation. Lateral neck X-rays may also show a characteristic thumb sign, indicating an enlarged and swollen epiglottis. Throat swabs and blood cultures may be taken once the airway is secured to identify the causative organism.

      Management of epiglottitis involves assessing and securing the airway as the top priority. Intravenous or oral antibiotics are typically prescribed, and supplemental oxygen may be given if intubation or tracheostomy is planned. In severe cases where the airway is significantly compromised, intubation or tracheostomy may be necessary. Steroids may also be used, although the evidence for their benefit is limited.

      Overall, epiglottitis is a potentially life-threatening condition that requires urgent medical attention. Prompt diagnosis, appropriate management, and securing the airway are crucial in ensuring a positive outcome for patients with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old male comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and a headache. The medical team records his vital signs and takes blood samples. The results are as follows:

      Blood pressure: 192/98 mmHg
      Pulse: 84 bpm
      Respiration rate: 17 bpm
      Temperature: 36.9ºC

      Sodium (Na+): 149 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+): 3.0 mmol/l
      Urea: 3.8 mmol/l
      Creatinine: 81 µmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is the leading endocrine cause of secondary hypertension, commonly affecting individuals between the ages of 30 and 50. It is characterized by metabolic alkalosis and often presents with hypernatraemia, although normal sodium levels can also be observed. When compared to pheochromocytoma, primary hyperaldosteronism is more frequently encountered. The diagnostic test of choice is the plasma aldosterone-to-renin ratio.

      Further Reading:

      Hyperaldosteronism is a condition characterized by excessive production of aldosterone by the adrenal glands. It can be classified into primary and secondary hyperaldosteronism. Primary hyperaldosteronism, also known as Conn’s syndrome, is typically caused by adrenal hyperplasia or adrenal tumors. Secondary hyperaldosteronism, on the other hand, is a result of high renin levels in response to reduced blood flow across the juxtaglomerular apparatus.

      Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex. It acts on the distal renal tubule and collecting duct of the nephron, promoting the reabsorption of sodium ions and water while secreting potassium ions.

      The causes of hyperaldosteronism vary depending on whether it is primary or secondary. Primary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by adrenal adenoma, adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal carcinoma, or familial hyperaldosteronism. Secondary hyperaldosteronism can be caused by renal artery stenosis, reninoma, renal tubular acidosis, nutcracker syndrome, ectopic tumors, massive ascites, left ventricular failure, or cor pulmonale.

      Clinical features of hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis, hypernatremia, polyuria, polydipsia, headaches, lethargy, muscle weakness and spasms, and numbness. It is estimated that hyperaldosteronism is present in 5-10% of patients with hypertension, and hypertension in primary hyperaldosteronism is often resistant to drug treatment.

      Diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism involves various investigations, including U&Es to assess electrolyte disturbances, aldosterone-to-renin plasma ratio (ARR) as the gold standard diagnostic test, ECG to detect arrhythmia, CT/MRI scans to locate adenoma, fludrocortisone suppression test or oral salt testing to confirm primary hyperaldosteronism, genetic testing to identify familial hyperaldosteronism, and adrenal venous sampling to determine lateralization prior to surgery.

      Treatment of primary hyperaldosteronism typically involves surgical adrenalectomy for patients with unilateral primary aldosteronism. Diet modification with sodium restriction and potassium supplementation may also be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      65.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child is brought in by ambulance. He has been experiencing seizures for the past 20 minutes. He has already received one dose of rectal diazepam from the ambulance crew while on the way. Intravenous access has been established, his bowel movement is 4.5, and he weighs 25 kg.

      Based on the current APLS guidelines, what would be the most suitable next course of action in managing his condition?

      Your Answer: IV lorazepam 2.5 mg

      Explanation:

      The current algorithm for treating a convulsing child, known as APLS, is as follows:

      Step 1 (5 minutes after the start of convulsion):
      If a child has been convulsing for 5 minutes or more, they should be given an initial dose of benzodiazepine. This can be administered intravenously (IV) or intraosseously (IO) if vascular access is available. Alternatively, buccal midazolam or rectal diazepam can be given if vascular access is not available.

      Step 2 (10 minutes after the start of step 1):
      If the convulsion continues for another 10 minutes, a second dose of benzodiazepine should be given. It is also important to seek senior help at this point.

      Step 3 (10 minutes after the start of step 2):
      At this stage, it is necessary to involve senior medical personnel to reassess the child and provide guidance on further management. The recommended approach is as follows:
      – If the child is not already receiving phenytoin, a phenytoin infusion should be initiated. This involves administering 20 mg/kg of phenytoin intravenously over a period of 20 minutes.
      – If the child is already taking phenytoin, phenobarbitone can be used instead. The recommended dosage is 20 mg/kg administered intravenously over 20 minutes.
      – In the meantime, rectal paraldehyde can be considered at a dose of 0.8 ml/kg of the 50:50 mixture while preparing the infusion.

      Step 4 (20 minutes after the start of step 3):
      If the child is still experiencing convulsions at this stage, it is crucial to have an anaesthetist present. A rapid sequence induction with thiopental is recommended for further management.

      In the case of this specific child who weighs 25 kg and has already received a dose of lorazepam, they should receive a second dose of 0.1 mg/kg, which amounts to 2.5 mg.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      63.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 7-year-old girl comes in with a painful throat and a dry cough...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl comes in with a painful throat and a dry cough that has been bothering her for two days. During the examination, she does not have a fever and has a few tender lymph nodes in the front of her neck. Her throat and tonsils look red and inflamed, but there is no pus on her tonsils.
      What is her FeverPAIN score?

      Your Answer: 2

      Explanation:

      The FeverPAIN score is a scoring system that is recommended by the current NICE guidelines for assessing acute sore throats. It consists of five items: fever in the last 24 hours, purulence, attendance within three days, inflamed tonsils, and no cough or coryza. Based on the score, different recommendations are given regarding the use of antibiotics.

      If the score is 0-1, it is unlikely to be a streptococcal infection, with only a 13-18% chance of streptococcus isolation. Therefore, antibiotics are not recommended in this case. If the score is 2-3, there is a higher chance (34-40%) of streptococcus isolation, so delayed prescribing of antibiotics is considered, with a 3-day ‘back-up prescription’. If the score is 4 or higher, there is a 62-65% chance of streptococcus isolation, and immediate antibiotic use is recommended if the infection is severe. Otherwise, a 48-hour short back-up prescription is suggested.

      The Fever PAIN score was developed from a study that included 1760 adults and children aged three and over. It was then tested in a trial that compared three different prescribing strategies: empirical delayed prescribing, using the score to guide prescribing, and combining the score with the use of a near-patient test (NPT) for streptococcus. The use of the score resulted in faster symptom resolution and a reduction in antibiotic prescribing, both by one third. However, the addition of the NPT did not provide any additional benefit.

      Overall, the FeverPAIN score is a useful tool for assessing acute sore throats and guiding antibiotic prescribing decisions. It has been shown to be effective in reducing unnecessary antibiotic use and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      164.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents with a severe exacerbation of his COPD. He has been given a loading dose of aminophylline and you now intend to establish a maintenance infusion. He weighs 70 kg.
      What is the appropriate maintenance infusion rate for him?

      Your Answer: 20 mg/hour

      Correct Answer: 25 mg/hour

      Explanation:

      The recommended daily oral dose for adults is 900 mg, which should be taken in 2-3 divided doses. For severe asthma or COPD, the initial intravenous dose is 5 mg/kg and should be administered over 10-20 minutes. This can be followed by a continuous infusion of 0.5 mg/kg/hour. In the case of a 50 kg individual, the appropriate infusion rate would be 25 mg/hour. It is important to note that the therapeutic range for aminophylline is narrow, ranging from 10-20 microgram/ml. Therefore, it is beneficial to estimate the plasma concentration of aminophylline during long-term treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      75.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department with a head...

    Correct

    • A 45 year old patient presents to the emergency department with a head laceration sustained following a fall while under the influence of alcohol. You determine to evaluate the patient's alcohol consumption. Which screening tool does NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) recommend for assessing risky drinking?

      Your Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      The AUDIT screening tool is recommended by NICE for identifying patients who may be at risk of hazardous drinking.

      Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a spectrum of disease that ranges from fatty liver at one end to alcoholic cirrhosis at the other. Fatty liver is generally benign and reversible with alcohol abstinence, while alcoholic cirrhosis is a more advanced and irreversible form of the disease. Alcoholic hepatitis, which involves inflammation of the liver, can lead to the development of fibrotic tissue and cirrhosis.

      Several factors can increase the risk of progression of ALD, including female sex, genetics, advanced age, induction of liver enzymes by drugs, and co-existent viral hepatitis, especially hepatitis C.

      The development of ALD is multifactorial and involves the metabolism of alcohol in the liver. Alcohol is metabolized to acetaldehyde and then acetate, which can result in the production of damaging reactive oxygen species. Genetic polymorphisms and co-existing hepatitis C infection can enhance the pathological effects of alcohol metabolism.

      Patients with ALD may be asymptomatic or present with non-specific symptoms such as abdominal discomfort, vomiting, or anxiety. Those with alcoholic hepatitis may have fever, anorexia, and deranged liver function tests. Advanced liver disease can manifest with signs of portal hypertension and cirrhosis, such as ascites, varices, jaundice, and encephalopathy.

      Screening tools such as the AUDIT questionnaire can be used to assess alcohol consumption and identify hazardous or harmful drinking patterns. Liver function tests, FBC, and imaging studies such as ultrasound or liver biopsy may be performed to evaluate liver damage.

      Management of ALD involves providing advice on reducing alcohol intake, administering thiamine to prevent Wernicke’s encephalopathy, and addressing withdrawal symptoms with benzodiazepines. Complications of ALD, such as intoxication, encephalopathy, variceal bleeding, ascites, hypoglycemia, and coagulopathy, require specialized interventions.

      Heavy alcohol use can also lead to thiamine deficiency and the development of Wernicke Korsakoff’s syndrome, characterized by confusion, ataxia, hypothermia, hypotension, nystagmus, and vomiting. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent progression to Korsakoff’s psychosis.

      In summary, alcoholic liver disease is a spectrum of disease that can range from benign fatty liver to irreversible cirrhosis. Risk factors for progression include female sex, genetics, advanced age, drug-induced liver enzyme induction, and co-existing liver conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      29.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 year old boy is brought into the emergency department by worried parents. The child's parents inform you that the patient has had a cough and a runny nose for about 2-3 days, but in the past 24 hours, he has developed a fever and started coughing up large quantities of green mucus. You suspect bacterial tracheitis. What is the most probable causative agent?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Croup, also known as laryngotracheobronchitis, is a respiratory infection that primarily affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough and can cause stridor (a high-pitched sound during breathing) and respiratory distress due to swelling of the larynx and excessive secretions. The majority of cases are caused by parainfluenza viruses 1 and 3. Croup is most common in children between 6 months and 3 years of age and tends to occur more frequently in the autumn.

      The clinical features of croup include a barking cough that is worse at night, preceded by symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection such as cough, runny nose, and congestion. Stridor, respiratory distress, and fever may also be present. The severity of croup can be graded using the NICE system, which categorizes it as mild, moderate, severe, or impending respiratory failure based on the presence of symptoms such as cough, stridor, sternal/intercostal recession, agitation, lethargy, and decreased level of consciousness. The Westley croup score is another commonly used tool to assess the severity of croup based on the presence of stridor, retractions, air entry, oxygen saturation levels, and level of consciousness.

      In cases of severe croup with significant airway obstruction and impending respiratory failure, symptoms may include a minimal barking cough, harder-to-hear stridor, chest wall recession, fatigue, pallor or cyanosis, decreased level of consciousness, and tachycardia. A respiratory rate over 70 breaths per minute is also indicative of severe respiratory distress.

      Children with moderate or severe croup, as well as those with certain risk factors such as chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, neuromuscular disorders, immunodeficiency, age under 3 months, inadequate fluid intake, concerns about care at home, or high fever or a toxic appearance, should be admitted to the hospital. The mainstay of treatment for croup is corticosteroids, which are typically given orally. If the child is too unwell to take oral medication, inhaled budesonide or intramuscular dexamethasone may be used as alternatives. Severe cases may require high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline.

      When considering the differential diagnosis for acute stridor and breathing difficulty, non-infective causes such as inhaled foreign bodies

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatric Emergencies
      1007.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a tongue that...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with fatigue, unintentional weight loss, and a tongue that appears beefy red.
      His blood test results are as follows:
      Hemoglobin (Hb): 7.4 g/dl (normal range: 11.5-15.5 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV): 115 fl (normal range: 80-100 fl)
      Platelets: 73 x 109/l (normal range: 150-400 x 109/l)
      Intrinsic factor antibodies: positive
      Blood film: shows anisocytosis
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12 deficiency

      Explanation:

      Pernicious anaemia is a condition that affects the stomach and is characterized by the loss of gastric parietal cells and impaired secretion of intrinsic factor (IF). IF is crucial for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum, and as a result, megaloblastic anaemia occurs. This condition is commonly seen in individuals who have undergone gastrectomy.

      The clinical manifestations of pernicious anaemia include weight loss, loss of appetite, fatigue, diarrhoea, and a distinct lemon-yellow skin color, which is caused by a combination of haemolytic jaundice and the paleness associated with anaemia. Other symptoms may include glossitis (inflammation of the tongue) and oral ulceration. Neurological symptoms can also occur, such as subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord and peripheral neuropathy. The earliest sign of central nervous system involvement is often the loss of position and vibratory sense in the extremities.

      When investigating pernicious anaemia, certain findings may be observed. These include macrocytic anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia, anisocytosis and poikilocytosis on a blood film, low serum B12 levels, elevated serum bilirubin levels (indicating haemolysis), the presence of intrinsic factor antibodies, and a positive Schilling test.

      The treatment for pernicious anaemia involves lifelong supplementation of vitamin B12, typically administered through intramuscular injections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      276.4
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by air ambulance after being stranded on...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old hiker is brought in by air ambulance after being stranded on a mountainside overnight. You conduct an ECG on the patient.
      Which of the following ECG alterations is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: Osborn wave

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia can lead to various abnormalities in the electrocardiogram (ECG). These abnormalities include bradyarrhythmias, the presence of a J wave (also known as an Osborn wave), and prolonged intervals such as PR, QRS, and QT. Additionally, shivering artefact and ventricular ectopics may be observed. In severe cases, hypothermia can even result in cardiac arrest, which can manifest as ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF), or asystole.

      One distinctive feature of hypothermia on an ECG is the appearance of a small extra wave immediately following the QRS complex. This wave, known as a J wave or Osborn wave, was named after the individual who first described it. Interestingly, this wave tends to disappear as the body temperature is warmed. Despite its recognition, the exact mechanism behind the presence of the J wave in hypothermia remains unknown.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      44.7
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 32 year old male arrives at the emergency department about 1 hour...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old male arrives at the emergency department about 1 hour after completing a SCUBA dive. The patient reports experiencing a headache, dizziness, and discomfort in the shoulders and knees. You inform the patient that you suspect he is suffering from 'the bends' and proceed to explain how gas bubbles expand in size as divers ascend and water pressure decreases. Which scientific principle describes the correlation between gas volume and absolute pressure?

      Your Answer: Boyle's law

      Explanation:

      Boyle’s law states that when the temperature remains constant, the volume of a gas is inversely related to its pressure. This means that as the pressure of a gas increases, its volume decreases, and vice versa. Mathematically, this relationship can be expressed as P1V1 = P2V2.

      Further Reading:

      Decompression illness (DCI) is a term that encompasses both decompression sickness (DCS) and arterial gas embolism (AGE). When diving underwater, the increasing pressure causes gases to become more soluble and reduces the size of gas bubbles. As a diver ascends, nitrogen can come out of solution and form gas bubbles, leading to decompression sickness or the bends. Boyle’s and Henry’s gas laws help explain the changes in gases during changing pressure.

      Henry’s law states that the amount of gas that dissolves in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas. Divers often use atmospheres (ATM) as a measure of pressure, with 1 ATM being the pressure at sea level. Boyle’s law states that the volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure. As pressure increases, volume decreases.

      Decompression sickness occurs when nitrogen comes out of solution as a diver ascends. The evolved gas can physically damage tissue by stretching or tearing it as bubbles expand, or by provoking an inflammatory response. Joints and spinal nervous tissue are commonly affected. Symptoms of primary damage usually appear immediately or soon after a dive, while secondary damage may present hours or days later.

      Arterial gas embolism occurs when nitrogen bubbles escape into the arterial circulation and cause distal ischemia. The consequences depend on where the embolism lodges, ranging from tissue ischemia to stroke if it lodges in the cerebral arterial circulation. Mechanisms for distal embolism include pulmonary barotrauma, right to left shunt, and pulmonary filter overload.

      Clinical features of decompression illness vary, but symptoms often appear within six hours of a dive. These can include joint pain, neurological symptoms, chest pain or breathing difficulties, rash, vestibular problems, and constitutional symptoms. Factors that increase the risk of DCI include diving at greater depth, longer duration, multiple dives close together, problems with ascent, closed rebreather circuits, flying shortly after diving, exercise shortly after diving, dehydration, and alcohol use.

      Diagnosis of DCI is clinical, and investigations depend on the presentation. All patients should receive high flow oxygen, and a low threshold for ordering a chest X-ray should be maintained. Hydration is important, and IV fluids may be necessary. Definitive treatment is recompression therapy in a hyperbaric oxygen chamber, which should be arranged as soon as possible. Entonox should not be given, as it will increase the pressure effect in air spaces.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      124.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old is brought into the emergency department after being discovered unresponsive in a neighbor's backyard. It is suspected that the patient had consumed alcohol at a nearby club and opted to walk home in the snowy conditions. The patient's temperature is documented as 27.8ºC. The nurse connects leads to conduct a 12-lead ECG. Which of the subsequent ECG alterations is most closely linked to hypothermia?

      Your Answer: Osborn waves

      Explanation:

      Hypothermia can cause various changes in an electrocardiogram (ECG). These changes include a slower heart rate (bradycardia), the presence of Osborn Waves (also known as J waves), a prolonged PR interval, a widened QRS complex, and a prolonged QT interval. Additionally, the ECG may show artifacts caused by shivering, as well as the presence of ventricular ectopics. In severe cases, hypothermia can lead to cardiac arrest, which may manifest as ventricular tachycardia (VT), ventricular fibrillation (VF), or asystole.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      22.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 45-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man is brought to the resuscitation area of your Emergency Department by ambulance. He has become increasingly unwell over the past few days with vomiting and diarrhea. His wife tells you that he was started on a medication by his GP six months ago for pain and stiffness around his shoulders, upper arms, and hips. She describes this medication as being '6 small blue tablets.' He has been unable to take these tablets for the past few days. On examination, he is pale and sweaty and appears confused. His observations are as follows: temperature 36.9°C, HR 140 bpm, BP 83/42, RR 24, SaO2 98% on 2 L oxygen, GCS 14. He has intravenous access in situ, and his BM stick glucose is 2.1.
      Which rheumatological condition is it most likely that his GP is treating?

      Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica

      Explanation:

      This patient has presented with an Addisonian crisis, which is a rare but potentially catastrophic condition if not diagnosed promptly. The most likely underlying rheumatological diagnosis in this case is polymyalgia rheumatica, and it is likely that the GP started the patient on prednisolone medication.

      Addison’s disease occurs when the adrenal glands underproduce steroid hormones, affecting the production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids. The main causes of Addison’s disease include autoimmune adrenalitis (accounting for 80% of cases), bilateral adrenalectomy, Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (hemorrhage into the adrenal glands), and tuberculosis.

      An Addisonian crisis is most commonly triggered by the deliberate or accidental withdrawal of steroid therapy in patients with Addison’s disease. Other factors that can precipitate a crisis include infection, trauma, myocardial infarction, cerebral infarction, asthma, hypothermia, and alcohol abuse.

      The clinical features of Addison’s disease include weakness, lethargy, hypotension (especially orthostatic hypotension), nausea, vomiting, weight loss, reduced axillary and pubic hair, depression, and hyperpigmentation (particularly in palmar creases, buccal mucosa, and exposed areas). In an Addisonian crisis, the main features are usually hypoglycemia and shock, characterized by tachycardia, peripheral vasoconstriction, hypotension, altered consciousness, and coma.

      Biochemically, Addison’s disease is characterized by increased ACTH levels (as a compensatory response to stimulate the adrenal glands), elevated serum renin levels, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, hypercalcemia, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Diagnostic investigations may include the Synacthen test, plasma ACTH level, plasma renin level, and adrenocortical antibodies.

      Management of Addison’s disease should be overseen by an Endocrinologist. Typically, patients require hydrocortisone, fludrocortisone, and dehydroepiandrosterone. Some patients may also need thyroxine if there is hypothalamic-pituitary disease present. Treatment is lifelong, and patients should carry a steroid card and a MedicAlert bracelet, being aware of the possibility of an Addisonian crisis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology & Hepatology
      126.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You review a 82-year-old woman currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU) after...

    Correct

    • You review a 82-year-old woman currently on the clinical decision unit (CDU) after presenting with mobility difficulties. Her daughter asks to have a chat with you as she concerned that her mother had lost all interest in the things she used to enjoy doing. She also mentions that her memory has not been as good as it used to be recently.
      Which of the following would support a diagnosis of dementia rather than depressive disorder? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: Urinary incontinence

      Explanation:

      Depression and dementia are both more prevalent in the elderly population and often coexist. Diagnosing these conditions can be challenging due to the overlapping symptoms they share.

      Depression is characterized by a persistent low mood throughout the day, significant unintentional weight changes, sleep disturbances, fatigue, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, difficulty concentrating, loss of interest in activities, and recurrent thoughts of death. It may also manifest as agitation or slowed movements, which can be observed by others.

      Dementia, on the other hand, refers to a group of symptoms resulting from a pathological process that leads to significant cognitive impairment. This impairment is more severe than what would be expected for a person’s age. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common form of dementia.

      Symptoms of dementia include memory loss, particularly in the short-term, changes in mood that are usually reactive to situations and improve with support and stimulation, infrequent thoughts about death, alterations in personality, difficulty finding the right words, struggles with complex tasks, urinary incontinence, loss of appetite and weight in later stages, and agitation in unfamiliar environments.

      By understanding the distinct features of depression and dementia, healthcare professionals can better identify and differentiate between these conditions in the elderly population.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Elderly Care / Frailty
      36.9
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 40-year-old man comes in with pain in his right testicle. He has...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old man comes in with pain in his right testicle. He has observed that it begins to ache around midday and becomes most severe by the end of the day. He has never fathered any children. He is in good overall health and has no record of experiencing nausea, vomiting, or fever.
      What is the MOST PROBABLE single diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Varicocele

      Explanation:

      A Varicocele is a condition characterized by the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more commonly found in the left testis than in the right and may be associated with infertility. The increased temperature caused by the varicosities is believed to be the reason for this. Symptoms include a dull ache in the testis, which tends to worsen after exercise or towards the end of the day. The presence of Varicocele can often be observed during a standing examination. Treatment usually involves conservative measures, although surgery may be necessary in severe cases.

      A hydrocoele can occur at any age and is characterized by the accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. It presents as swelling in the scrotum, which can be palpated above. The surface of the hydrocoele is smooth and it can be transilluminated. The testis is contained within the swelling and cannot be felt separately. Primary or secondary causes can lead to the development of a hydrocoele. In adults, an ultrasound is typically performed to rule out secondary causes, such as an underlying tumor. Conservative management is often sufficient unless the hydrocoele is large.

      Testicular cancer is the most common cancer affecting men between the ages of 20 and 34. Recent campaigns have emphasized the importance of self-examination for early detection. Risk factors include undescended testes, which increase the risk by 10 times if bilateral. A previous history of testicular cancer carries a 4% risk of developing a second cancer. The usual presentation is a painless lump in the testis, which can also manifest as a secondary hydrocoele. Approximately 60% of cases are seminomas, which are slow-growing and typically confined to the testis at the time of diagnosis. Stage 1 seminomas have a 98% 5-year survival rate. Teratomas, which can grow more rapidly, account for 40% of cases and can occur alongside seminomas. Mixed type tumors are treated as teratomas due to their higher aggressiveness. Surgical intervention, with or without chemotherapy and radiotherapy, is the primary treatment approach.

      Epididymo-orchitis refers to inflammation of the testis and epididymis caused by an infection. The most common viral agent is mumps, while gonococci and coliforms are the most common bacterial agent.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 21 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his...

    Correct

    • A 21 year old male is brought to the emergency department by his mother. The patient had been out drinking with friends at a bar but after an argument his friends left in a cab and the patient decided to walk the 10 miles home intoxicated. The outside air temperature was -2ºC. His mother went out looking for him and found him shivering on the way home. A core temperature is recorded as 32.3ºC. Which of the following best describes this patient?

      Your Answer: Mild hypothermia

      Explanation:

      Mild hypothermia is indicated by core temperatures ranging from 32-35ºC.

      Further Reading:

      Hypothermia is defined as a core temperature below 35ºC and can be graded as mild, moderate, severe, or profound based on the core temperature. When the core temperature drops, the basal metabolic rate decreases and cell signaling between neurons decreases, leading to reduced tissue perfusion. This can result in decreased myocardial contractility, vasoconstriction, ventilation-perfusion mismatch, and increased blood viscosity. Symptoms of hypothermia progress as the core temperature drops, starting with compensatory increases in heart rate and shivering, and eventually leading to bradyarrhythmias, prolonged PR, QRS, and QT intervals, and cardiac arrest.

      In the management of hypothermic cardiac arrest, ALS should be initiated with some modifications. The pulse check during CPR should be prolonged to 1 minute due to difficulty in obtaining a pulse. Rewarming the patient is important, and mechanical ventilation may be necessary due to stiffness of the chest wall. Drug metabolism is slowed in hypothermic patients, so dosing of drugs should be adjusted or withheld. Electrolyte disturbances are common in hypothermic patients and should be corrected.

      Frostbite refers to a freezing injury to human tissue and occurs when tissue temperature drops below 0ºC. It can be classified as superficial or deep, with superficial frostbite affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, and deep frostbite affecting bones, joints, and tendons. Frostbite can be classified from 1st to 4th degree based on the severity of the injury. Risk factors for frostbite include environmental factors such as cold weather exposure and medical factors such as peripheral vascular disease and diabetes.

      Signs and symptoms of frostbite include skin changes, cold sensation or firmness to the affected area, stinging, burning, or numbness, clumsiness of the affected extremity, and excessive sweating, hyperemia, and tissue gangrene. Frostbite is diagnosed clinically and imaging may be used in some cases to assess perfusion or visualize occluded vessels. Management involves moving the patient to a warm environment, removing wet clothing, and rapidly rewarming the affected tissue. Analgesia should be given as reperfusion is painful, and blisters should be de-roofed and aloe vera applied. Compartment syndrome is a risk and should be monitored for. Severe cases may require surgical debridement of amputation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      97.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You examine a 60-year-old woman with known presbycusis affecting both ears equally.
    Which SINGLE...

    Correct

    • You examine a 60-year-old woman with known presbycusis affecting both ears equally.
      Which SINGLE combination of examination findings would you anticipate discovering?

      Your Answer: Central Weber’s test and bilaterally diminished Rinne’s tests

      Explanation:

      presbycusis is a type of hearing loss that occurs gradually as a person ages. It affects both ears and is characterized by a decrease in hearing ability, particularly at higher frequencies. This type of hearing loss worsens over time. When a person has bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, a central Weber’s test and bilaterally diminished Rinne’s tests would be expected.

      To perform a Rinne’s test, a 512 Hertz tuning fork is vibrated and placed on the mastoid process until the sound can no longer be heard. Then, the top of the tuning fork is placed 2 centimeters from the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to indicate where they hear the sound loudest.

      In individuals with normal hearing, the tuning fork should still be audible outside the external auditory canal even after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This is because air conduction should be better than bone conduction.

      In cases of conductive hearing loss, the patient will no longer be able to hear the tuning fork immediately after it can no longer be heard on the mastoid. This indicates that their bone conduction is better than their air conduction, and something is obstructing the passage of sound waves through the ear canal into the cochlea. This is considered a true negative result.

      However, a Rinne’s test may produce a false negative result if the patient has a severe unilateral sensorineural deficit and can sense the sound in the unaffected ear through the transmission of sound waves through the base of the skull.

      In sensorineural hearing loss, the ability to perceive the tuning fork both on the mastoid and outside the external auditory canal is equally diminished compared to the opposite ear. The sound will still be heard outside the external auditory canal, but it will disappear earlier on the mastoid process and outside the external auditory canal compared to the other ear.

      To perform Weber’s test, a 512 Hz tuning fork is vibrated and placed on the center of the patient’s forehead. The patient is then asked if they perceive the sound in the middle of the forehead or if it seems to be more on one side or the other.

      If the sound seems to be more on one side, it can indicate either ipsilateral conductive hearing loss or contralateral sensorineural hearing loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      113.7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 72 year old male comes to the emergency department with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 72 year old male comes to the emergency department with complaints of vertigo. What signs would indicate a central cause?

      Your Answer: Negative head impulse test

      Explanation:

      A patient with central vertigo would typically show a normal head impulse test result, indicating a normal vestibulo-ocular reflex. However, they would likely have an abnormal alternate cover test result, with a slight vertical correction, suggesting a central lesion like a stroke. A positive Romberg’s test can identify instability related to vertigo but cannot differentiate between peripheral and central causes. On the other hand, a positive Unterberger’s test indicates labyrinth dysfunction but does not indicate a central cause.

      Further Reading:

      Vertigo is a symptom characterized by a false sensation of movement, such as spinning or rotation, in the absence of any actual physical movement. It is not a diagnosis itself, but rather a description of the sensation experienced by the individual. Dizziness, on the other hand, refers to a perception of disturbed or impaired spatial orientation without a false sense of motion.

      Vertigo can be classified as either peripheral or central. Peripheral vertigo is more common and is caused by problems in the inner ear that affect the labyrinth or vestibular nerve. Examples of peripheral vertigo include BPPV, vestibular neuritis, labyrinthitis, and Meniere’s disease. Central vertigo, on the other hand, is caused by pathology in the brain, such as in the brainstem or cerebellum. Examples of central vertigo include migraine, TIA and stroke, cerebellar tumor, acoustic neuroma, and multiple sclerosis.

      There are certain features that can help differentiate between peripheral and central vertigo. Peripheral vertigo is often associated with severe nausea and vomiting, hearing loss or tinnitus, and a positive head impulse test. Central vertigo may be characterized by prolonged and severe vertigo, new-onset headache, recent trauma, cardiovascular risk factors, inability to stand or walk with eyes open, focal neurological deficit, and a negative head impulse test.

      Nystagmus, an involuntary eye movement, can also provide clues about the underlying cause of vertigo. Central causes of vertigo often have nystagmus that is direction-changing on lateral gaze, purely vertical or torsional, not suppressed by visual fixation, non-fatigable, and commonly large amplitude. Peripheral causes of vertigo often have horizontal nystagmus with a torsional component that does not change direction with gaze, disappears with fixation of the gaze, and may have large amplitude early in the course of Meniere’s disease or vestibular neuritis.

      There are various causes of vertigo, including viral labyrinthitis, vestibular neuritis, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, Meniere’s disease, vertebrobasilar ischemia, and acoustic neuroma. Each of these disorders has its own unique characteristics and may be associated with other symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, or neurological deficits.

      When assessing a patient with vertigo, it is important to perform a cardiovascular and neurological examination, including assessing cranial nerves, cerebellar signs, eye movements, gait, coordination, and evidence of peripheral neuropathy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      262.3
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance in the management...

    Correct

    • You are summoned to the resuscitation room to provide assistance in the management of a 48-year-old woman who was saved from a residential fire. The initial evaluation reveals signs and symptoms consistent with a diagnosis of cyanide poisoning. Which of the following antidotes would be suitable for administering to this patient?

      Your Answer: Hydroxocobalamin

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Emergency Medicine (RCEM) recognizes four antidotes that can be used to treat cyanide poisoning: Hydroxycobalamin, Sodium thiosulphate, Sodium nitrite, and Dicobalt edetate. When managing cyanide toxicity, it is important to provide supportive treatment using the ABCDE approach. This includes administering supplemental high flow oxygen, providing hemodynamic support (including the use of inotropes if necessary), and administering the appropriate antidotes. In the UK, these four antidotes should be readily available in Emergency Departments according to the RCEM/NPIS guideline on antidote availability. Hydroxocobalamin followed by sodium thiosulphate is generally the preferred treatment if both options are available. Healthcare workers should be aware that patients with cyanide poisoning may expel HCN through vomit and skin, so it is crucial to use appropriate personal protective equipment when caring for these patients.

      Further Reading:

      Burn injuries can be classified based on their type (degree, partial thickness or full thickness), extent as a percentage of total body surface area (TBSA), and severity (minor, moderate, major/severe). Severe burns are defined as a >10% TBSA in a child and >15% TBSA in an adult.

      When assessing a burn, it is important to consider airway injury, carbon monoxide poisoning, type of burn, extent of burn, special considerations, and fluid status. Special considerations may include head and neck burns, circumferential burns, thorax burns, electrical burns, hand burns, and burns to the genitalia.

      Airway management is a priority in burn injuries. Inhalation of hot particles can cause damage to the respiratory epithelium and lead to airway compromise. Signs of inhalation injury include visible burns or erythema to the face, soot around the nostrils and mouth, burnt/singed nasal hairs, hoarse voice, wheeze or stridor, swollen tissues in the mouth or nostrils, and tachypnea and tachycardia. Supplemental oxygen should be provided, and endotracheal intubation may be necessary if there is airway obstruction or impending obstruction.

      The initial management of a patient with burn injuries involves conserving body heat, covering burns with clean or sterile coverings, establishing IV access, providing pain relief, initiating fluid resuscitation, measuring urinary output with a catheter, maintaining nil by mouth status, closely monitoring vital signs and urine output, monitoring the airway, preparing for surgery if necessary, and administering medications.

      Burns can be classified based on the depth of injury, ranging from simple erythema to full thickness burns that penetrate into subcutaneous tissue. The extent of a burn can be estimated using methods such as the rule of nines or the Lund and Browder chart, which takes into account age-specific body proportions.

      Fluid management is crucial in burn injuries due to significant fluid losses. Evaporative fluid loss from burnt skin and increased permeability of blood vessels can lead to reduced intravascular volume and tissue perfusion. Fluid resuscitation should be aggressive in severe burns, while burns <15% in adults and <10% in children may not require immediate fluid resuscitation. The Parkland formula can be used to calculate the intravenous fluid requirements for someone with a significant burn injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      67.4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of increased wheezing over the past...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a history of increased wheezing over the past two days. She suffers from seasonal allergies in the spring months, which has been worse than usual over recent weeks. When auscultating her chest, you can hear scattered polyphonic wheezes. Her peak flow at presentation was 275 L/min, and her best ever peak flow is 500 L/min. After a single salbutamol nebulizer, her peak flow improves to 455 L/min, and she feels much better.
      Which of the following drug treatments should be administered next?

      Your Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      This individual has presented with an episode of acute asthma. Upon assessment, his initial peak flow is measured at 55% of his personal best, indicating a moderate exacerbation. In such cases, it is recommended to administer steroids, with a suggested dose of prednisolone 40-50 mg taken orally as the initial management step.

      Currently, the use of nebulized magnesium sulfate is not recommended for the treatment of acute asthma in adults. However, according to the current ALS guidelines, in severe or life-threatening asthma cases, IV aminophylline can be considered after seeking senior advice. If used, a loading dose of 5 mg/kg should be given over 20 minutes, followed by an infusion of 500-700 mcg/kg/hour. It is important to maintain serum theophylline levels below 20 mcg/ml to prevent toxicity.

      In situations where inhaled therapy is not possible, such as when a patient is receiving bag-mask ventilation, IV salbutamol can be considered at a slow dose of 250 mcg. However, it should be noted that there is currently no evidence supporting the use of leukotriene receptor antagonists, like montelukast, in the management of acute asthma.

      The BTS guidelines classify acute asthma into four categories: moderate, acute severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal. Moderate asthma is characterized by increasing symptoms and a peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) between 50-75% of the individual’s best or predicted value, with no features of acute severe asthma. Acute severe asthma is identified by a PEFR of 33-50% of the best or predicted value, along with respiratory rate >25/min, heart rate >110/min, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath.

      Life-threatening asthma is indicated by a PEFR <33% of the best or predicted value, SpO2 <92%, PaO2 <8 kPa, normal PaCO2 (4.6-6.0 kPa), and additional symptoms such as silent chest, cyanosis, poor respiratory effort, arrhythmia, exhaustion, altered conscious level, or hypotension. Near-fatal asthma is characterized by raised PaCO2 and/or the need for mechanical ventilation with raised inflation pressures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      50.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes in with intense one-sided abdominal pain starting in the left flank and extending to the groin. You suspect a diagnosis of ureteric colic.
      What is the preferred imaging technique for confirming the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Non-contrast helical computed tomography

      Explanation:

      The term renal colic is commonly used to describe a sudden and intense pain in the lower back caused by a blockage in the ureter, which is the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder. However, a more accurate term is ureteric colic, as the pain usually arises from a blockage in the ureter itself.

      Renal or ureteric colic typically presents with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain on one side, starting in the lower back or flank and radiating to the genital area in women or to the groin or testicle in men.

      The pain usually:
      – Lasts for minutes to hours and comes in spasms, with periods of no pain or a dull ache
      – Is often accompanied by nausea, vomiting, and blood in the urine
      – Is often described as the most intense pain a person has ever experienced (many women describe it as worse than childbirth).

      People with renal or ureteric colic:
      – Are restless and unable to find relief by lying still (which helps distinguish it from peritonitis)
      – May have a history of previous episodes
      – May have a fever and sweating if there is a urinary tract infection present
      – May complain of painful urination, frequent urination, and straining when the stone reaches the junction between the ureter and bladder (due to irritation of the bladder muscle).

      If possible, a urine dipstick test should be done to support the diagnosis and check for signs of a urinary tract infection.

      Checking for blood in the urine can also support the diagnosis of renal or ureteric colic. However, the absence of blood does not rule out the diagnosis and other causes of pain should be considered.

      Checking for nitrite and leukocyte esterase in the urine can indicate an infection.

      Pain management:
      – Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are the first-line treatment for adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.
      – Intravenous paracetamol can be given to adults, children, and young people if NSAIDs are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Opioids may be considered if both NSAIDs and intravenous paracetamol are not suitable or not providing enough pain relief.
      – Antispasmodics should not be given to adults, children, and young people with suspected renal colic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Urology
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills...

    Correct

    • A 22-year-old arrives at the emergency department after ingesting a combination of pills following a heated dispute with their partner. The patient reports consuming approximately 30 tablets of various types, which were obtained from their partner's grandparents. However, the patient is unaware of the specific names of the tablets. You contemplate administering activated charcoal. What accurately describes the mechanism of action of activated charcoal?

      Your Answer: Absorbs poisons onto its surface by weak electrostatic forces

      Explanation:

      Activated charcoal prevents the absorption of poisons by absorbing them onto its surface through weak electrostatic forces.

      Further Reading:

      Poisoning in the emergency department is often caused by accidental or intentional overdose of prescribed drugs. Supportive treatment is the primary approach for managing most poisonings. This includes ensuring a clear airway, proper ventilation, maintaining normal fluid levels, temperature, and blood sugar levels, correcting any abnormal blood chemistry, controlling seizures, and assessing and treating any injuries.

      In addition to supportive treatment, clinicians may need to consider strategies for decontamination, elimination, and administration of antidotes. Decontamination involves removing poisons from the skin or gastrointestinal tract. This can be done through rinsing the skin or using methods such as activated charcoal, gastric lavage, induced emesis, or whole bowel irrigation. However, induced emesis is no longer commonly used, while gastric lavage and whole bowel irrigation are rarely used.

      Elimination methods include urinary alkalinization, hemodialysis, and hemoperfusion. These techniques help remove toxins from the body.

      Activated charcoal is a commonly used method for decontamination. It works by binding toxins in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing their absorption. It is most effective if given within one hour of ingestion. However, it is contraindicated in patients with an insecure airway due to the risk of aspiration. Activated charcoal can be used for many drugs, but it is ineffective for certain poisonings, including pesticides (organophosphates), hydrocarbons, strong acids and alkalis, alcohols (ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol), iron, lithium, and solvents.

      Antidotes are specific treatments for poisoning caused by certain drugs or toxins. For example, cyanide poisoning can be treated with dicobalt edetate, hydroxocobalamin, or sodium nitrite and sodium thiosulphate. Benzodiazepine poisoning can be treated with flumazanil, while opiate poisoning can be treated with naloxone. Other examples include protamine for heparin poisoning, vitamin K or fresh frozen plasma for warfarin poisoning, fomepizole or ethanol for methanol poisoning, and methylene blue for methemoglobinemia caused by benzocaine or nitrates.

      There are many other antidotes available for different types of poisoning, and resources such as TOXBASE and the National Poisons Information Service (NPIS) can provide valuable advice on managing poisonings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      51.6
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman comes in with a painful, red left eye and sensitivity to light. She also reports seeing floaters and experiencing a dull, throbbing headache. She is currently being evaluated by the rheumatology team for persistent pain and stiffness in her upper back and discomfort in her buttocks and thighs. Her eye appears red, and a hypopyon is visible.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Anterior uveitis

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is anterior uveitis, which refers to inflammation of the iris. It typically presents with symptoms such as a painful and red eye, sensitivity to light, excessive tearing, and decreased visual clarity. The photo above shows a possible indication of this condition, with the presence of pus in the front chamber of the eye, known as hypopyon.

      Anterior uveitis can have various causes, including idiopathic cases where no specific cause is identified. Other potential triggers include trauma, chronic joint diseases like spondyloarthropathies and juvenile chronic arthritis, inflammatory bowel disease, psoriasis, sarcoidosis, and infections such as Lyme disease, tuberculosis, leptospirosis, herpes simplex virus (HSV), and varicella-zoster virus (VZV). Additionally, certain malignancies like non-Hodgkin lymphoma, ocular melanoma, and retinoblastoma can be associated with anterior uveitis.

      It is worth noting that there is a strong link between the HLA-B27 genotype and anterior uveitis, with approximately 50% of patients having this genetic marker. In this particular case, the likely underlying diagnosis is ankylosing spondylitis, a condition characterized by chronic pain and stiffness in the mid-spine area and sacroiliitis. It is important to mention that around 30% of men with unilateral uveitis will be found to have ankylosing spondylitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      24.9
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  • Question 26 - A 9-month-old girl comes in with a significant haemarthrosis in her left knee...

    Correct

    • A 9-month-old girl comes in with a significant haemarthrosis in her left knee after falling while trying to stand up using a side table. Her mother mentions that her older sister has a bleeding disorder and has also had haemarthrosis before.
      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemophilia A

      Explanation:

      Haemophilia is a collection of genetic disorders that are inherited and lead to impaired blood clotting. Haemophilia A specifically occurs when there is a deficiency of factor VIII and is typically passed down as a recessive trait on the X chromosome.

      The initial signs of haemophilia A usually appear around 6 months of age when infants start crawling, although it can manifest later. Bleeding can occur either spontaneously or as a result of trauma. One key indicator of haemophilia is bleeding into muscles and joints, known as haemarthrosis. While gastrointestinal and cerebral bleeding can also happen, they are less common occurrences.

      Based on the symptoms described, the most likely diagnosis from the given options would be Haemophilia A, especially when there is a combination of haemarthrosis and an older brother with the same disorder.

      Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is a condition where the immune system causes a decrease in platelet count. Antibodies target the glycoprotein IIb-IIIa or Ib complex. Acute ITP is more prevalent in children and affects both sexes equally. Chronic ITP, on the other hand, is more common in young to middle-aged women. Unlike haemophilia, ITP typically presents with symptoms such as nosebleeds, oral bleeding, purpura, or petechiae, rather than haemarthrosis. Additionally, ITP is not an inherited disorder.

      Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency is an inherited disorder that follows an X-linked recessive pattern. It is characterized by a defect in the G6PD enzyme, which plays a crucial role in red blood cell metabolism. Most individuals with G6PD deficiency do not experience symptoms. However, haemolytic crisis can occur in response to factors like illness (especially infection and diabetic ketoacidosis), certain medications (such as specific antibiotics, antimalarials, sulphonamides, and aspirin), or certain foods (notably fava beans).

      Von Willebrand disease (vWD) is the most common hereditary coagulation disorder, affecting approximately 1 in 100 individuals. It arises from a deficiency in Von Willebrand factor (vWF), which leads to reduced levels of factor VIII. vWF is responsible for protecting factor VIII from rapid breakdown in the blood and is also necessary for platelet adhesion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      64.4
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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department due to severe headaches, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain. Shortly after arrival, she experiences a seizure and collapses. Her husband mentions that she has been receiving treatment for hypertension during the pregnancy.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It is characterized by the occurrence of one or more convulsions on top of pre-eclampsia. To control seizures in eclampsia, the recommended treatment is magnesium sulphate. The Collaborative Eclampsia Trial regimen should be followed for administering magnesium sulphate. Initially, a loading dose of 4 g should be given intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 1 g per hour for 24 hours. If the woman experiences another eclamptic seizure, the infusion should be continued for an additional 24 hours after the last seizure. In case of recurrent seizures, a further dose of 2-4 g should be administered intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. It is important to note that the only cure for eclampsia is the delivery of the fetus and placenta. Once the patient is stabilized, she should be prepared for an emergency caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      32.7
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of depression arrives at the Emergency Department after intentionally overdosing on the medication she takes for her heart condition. She informs you that she consumed verapamil SR 160 mg tablets approximately 30 minutes ago. However, her spouse discovered her immediately and promptly brought her to the hospital. Currently, she shows no symptoms. Typically, how much time passes before symptoms begin to manifest in cases of this overdose?

      Your Answer: 1-2 hours

      Correct Answer: 12-16 hours

      Explanation:

      Calcium-channel blocker overdose is a serious condition that should always be taken seriously as it can be potentially life-threatening. The two most dangerous types of calcium channel blockers in overdose are verapamil and diltiazem. These medications work by binding to the alpha-1 subunit of L-type calcium channels, which prevents the entry of calcium into the cells. These channels play a crucial role in the functioning of cardiac myocytes, vascular smooth muscle cells, and islet beta-cells.

      Significant toxicity can occur with the ingestion of more than 10 tablets of verapamil (160 mg or 240 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules) or diltiazem (180 mg, 240 mg or 360 mg immediate or sustained-release capsules). In children, even 1-2 tablets of immediate or sustained-release verapamil or diltiazem can be harmful. Symptoms usually appear within 1-2 hours of taking standard preparations, but with slow-release versions, the onset of severe toxicity may be delayed by 12-16 hours, with peak effects occurring after 24 hours.

      The main clinical manifestations of calcium-channel blocker overdose include nausea and vomiting, low blood pressure, slow heart rate and first-degree heart block, heart muscle ischemia and stroke, kidney failure, pulmonary edema, and high blood sugar levels.

      When managing a patient with calcium-channel blocker overdose, certain bedside investigations are crucial. These include checking blood glucose levels, performing an electrocardiogram (ECG), and obtaining an arterial blood gas sample. Additional investigations that can provide helpful information include assessing urea and electrolyte levels, conducting a chest X-ray to check for pulmonary edema, and performing an echocardiography.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology & Poisoning
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 10 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her...

    Correct

    • A 10 year old female is brought to the emergency department by her father due to frequent nosebleeds from the left nostril. The father informs you that this is the fourth nosebleed in the past week. After removing blood-soaked tissue paper from the left nostril, you observe clotted blood on the septum and floor of the left nostril. The right nostril appears normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Discharge with prescription for Naseptin cream to be applied to the nostrils four times daily for 10 days and give written epistaxis advice

      Explanation:

      Naseptin, a topical antiseptic cream containing chlorhexidine and neomycin, has been found to be just as effective as silver nitrate cautery in treating recurrent nosebleeds in children. This means that using Naseptin can help prevent future nosebleeds in children with this condition. It is important to note that silver nitrate cautery can cause more pain and should only be used if a specific bleeding vessel can be identified.

      Further Reading:

      Epistaxis, or nosebleed, is a common condition that can occur in both children and older adults. It is classified as either anterior or posterior, depending on the location of the bleeding. Anterior epistaxis usually occurs in younger individuals and arises from the nostril, most commonly from an area called Little’s area. These bleeds are usually not severe and account for the majority of nosebleeds seen in hospitals. Posterior nosebleeds, on the other hand, occur in older patients with conditions such as hypertension and atherosclerosis. The bleeding in posterior nosebleeds is likely to come from both nostrils and originates from the superior or posterior parts of the nasal cavity or nasopharynx.

      The management of epistaxis involves assessing the patient for signs of instability and implementing measures to control the bleeding. Initial measures include sitting the patient upright with their upper body tilted forward and their mouth open. Firmly pinching the cartilaginous part of the nose for 10-15 minutes without releasing the pressure can also help stop the bleeding. If these measures are successful, a cream called Naseptin or mupirocin nasal ointment can be prescribed for further treatment.

      If bleeding persists after the initial measures, nasal cautery or nasal packing may be necessary. Nasal cautery involves using a silver nitrate stick to cauterize the bleeding point, while nasal packing involves inserting nasal tampons or inflatable nasal packs to stop the bleeding. In cases of posterior bleeding, posterior nasal packing or surgery to tie off the bleeding vessel may be considered.

      Complications of epistaxis can include nasal bleeding, hypovolemia, anemia, aspiration, and even death. Complications specific to nasal packing include sinusitis, septal hematoma or abscess, pressure necrosis, toxic shock syndrome, and apneic episodes. Nasal cautery can lead to complications such as septal perforation and caustic injury to the surrounding skin.

      In children under the age of 2 presenting with epistaxis, it is important to refer them for further investigation as an underlying cause is more likely in this age group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose & Throat
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient with a known history of COPD who...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a 68-year-old patient with a known history of COPD who has come to the emergency department due to worsening shortness of breath and a cough producing green sputum. An arterial blood gas is obtained and the results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.31
      pO2 9.1 kPa
      pCO2 6.5 kPa
      Bicarbonate 32 mmol/l
      Base Excess +4

      The patient is given immediate doses of prednisone and amoxicillin, and nebulized salbutamol is administered. After one hour of treatment, a repeat blood gas is obtained with the patient receiving 40% inspired oxygen via venturi. The results are as follows:

      Parameter Result
      pH 7.27
      pO2 9.0 kPa
      pCO2 7.2 kPa
      Bicarbonate 33 mmol/l
      Base Excess +5

      Which of the following interventions would be the most appropriate to implement next?

      Your Answer: Non-invasive ventilation

      Explanation:

      According to the brit-thoracic guidelines, if a patient with COPD continues to experience respiratory acidosis even after receiving standard medical therapy for one hour, it is recommended to consider using non-invasive ventilation (NIV). This is especially important if the patient’s hypoxia and hypercapnia are worsening despite the initial treatment.

      Further Reading:

      Arterial blood gases (ABG) are an important diagnostic tool used to assess a patient’s acid-base status and respiratory function. When obtaining an ABG sample, it is crucial to prioritize safety measures to minimize the risk of infection and harm to the patient. This includes performing hand hygiene before and after the procedure, wearing gloves and protective equipment, disinfecting the puncture site with alcohol, using safety needles when available, and properly disposing of equipment in sharps bins and contaminated waste bins.

      To reduce the risk of harm to the patient, it is important to test for collateral circulation using the modified Allen test for radial artery puncture. Additionally, it is essential to inquire about any occlusive vascular conditions or anticoagulation therapy that may affect the procedure. The puncture site should be checked for signs of infection, injury, or previous surgery. After the test, pressure should be applied to the puncture site or the patient should be advised to apply pressure for at least 5 minutes to prevent bleeding.

      Interpreting ABG results requires a systematic approach. The core set of results obtained from a blood gas analyser includes the partial pressures of oxygen and carbon dioxide, pH, bicarbonate concentration, and base excess. These values are used to assess the patient’s acid-base status.

      The pH value indicates whether the patient is in acidosis, alkalosis, or within the normal range. A pH less than 7.35 indicates acidosis, while a pH greater than 7.45 indicates alkalosis.

      The respiratory system is assessed by looking at the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2). An elevated pCO2 contributes to acidosis, while a low pCO2 contributes to alkalosis.

      The metabolic aspect is assessed by looking at the bicarbonate (HCO3-) level and the base excess. A high bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate alkalosis, while a low bicarbonate concentration and base excess indicate acidosis.

      Analyzing the pCO2 and base excess values can help determine the primary disturbance and whether compensation is occurring. For example, a respiratory acidosis (elevated pCO2) may be accompanied by metabolic alkalosis (elevated base excess) as a compensatory response.

      The anion gap is another important parameter that can help determine the cause of acidosis. It is calculated by subtracting the sum of chloride and bicarbonate from the sum of sodium and potassium.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      59.5
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ophthalmology (3/3) 100%
Nephrology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose & Throat (4/4) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Neurology (2/2) 100%
Respiratory (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology & Hepatology (2/2) 100%
Paediatric Emergencies (0/1) 0%
Haematology (2/2) 100%
Environmental Emergencies (3/3) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Elderly Care / Frailty (1/1) 100%
Urology (2/2) 100%
Pharmacology & Poisoning (2/3) 67%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
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