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  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man presents to the general practitioner (GP) with visual complaints in the right eye. He intermittently loses vision in the right eye, which he describes as a curtain vertically across his visual field. Each episode lasts about two or three minutes. He denies eye pain, eye discharge or headaches.
      His past medical history is significant for poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia.
      On examination, his pupils are of normal size and reactive to light. There is no scalp tenderness. Blood test results are pending, and his electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes.
      A provisional diagnosis of amaurosis fugax (AG) is being considered.
      Given this diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Transient Vision Loss: Aspirin, Prednisolone, Warfarin, High-Flow Oxygen, and Propranolol

      Transient vision loss can be a symptom of various conditions, including giant-cell arthritis (temporal arthritis) and transient retinal ischaemia. The appropriate treatment depends on the underlying cause.

      For transient retinal ischaemia, which is typically caused by atherosclerosis of the ipsilateral carotid artery, antiplatelet therapy with aspirin is recommended. Patients should also be evaluated for cardiovascular risk factors and considered for ultrasound of the carotid arteries.

      Prednisolone is used to treat giant-cell arthritis, which is characterised by sudden mononuclear loss of vision, jaw claudication, and scalp tenderness. However, if the patient does not have scalp tenderness or jaw claudication, oral steroids would not be indicated.

      Warfarin may be considered in patients with underlying atrial fibrillation and a high risk of embolic stroke. However, it should typically be bridged with a heparin derivative to avoid pro-thrombotic effects in the first 48-72 hours of use.

      High-flow oxygen is used to treat conditions like cluster headaches, which present with autonomic manifestations. If the patient does not have any autonomic features, high-flow oxygen would not be indicated.

      Propranolol can be used in the prophylactic management of migraines, which can present with transient visual loss. However, given the patient’s atherosclerotic risk factors and description of visual loss, transient retinal ischaemia is a more likely diagnosis.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for transient vision loss depends on the underlying cause and should be tailored to the individual patient’s needs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      68.7
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  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient presents after trauma and exhibits a lack of sensation in the anatomical snuff box. Which nerve is likely responsible for this sensory loss?

      Your Answer: Radial nerve

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries and Their Effects

      Radial nerve injury causes a condition known as wrist drop, which is characterized by the inability to extend the wrist and fingers. This injury also results in varying degrees of sensory loss, with the anatomical snuffbox being a common area affected.

      On the other hand, median nerve injury leads to the loss of sensation in the thumb, index, middle, and lateral half of the ring finger. This condition can also cause weakness in the muscles that control the thumb, leading to difficulty in grasping objects.

      Lastly, ulnar nerve injury results in a claw hand deformity, where the fingers are flexed and cannot be straightened. This injury also causes a loss of sensation over the medial half of the ring finger and little finger.

      In summary, nerve injuries can have significant effects on the function and sensation of the hand. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are experienced to prevent further damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      42.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the possible reasons for having a small pupil?

      Your Answer: Third nerve palsy

      Correct Answer: Pontine haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Causes of Small and Dilated Pupils

      Small pupils can be caused by various factors such as Horner’s syndrome, old age, pontine hemorrhage, Argyll Robertson pupil, drugs, and poisons like opiates and organophosphates. Horner’s syndrome is a condition that affects the nerves in the face and eyes, resulting in a small pupil. Aging can also cause the pupils to become smaller due to changes in the muscles that control the size of the pupils. Pontine hemorrhage, a type of stroke, can also lead to small pupils. Argyll Robertson pupil is a rare condition where the pupils do not respond to light but do constrict when focusing on a near object. Lastly, drugs and poisons like opiates and organophosphates can cause small pupils.

      On the other hand, dilated pupils can also be caused by various factors such as Holmes-Adie (myotonic) pupil, third nerve palsy, drugs, and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol. Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition where one pupil is larger than the other and reacts slowly to light. Third nerve palsy is a condition where the nerve that controls the movement of the eye is damaged, resulting in a dilated pupil. Drugs and poisons like atropine, CO, and ethylene glycol can also cause dilated pupils. It is important to identify the cause of small or dilated pupils as it can be a sign of an underlying medical condition or poisoning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.8
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  • Question 4 - A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man with a history of cardiovascular disease presents with vertigo, difficulty swallowing, and unsteadiness of gait. Upon neurological assessment, he is found to have nystagmus with the quick phase towards the right side and ataxia of the right upper and lower limbs. He reports no hearing loss. There is a loss of pain and temperature sensation on the right side of the face, and the left side of the limbs and trunk. The patient exhibits drooping of the right side of the palate upon eliciting the gag reflex, as well as right-sided ptosis and miosis.

      Which vessel is most likely to be affected by thromboembolism given these clinical findings?

      Your Answer: The left anterior choroidal artery

      Correct Answer: The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery

      Explanation:

      Arterial Territories and Associated Syndromes

      The right posterior inferior cerebellar artery is commonly associated with lateral medullary syndrome, which presents with symptoms such as palatal drooping, dysphagia, and dysphonia. The right anterior choroidal artery, which supplies various parts of the brain, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, loss of sensation, and homonymous hemianopia when occluded. Similarly, occlusion of the left anterior choroidal artery can result in similar symptoms. The right labyrinthine artery, a branch of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, can cause unilateral deafness and vertigo when ischemia occurs. Finally, the right anterior inferior cerebellar artery can lead to ipsilateral facial paresis, vertigo, nystagmus, and hearing loss, as well as facial hemianaesthesia due to trigeminal nerve nucleus involvement. Understanding these arterial territories and associated syndromes can aid in diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old alcoholic is brought in after a fall. He has a deep cut on the side of his head and a witness tells the paramedics what happened. He opens his eyes when prompted by the nurses. He attempts to answer questions, but his speech is slurred and unintelligible. The patient pulls away from a trapezius pinch.
      What is the appropriate Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score for this patient?

      Your Answer: E3V3M3

      Correct Answer: E3V2M4

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a standardized tool used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness following a head injury. It measures the best eye, verbal, and motor responses and assigns a total score. A fully conscious patient will score 15/15, while the lowest possible score is 3/15 (a score of 0 is not possible).

      The GCS is calculated as follows: for eyes, a score of 4 is given if they open spontaneously, 3 if they open to speech, 2 if they open to pain, and 1 if they do not open. For verbal response, a score of 5 is given if the patient is oriented, 4 if they are confused, 3 if they use inappropriate words, 2 if they make inappropriate sounds, and 1 if there is no verbal response. For motor response, a score of 6 is given if the patient obeys commands, 5 if they localize pain, 4 if they withdraw from pain, 3 if they exhibit abnormal flexion, 2 if they exhibit abnormal extension, and 1 if there is no response.

      If the GCS score is 8 or below, the patient will require airway protection as they will be unable to protect their own airway. This usually means intubation. It is important to use the GCS to objectively measure a patient’s conscious state and provide a common language between clinicians when discussing a patient with a head injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to her general practitioner (GP) with unsteadiness on her feet and frequent falls of two days’ duration.
      On examination, she is noted to have loss of sensation and weakness of the proximal and distal muscles of the left lower limb. Her upper limbs and face have no weakness or sensory deficit.
      Her GP refers her to the nearest Stroke Unit for assessment and management. Computed tomography (CT) scan confirms a thromboembolic cerebrovascular accident.
      Which vessel is most likely to have been involved?

      Your Answer: The right anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch

      Correct Answer: The left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Role of Cerebral Arteries in Neurological Symptoms

      When assessing neurological symptoms, it is important to consider the involvement of different cerebral arteries. In the case of right-sided weakness and lower limb involvement without upper limb or facial signs, the left anterior cerebral artery distal to the anterior communicating branch is likely affected. This artery supplies the medial aspect of the frontal and parietal lobes, which includes the primary motor and sensory cortices for the lower limb and distal trunk.

      On the other hand, a left posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion is unlikely as it would not cause upper limb involvement or visual symptoms. Similarly, a right anterior cerebral artery distal occlusion would result in left-sided weakness and sensory loss in the lower limb.

      A main stem occlusion in the left middle cerebral artery would present with right-sided upper limb and facial weakness, as well as speech and auditory comprehension difficulties due to involvement of Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas.

      Finally, a right posterior cerebral artery proximal occlusion would cause visual field defects and contralateral loss of sensation, but not peripheral weakness on the right-hand side. Understanding the role of cerebral arteries in neurological symptoms can aid in accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      53.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents with symptoms including poor sleep. He reports an itching and crawling sensation affecting his legs with an overwhelming urge to move them. His wife reports that he tosses and turns all night, often pacing the room, and constantly rubs his legs. Things only improve with the break of dawn. He seems tired all day as a consequence of the disturbed sleep at night. The only past medical history of note is diverticular disease, from which he has been troubled by periodic iron deficiency anaemia. Neurological examination is unremarkable.

      Bloods:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 101 g/l (microcytic) 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 285 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 124 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Fasting glucose 5.8 mmol/l < 7 mmol/l
      Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical picture?

      Your Answer: Secondary restless legs syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Restless Legs Syndrome

      Restless legs syndrome (RLS) is a neurological disorder characterized by an irresistible urge to move the legs, often accompanied by unpleasant sensations. Here, we discuss the differential diagnosis for RLS in a patient with iron deficiency anaemia.

      Secondary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      In this case, the patient’s RLS is secondary to iron deficiency anaemia. Iron deficiency can cause RLS, and correcting the anaemia with iron supplementation may improve symptoms. Other causes of secondary RLS include peripheral neuropathy.

      Primary Restless Legs Syndrome:
      Primary RLS is a central nervous system disorder without known underlying cause. However, since this patient has a known precipitant for his RLS, it is more likely to be secondary.

      Alcohol Related Neuropathy:
      Alcohol-related neuropathy typically causes pain and motor loss, which is not seen in this patient.

      Nocturnal Cramps:
      Nocturnal cramps are unlikely to cause problems for the whole night and are typically short-lived.

      Diabetic Neuropathy:
      Diabetic neuropathy can cause burning or stinging sensations, but this patient’s fasting glucose level makes a diagnosis of diabetic neuropathy unlikely.

      In conclusion, RLS can have various causes, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying etiology. Treatment options include medications such as sedatives, anti-epileptic agents, and dopaminergic agents, as well as addressing any underlying conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about...

    Correct

    • A woman brings her middle-aged husband to see you. She is worried about his recent forgetfulness. She also reveals that he has been experiencing hallucinations of small children playing in the house. On examination, there is nothing significant to note except for a mild resting tremor in the hands (right > left).

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Lewy body dementia

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Types of Dementia: Lewy Body Dementia, Korsakoff’s Dementia, Alzheimer’s Disease, Multi-Infarct Dementia, and Pick’s Disease

      Lewy Body Dementia: This type of dementia is characterized by memory impairment and parkinsonism. It is caused by the build-up of Lewy bodies in the cerebral cortex and basal ganglia, resulting in a movement disorder similar to Parkinson’s disease and memory problems. Visual hallucinations are common, and symptoms often fluctuate. Treatment involves acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and levodopa, while neuroleptics are contraindicated.

      Korsakoff’s Dementia: This type of dementia is typically associated with alcohol misuse. Patients tend to confabulate and make up information they cannot remember.

      Alzheimer’s Disease: This is the most common type of dementia. However, visual hallucinations and resting tremor are not typical symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease.

      Multi-Infarct Dementia: This type of dementia is caused by problems that interrupt blood supply to the brain, such as multiple minor and major strokes. Risk factors include hypertension, diabetes, smoking, hypercholesterolemia, and cardiovascular disease.

      Pick’s Disease: Also known as fronto-temporal dementia, this type of dementia is characterized by the patient sometimes losing their inhibitions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • Which statement accurately describes acute compartment syndrome?

      Your Answer: Passive stretch of affected muscles exacerbates pain

      Explanation:

      Compartment Syndrome

      Compartment syndrome is a condition that occurs when the pressure within a muscle compartment increases to a level that exceeds arterial blood pressure. This can happen even without a fracture, such as in cases of crush injuries. The earliest and most reliable symptom of compartment syndrome is pain, which can be exacerbated by passive stretching of the muscles in the affected area. As the condition progresses, loss of peripheral pulses may occur, indicating that the pressure has reached a critical level.

      Treatment for compartment syndrome involves decompression of the affected compartment(s), including the skin. It is important to recognize the symptoms of compartment syndrome early on in order to prevent further damage and potential loss of function. By the signs and symptoms of this condition, individuals can seek prompt medical attention and receive the appropriate treatment to alleviate the pressure and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents with a 48-hour history of headache and malaise that has worsened in the last 6 hours. She has vomited twice and recently had a sore throat. Her general practitioner has been treating her with a topical anti-fungal cream for vaginal thrush. On examination, she is photophobic and has moderate neck stiffness. The Glasgow Coma Score is 15/15, and she has no focal neurological signs. Her temperature is 38.5 °C. A computed tomography (CT) brain scan is reported as ‘Normal intracranial appearances’. A lumbar puncture is performed and CSF results are as follows: CSF protein 0.6 g/l (<0.45), cell count 98 white cells/mm3, mainly lymphocytes (<5), CSF glucose 2.8 mmol/l (2.5 – 4.4 mmol/l), and blood glucose 4.3 mmol/l (3-6 mmol/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute bacterial meningitis

      Correct Answer: Acute viral meningitis

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Acute Viral Meningitis from Other Neurological Disorders

      Acute viral meningitis is characterized by mild elevation of protein, a mainly lymphocytic cellular reaction, and a CSF: blood glucose ratio of >50%. In contrast, bacterial meningitis presents with a polymorph leukocytosis, lower relative glucose level, and more severe signs of meningism. Tuberculous meningitis typically presents subacutely with very high CSF protein and very low CSF glucose. Fungal meningitis is rare and mainly occurs in immunocompromised individuals. Guillain–Barré syndrome, an autoimmune peripheral nerve disorder causing ascending paralysis, is often triggered by a recent viral illness but presents with focal neurological signs, which are absent in viral meningitis. Accurate diagnosis is crucial for appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      38
      Seconds

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Neurology (5/10) 50%
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