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  • Question 1 - A 10-year-old boy who plays rugby complains of pain to his knee; he...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy who plays rugby complains of pain to his knee; he says his kneecap feels as though it is out of place at these times.
      Which of the following is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patellar subluxation

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults

      Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults, and can be caused by a variety of conditions. Here are some of the most common causes:

      1. Patellar subluxation: This is a temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella, which can cause the knee to give way or feel like it’s moving out of place. Conservative treatment with physiotherapy and knee braces is usually effective, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.

      2. Chondromalacia patellae: This condition is caused by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella, and is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Physiotherapy to alter patella-femoral alignment is the main treatment, along with analgesics and ice packs.

      3. Osgood-Schlatter disease: This is a common cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of quadriceps, and is characterized by pain inferior to the patella. Treatment is with simple analgesics and ice packs.

      4. Osteochondritis dissecans: This condition is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface, and affects the knee in 75% of cases. It tends to present in teenagers and young adults, with vague and achy joint pain that is made worse by activity. Treatment depends on the severity of the condition, and may include surgery.

      Overall, knee pain in adolescents and young adults can be caused by a variety of conditions, and treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following causes of gastroenteritis has the lengthiest incubation period?

      Your Answer: Giardiasis

      Explanation:

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing night sweats...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing night sweats and hot flashes for the past year. She had her last menstrual period 20 months ago. The patient is currently undergoing treatment with tamoxifen for breast cancer. She reports no other symptoms but would like to receive medication to alleviate her hot flashes. What is the most suitable prescription for her?

      Your Answer: Venlafaxine

      Explanation:

      For patients with active hormone-responsive breast cancer, hormonal methods like HRT and tibolone are not recommended. Instead, non-hormonal methods like selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors and venlafaxine may be used to alleviate vasomotor symptoms of menopause. Topical estrogen can also be used to alleviate symptoms of vaginal atrophy, but it does not help with vasomotor symptoms. COCP is not a suitable treatment for menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor? ...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      When arms are extended, essential tremor worsens, but it improves with the use of alcohol and propranolol. This is an autosomal dominant condition.

      Understanding Essential Tremor

      Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.

      When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      6.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold....

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
      Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
      TSH 14.3 mu/l
      What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Repeat TFTs in 3 months

      Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od

      Explanation:

      The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.

      Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects

      Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.

      Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.

      While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.

      In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - Samantha is a 28-year-old who comes to your GP clinic seeking information about...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 28-year-old who comes to your GP clinic seeking information about cystic fibrosis. She is in a committed relationship and wants to start a family. Samantha mentions that her partner's family has a history of cystic fibrosis and she wants to know more about it. She has already done some research and knows that cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR) on chromosome 7. Samantha asks you to explain how cystic fibrosis is inherited.

      Can you help her understand the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?

      Your Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. The carrier frequency is estimated to be 1 in 25 individuals, while the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 2500 newborns. Having a positive family history is the only known risk factor for CF, and parents should receive appropriate counseling before conception or during pregnancy if they are carriers.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      440.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind her breastbone. The pain is not spreading to any other part of her body, and she denies feeling sweaty or experiencing nausea and vomiting. She reports that the pain worsens at night when she lies flat in bed and improves slightly when she sits up. She reveals that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for it. During auscultation, you hear scratchy, rubbing sounds that are most audible during systole. You decide to order an ECG to confirm the diagnosis. What ECG findings are you most likely to observe?

      Your Answer: Right bundle branch block

      Correct Answer: Saddle-shaped ST elevation

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes classic symptoms of pericarditis, including a sharp central chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, but worsened by lying flat or taking deep breaths. The patient’s past medical history of systemic lupus also increases the likelihood of pericarditis. On auscultation, scratchy, rubbing S1 and S2 sounds can be heard. The most likely ECG finding in this case is saddle shaped ST elevation, which is a hallmark of pericarditis. Other potential causes of ST elevation include STEMI and left bundle branch block, but these can be ruled out based on the symptoms and examination findings. Narrow peaking T waves are often seen in hyperkalaemia, but this is not the most likely ECG finding in this case.

      Understanding Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.

      To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.

      Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.

      Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      78.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
      Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topiramate

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      18.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old boy is brought to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of cough and wheeze, following a week of mild fever and coryzal symptoms. The infant appears otherwise healthy and has no significant medical history. Upon respiratory examination, diffuse wheezing is noted. Vital signs reveal:
      Respiratory rate 52/min
      Blood pressure 92/54 mmHg
      Temperature 38.2ºC
      Heart rate 120 bpm
      Oxygen saturation 96% on room air
      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this infant's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Supportive management only

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s respiratory distress worsened or their feeding was impacted, they would be admitted. It is important to note that amoxicillin is not effective in treating bronchiolitis, but may be used for uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia or acute otitis media. Dexamethasone is commonly used for croup, but this diagnosis is unlikely as the patient does not have a barking cough, hoarse voice, or inspiratory stridor. Inhaled racemic adrenaline is also used for croup. Nebulised salbutamol is not necessary for this patient as they are stable and require only supportive management.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      24.9
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  • Question 10 - A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a cough that has been producing green sputum and shortness of breath for the past three days. During the examination, the GP detects the presence of rhonchi. The patient's vital signs are stable. Given his medical history of type 2 diabetes, which is being managed with metformin, and heart failure, for which he is taking ramipril, bisoprolol, and furosemide, the GP suspects acute bronchitis. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Explanation:

      Antibiotics may be prescribed for acute bronchitis if the patient has co-existing co-morbidities or is at high risk of complications. NICE guidelines advise against the use of antibiotics for those who are not systemically very unwell and not at high risk of complications. However, if the patient is very unwell or at risk of complications, antibiotics should be offered. In this case, the patient’s age, diabetes, and heart failure put him at high risk, so antibiotics should be offered in accordance with NICE guidelines. While local guidelines should be consulted, NICE recommends oral doxycycline as the first-line treatment. Inhaled bronchodilators should not be offered unless the patient has an underlying airway disease such as asthma. Oral flucloxacillin is not commonly used for respiratory tract infections, and IV co-amoxiclav is not necessary in this stable patient who can be managed without admission.

      Acute bronchitis is a chest infection that typically resolves on its own within three weeks. It occurs when the trachea and major bronchi become inflamed, leading to swollen airways and the production of sputum. The primary cause of acute bronchitis is viral infection, with most cases occurring in the autumn or winter. Symptoms include a sudden onset of cough, sore throat, runny nose, and wheezing. While most patients have a normal chest examination, some may experience a low-grade fever or wheezing. It is important to differentiate acute bronchitis from pneumonia, which presents with different symptoms and chest examination findings.

      Diagnosis of acute bronchitis is typically based on clinical presentation, but CRP testing may be used to determine if antibiotic therapy is necessary. Management involves pain relief and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Antibiotics may be considered for patients who are systemically unwell, have pre-existing health conditions, or have a CRP level between 20-100mg/L. Doxycycline is the recommended first-line treatment, but it cannot be used in children or pregnant women. Alternatives include amoxicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD).
      Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

      Your Answer: Check the lipid profiles at 1 month

      Correct Answer: Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Therapy: Recommended Blood Tests and Timing

      Statin therapy is a common treatment for patients with high cholesterol levels, both for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. However, regular monitoring is necessary to ensure the treatment is effective and safe. Here are some recommended blood tests and their timing for monitoring statin therapy:

      Recommended Blood Tests and Timing for Monitoring Statin Therapy

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Within three months of starting high-intensity statin treatment, it is recommended to measure total cholesterol, HDL-cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol. The aim is to achieve a >40% reduction in non-HDL-cholesterol. LFTs should also be checked at this time and again at 12 months, unless clinically indicated.

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 12 months

      Both LFTs and the lipid profile should be checked at 12 months, but it is important to assess whether a suitable cholesterol level reduction has been achieved earlier in the process. This allows for discussion of adherence to medication, diet, and lifestyle measures, and consideration of increasing the dose.

      Check LFTs at 1 week

      Checking LFTs within a week of starting treatment is not necessary, as any liver abnormalities would be unlikely to develop so soon without the patient experiencing symptoms of acute liver disease.

      Check the lipid profiles at 1 month

      It takes approximately 6-8 weeks for a stable result in lipid reduction to be seen after starting a statin, so checking the lipid profile at 1 month is not appropriate.

      Check TFTs at 3 months

      There is no need to check thyroid function tests during statin therapy for monitoring purposes. However, patients with other conditions that justify TFTs should have them done as clinically appropriate.

      Regular monitoring of statin therapy through blood tests is crucial for ensuring the treatment is effective and safe for patients with high cholesterol levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      10.4
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  • Question 12 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of myalgia in the shoulder girdle and low-grade fevers that have persisted for three weeks. He also mentions experiencing a brief loss of vision in his left eye. Based on the probable diagnosis, what laboratory test would be the most effective for diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of polymyalgia rheumatica primarily relies on the detection of elevated inflammatory markers.

      Among the laboratory tests, the most valuable in diagnosing PMR is the measurement of ESR levels.
      Although CK and electromyography are commonly used in diagnosing muscle disorders, they may not be helpful in detecting PMR.
      While CPR and white cell count may show increased levels in PMR, they are not specific enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People

      Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 27-year-old man complains of back pain. What symptom may indicate a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man complains of back pain. What symptom may indicate a possible diagnosis of ankylosing spondylitis?

      Your Answer: Bone tenderness

      Correct Answer: Pain at night

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while pain at night may improve upon getting up. Clinical examination may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (more common in females).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      10.4
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with suspected dementia is referred by her General Practitioner to the Memory Clinic. A dementia blood screen is performed and is normal.
      What is an indication for performing structural neuroimaging (CT or MRI head) in the workup for investigating patients with dementia?

      Your Answer: Ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Neuroimaging in the Diagnosis of Dementia

      Neuroimaging plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of dementia and ruling out reversible causes of cognitive decline. Structural imaging should be offered to assist with subtype diagnosis and exclude other reversible conditions unless dementia is well established and the subtype is clear. In primary care, a blood screen is usually sent to exclude reversible causes, while in secondary care, neuroimaging is performed to provide information on aetiology to guide prognosis and management. Focal neurology and cardiovascular abnormalities are not indications for performing structural imaging of the brain. However, neuroimaging is required in the workup of dementia in all age groups, including patients over 75 years old and those under 65 years old with suspected early-onset dementia. The 2011 National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines state that structural imaging is essential in the investigation of dementia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old woman with a recent diagnosis of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (on echo) has a blood pressure (BP) of 160/95 mmHg. She is currently on lisinopril (maximum doses).
      Which of the following new agents would you add in?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      Medications for Heart Failure: Benefits and Guidelines

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management through medications. Among the drugs commonly used are bisoprolol, bendroflumethiazide, clopidogrel, spironolactone, and diltiazem.

      Bisoprolol and an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor are recommended for all heart failure patients as they have been shown to reduce mortality. Bendroflumethiazide and loop diuretics like furosemide can help alleviate symptoms but do not have a mortality benefit. Clopidogrel, on the other hand, is not indicated for heart failure but is used for vascular diseases like NSTEMI and stroke.

      Spironolactone is recommended for patients who remain symptomatic despite treatment with an ACE inhibitor and a b blocker. It is also beneficial for those with left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD) after a myocardial infarction (MI). However, diltiazem should be avoided in heart failure patients.

      According to NICE guidelines, b blockers and ACE inhibitors should be given to all LVSD patients unless contraindicated. Spironolactone can be added if symptoms persist. Proper medication management is crucial in improving outcomes for heart failure patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      15.5
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following antihypertensive agents controls blood pressure by blocking the peripheral...

    Correct

    • Which of the following antihypertensive agents controls blood pressure by blocking the peripheral α1 -adrenoceptor?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Mechanisms of Action of Antihypertensive Drugs

      Doxazosin is an a1-adrenergic receptor blocker that relaxes vascular smooth muscle tone, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure.

      Losartan is a selective angiotensin II receptor type 1 antagonist that reduces the end-organ response to angiotensin II, resulting in decreased total peripheral resistance and cardiac venous return.

      Minoxidil is a potassium channel opener that causes vasodilatation mainly in arterial resistance vessels, with significant hypertrichosis as a side effect.

      Methyldopa inhibits dopa decarboxylase, leading to reduced dopaminergic and adrenergic neurotransmission and a modest decrease in blood pressure. It also activates presynaptic central nervous system a2-adrenergic receptors, inhibiting sympathetic nervous system output.

      Clonidine activates presynaptic a2-receptors in the brain stem, decreasing peripheral vascular resistance and blood pressure by inhibiting the release of noradrenaline.

      Overall, these antihypertensive drugs work through different mechanisms to lower blood pressure and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old female presents for a follow-up after a medical termination of pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation. She is considering getting a Nexplanon implant. When is it appropriate to insert Nexplanon in this situation?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of...

    Correct

    • Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of women with diabetes?

      Your Answer: Microsomia

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia is more likely to occur in individuals with diabetes than microsomia.

      Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, occurring in 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.

      Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another potential complication, which can occur due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia, which leads to more neonatal jaundice, is also a possibility.

      Malformation rates may increase 3-4 fold, with sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) being some of the potential risks. Stillbirth is also a possibility. Hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may occur, and shoulder dystocia may cause Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      34.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis....

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: High-resolution CT scan

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke....

    Correct

    • An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.

      Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.

      Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      8.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old male patient visits his GP clinic with a complaint of painful blisters and ulcers on his glans, accompanied by pain during urination. He is sexually active and does not use protection during intercourse. His last unprotected sexual encounter was a week ago. What medication would be beneficial for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Male patients with gonorrhea typically experience urethral discharge and dysuria as symptoms, rather than painful ulcers.

      Understanding Genital Herpes

      Genital herpes is a viral infection caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV). There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital lesions respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The infection is characterized by painful genital ulceration, which may be accompanied by dysuria and pruritus. Primary infections are usually more severe than recurrent episodes and may present with systemic symptoms such as headache, fever, and malaise. Tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and urinary retention may also occur.

      To diagnose genital herpes, nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) are the preferred investigation method as they are considered superior to viral culture. HSV serology may be useful in certain situations, such as recurrent genital ulceration of unknown cause. Management of the infection involves general measures such as saline bathing, analgesia, and topical anaesthetic agents like lidocaine. Oral aciclovir is also prescribed, and some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir.

      In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes occurring after 28 weeks gestation may require an elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low. Understanding genital herpes and its management is crucial in preventing transmission and managing symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat. He reports a headache and has a cut on his occiput. He is alert, responsive to commands, and able to provide a detailed description of the incident.
      What is his Glasgow coma scale (GCS)?

      Your Answer: 15

      Explanation:

      The GCS score for this patient is 654, which stands for Motor (6 points), Verbal (5 points), and Eye opening (4 points). This scoring system is used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness and is commonly used in cases of head injury to monitor for changes in neurology. The patient in question has a perfect score for eye opening, is fully oriented in time, place, and person, and is able to obey commands, resulting in a motor score of 6.

      Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults

      The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.

      The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.

      The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.

      The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.

      The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.

      Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.6
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals...

    Incorrect

    • In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals over the age of 65?

      Your Answer: Glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Diseases and Conditions

      Age-related macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, senile cataract, and corneal abrasion are some of the most common eye diseases and conditions that affect people worldwide.

      Macular Degeneration

      Macular degeneration is a leading cause of irreversible vision loss in developed countries. The non-exudative (dry) form of the disease is the most common, characterized by the presence of drusen in the macular region. Dry AMD progresses slowly over decades, while the exudative (wet) form can cause rapid central visual loss and distortion.

      Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness. It is the most common cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years globally. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is rare within the first decade of a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus, but increases with disease duration.

      Glaucoma

      Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and can cause specific visual field defects over time. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type, and it is described as a chronic, progressive, and irreversible optic neuropathy. Glaucoma is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries.

      Senile Cataract

      Senile cataract is an age-related disease that causes gradual progressive thickening of the lens of the eye. It is the world’s leading cause of treatable blindness.

      Corneal Abrasion

      Corneal abrasion is a common eye injury that occurs due to a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or because of physical external forces. Most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, but deeper scratches can cause corneal infections, erosion, or scarring, leading to long-term vision problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with pallor, fatigue, weakness, palpitations and dyspnoea on exertion. His symptoms have come on quickly over the last three weeks. A full blood count is ordered and is suggestive of acute lymphoblastic myeloid leukaemia (AML).
      What Is the next most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bone marrow biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acute Myeloid Leukaemia

      Acute myeloid leukaemia (AML) is a type of blood cancer that affects the bone marrow. To diagnose AML, several diagnostic tests may be performed. The most common tests include a bone marrow biopsy, ultrasound scan of the abdomen, chest X-ray, computerised tomography (CT) scan of chest, abdomen and pelvis, and lumbar puncture.

      Bone Marrow Biopsy: This is the most important test for diagnosing AML. It involves extracting cells from the bone marrow and examining them under a microscope. AML is characterised by the presence of primitive myeloblasts and Auer rods in the bone marrow.

      Ultrasound Scan of the Abdomen: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the abdomen or spleen. If any enlarged lymph nodes are found, they may be biopsied to determine the extent of the leukaemia.

      Chest X-ray: This test is used to check for enlarged lymph nodes in the mediastinum.

      CT Scan of Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis: This test is not usually used as a first-line investigation for AML. However, once the diagnosis is confirmed, a CT scan may be used to assess for the presence of enlarged lymph nodes or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

      Lumbar Puncture: This test is not usually used in the diagnosis of AML unless it is suspected that the leukaemia cells are also present in the cerebrospinal fluid.

      In conclusion, a bone marrow biopsy is the most important test for diagnosing AML. Other tests may be used to determine the extent of the leukaemia or for planning purposes if radiotherapy is going to form part of the treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      14.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and lethargy. He has areas of skin hyperpigmentation and hypopigmentation consistent with vitiligo. His blood pressure is 96/58 mmHg. Laboratory tests reveal the following results, and treatment is initiated.
      Hemoglobin: 138 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      Platelets: 210 * 109/L (150-400)
      White blood cells: 11.5 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      Sodium: 133 mmol/L (135-145)
      Potassium: 5.8 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Urea: 6.5 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
      Creatinine: 95 µmol/L (55-120)
      C-reactive protein: 4 mg/L (<5)
      Fasting blood sugar: 4.4 mmol/L (4-7)

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Overnight dexamethasone suppression test

      Correct Answer: Short synacthen test

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is Addison’s disease based on their clinical presentation of hypotension, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, and electrolyte abnormalities. Immediate treatment with intravenous fluids and glucocorticoids is necessary. The best test to confirm the diagnosis is the short synacthen test, which measures cortisol levels after administering a stimulating hormone. The aldosterone renin ratio and overnight dexamethasone suppression test are not useful in this scenario. While the serum ACTH level can aid in the diagnosis, dynamic testing with suppression/stimulation is more accurate in endocrine conditions.

      Investigating Addison’s Disease: ACTH Stimulation Test and Serum Cortisol Levels

      When a patient is suspected of having Addison’s disease, the definitive investigation is an ACTH stimulation test, also known as a short Synacthen test. This involves measuring plasma cortisol levels before and 30 minutes after administering Synacthen 250ug IM. Adrenal autoantibodies, such as anti-21-hydroxylase, may also be demonstrated.

      However, if an ACTH stimulation test is not readily available, a 9 am serum cortisol level can be useful. A level of over 500 nmol/l makes Addison’s disease very unlikely, while a level of less than 100 nmol/l is definitely abnormal. A level between 100-500 nmol/l should prompt an ACTH stimulation test to be performed.

      It is important to note that around one-third of undiagnosed patients with Addison’s disease may also have associated electrolyte abnormalities, such as hyperkalaemia, hyponatraemia, hypoglycaemia, and metabolic acidosis. Therefore, it is crucial to investigate these patients thoroughly to ensure a proper diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      15.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department complaining of sudden shortness of breath. He recently returned from a backpacking trip in Australia and was previously healthy. He denies any other symptoms and is stable hemodynamically. He has no personal or family history of cancer, heart failure, or chronic lung disease. A D-Dimer test is performed and comes back elevated. A subsequent CTPA reveals a small pulmonary embolism without any signs of right-sided heart strain. The consultant believes that he can be managed as an outpatient with a DOAC and close monitoring. Which of the following scoring systems can aid in their decision-making process?

      Your Answer: CHA2DS2-VASc

      Correct Answer: PESI

      Explanation:

      The PESI score is suggested by BTS guidelines for identifying patients with pulmonary embolism who can be treated as outpatients. It predicts long-term morbidity and mortality in PE patients. The ABCD2 is used for triaging acute Transient Ischaemic Attack cases. The CHA2DS2-VASc score aids in deciding whether to start prophylactic anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation patients. The GRACE score estimates mortality in those who have had Acute Coronary Syndrome.

      Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.

      Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.

      In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.

      Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old male presents to his GP complaining of feeling unwell. He has a medical history of osteoarthritis and has been taking over-the-counter ibuprofen. Additionally, he has bipolar disorder and takes lithium and sodium valproate orally. He reports experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea, and blurred vision. On examination, his vital signs are normal, but he exhibits a coarse tremor and muscle twitching. Neurological examination reveals hyperreflexia, and his abdomen is mildly tender without signs of peritonitis. He mentions that he is fasting for religious reasons but continues to take all of his medication. What is the most likely cause of his current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Lithium toxicity

      Explanation:

      Lithium toxicity can cause symptoms such as diarrhoea, vomiting, abdominal pain, coarse tremor, weakness, seizures, muscle twitches, and blurred vision. This patient is likely experiencing lithium toxicity due to dehydration from fasting, resulting in high serum lithium levels. The normal range is 0.4-1.0, and toxicity symptoms occur when levels exceed 1.5. It is important to avoid non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medications like ibuprofen, as they can decrease lithium excretion. Common side effects of lithium include a fine tremor, metallic taste in the mouth, thirst, polyuria, and weight gain. Sodium valproate can cause hair loss, nausea, diarrhoea, weight gain, drowsiness, and a small increased risk of suicidal thoughts. Symptoms of sodium valproate toxicity include central nervous system depression, ataxia, tachycardia, and electrolyte disturbances. Although ibuprofen can cause gastrointestinal upset, it is not responsible for most of this patient’s symptoms and is therefore an incorrect answer.

      Understanding Lithium Toxicity

      Lithium is a medication used to stabilize mood in individuals with bipolar disorder and as an adjunct in refractory depression. However, it has a narrow therapeutic range of 0.4-1.0 mmol/L and a long plasma half-life, making it crucial to monitor its levels in the blood. Lithium toxicity occurs when the concentration exceeds 1.5 mmol/L, which can be caused by dehydration, renal failure, and certain medications such as diuretics, ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs, and metronidazole.

      Symptoms of lithium toxicity include a coarse tremor, hyperreflexia, acute confusion, polyuria, seizures, and even coma. It is important to manage toxicity promptly, as mild to moderate cases may respond to volume resuscitation with normal saline. However, severe cases may require hemodialysis to remove excess lithium from the body. Some healthcare providers may also use sodium bicarbonate to increase the alkalinity of the urine and promote lithium excretion, although evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited.

      In summary, understanding lithium toxicity is crucial for healthcare providers and individuals taking lithium. Monitoring lithium levels in the blood and promptly managing toxicity can prevent serious complications and ensure the safe use of this medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      83.2
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the...

    Correct

    • An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the first doctor to respond. A healthcare assistant on an observation round has found a 72-year-old man unresponsive. You perform a head tilt and chin lift and check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds while listening for breath sounds, but you detect neither.

      Telemetry attached to the patient shows sinus rhythm at a rate of 110 bpm. The crash team is being summoned, and the crash trolley is being brought to the bedside. You are unaware of any DNACPR orders.

      What is the most appropriate initial step?

      Your Answer: Start chest compressions at a rate of 30:2

      Explanation:

      For a patient in cardiac arrest with a non-shockable rhythm (pulseless-electrical activity), the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilation is 30:2. Therefore, the initial action should be to start chest compressions at this rate. Administering 1 mg adrenaline or 300 mg amiodarone is inappropriate as the first step. Adrenaline may be given once chest compressions have started. Amiodarone is only indicated for patients in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Delivering a single synchronised DC shock or three quick successive stacked unsynchronised DC shocks followed by 2 minutes of 30:2 compressions is incorrect for a patient in PEA, as these are only appropriate for a shockable rhythm while on telemetry.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      60.8
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP with symptoms of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing up to 8 bowel movements a day for the past 3 days, with blood present in his stool each time. He denies having a fever. Urgent blood tests reveal the following results:

      Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 384 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 16 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 2.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 58 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 109 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the initial treatment plan for this patient, given the severity of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Admit to hospital for IV steroids

      Explanation:

      When dealing with a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, it is important to evaluate the severity of the condition. In this case, the patient is experiencing more than six bloody stools per day, as well as systemic upset indicated by raised inflammatory markers and anaemia. This places him in the severe category. The first line of treatment would be IV corticosteroids, with IV ciclosporin as a second-line option if the steroids do not induce remission. Hospital admission for IV steroids is the appropriate course of action to induce remission, after which maintenance treatment can be assessed. For moderate extensive disease, oral aminosalicylate and oral steroids can be used. It would be inappropriate to send this patient home without any treatment, as he is clearly unwell and experiencing a flare of UC.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the most appropriate statement regarding GI bleeding caused by NSAID therapy?...

    Correct

    • What is the most appropriate statement regarding GI bleeding caused by NSAID therapy? Choose only one option from the list.

      Your Answer: It is due to depletion of mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Non-Steroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

      Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are commonly used to relieve pain and inflammation. However, there are several misconceptions about their side effects. Here are some clarifications:

      Clarifying Misconceptions about NSAIDs

      Misconception 1: NSAIDs cause gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding by depleting mucosal prostaglandin E (PGE) levels.

      Clarification: While it is true that NSAIDs can irritate the GI tract and reduce the levels of protective prostaglandins, not all NSAIDs have the same risk of causing GI bleeding. High-risk NSAIDs such as piroxicam have a higher prevalence of gastric side effects, while ibuprofen and diclofenac have lower rates. Additionally, GI bleeding can occur in patients without pre-existing peptic ulcers. Therefore, NSAIDs should be used at the lowest effective dose and for the shortest period possible.

      Misconception 2: NSAIDs cause GI bleeding only in patients with pre-existing gastric and/or duodenal ulcers.

      Clarification: While patients with pre-existing peptic ulcer disease are at higher risk of GI bleeding, NSAIDs can also cause GI bleeding in patients without ulcers. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing NSAIDs to all patients.

      Misconception 3: Severe dyspepsia is the only symptom of GI bleeding caused by NSAIDs.

      Clarification: While dyspepsia is a common symptom of NSAID use, endoscopic evidence of peptic ulceration can be seen in up to 20% of asymptomatic patients taking NSAIDs. Therefore, regular monitoring and endoscopic evaluation may be necessary in patients taking NSAIDs.

      Misconception 4: NSAIDs increase platelet adhesiveness.

      Clarification: NSAIDs actually reduce platelet aggregation and adhesiveness, except for aspirin, which irreversibly inhibits COX-1 and is indicated for inhibition of platelet aggregation. However, aspirin use increases the risk of bleeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      63.8
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman has delivered a baby boy at 40 + 2 weeks gestation. She is now 3 weeks postpartum and is exclusively breastfeeding with plans to continue for at least 6 months. What contraceptive method should she avoid due to absolute contraindication?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Correct Answer: Combined contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview

      Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).

      Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.

      Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucus. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.

      LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucus, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.

      It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      19.8
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  • Question 32 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. According to RCOG guidelines, what are the diagnostic criteria for hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer: Weight loss from pre-pregnancy baseline AND dehydration AND electrolyte imbalance

      Correct Answer: 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss AND dehydration AND electrolyte imbalance

      Explanation:

      Weight loss before pregnancy
      Lack of proper hydration
      Disruption in electrolyte balance

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      35.6
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  • Question 33 - A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 5-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a 5-day history of severe diarrhoea accompanied by abdominal pain, fever, and fatigue. He has never experienced these symptoms before. In the past 3 months, the patient has undergone treatment for upper urinary tract infections with both co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin. He has no known allergies and does not take any regular medications. Blood tests reveal an elevated white cell count, and a stool sample confirms the presence of Clostridium difficile toxin. According to national guidelines, what is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: A course of oral vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line antibiotic for patients with confirmed Clostridium difficile infection is oral vancomycin. This infection typically occurs in patients who have recently taken broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as co-amoxiclav and ciprofloxacin, which disrupt the gut flora. Discontinuing the implicated antibiotic and starting appropriate eradicative therapy is necessary. Oral fidaxomicin is an alternative but is less available. Metronidazole is no longer a first-line antibiotic due to lower cure rates than vancomycin, but it may be used if vancomycin is not available. IV vancomycin is ineffective as insufficient quantities are excreted into the gut lumen. Clindamycin is not a cure for Clostridium difficile but is associated with an increased risk of developing it. Conservative management is not recommended as the infection may worsen and lead to complications such as toxic megacolon.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.2
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  • Question 34 - A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman reports leakage of urine, which is happening more often. She is unable to control her urine when she feels the urge to go and has had a few instances where she couldn't make it to the bathroom in time. There is no pain during urination and her urine dipstick test is negative. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urge incontinence

      Explanation:

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects more women than men and increases with age. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own set of symptoms. Functional incontinence occurs when a person is unable to hold urine due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium or impaired mobility. Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress and urge incontinence, while overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss during periods of increased intra-abdominal pressure, while urge incontinence is associated with a sudden and intense desire to void that cannot be prevented. Symptoms of urge incontinence include urinary frequency and nocturia. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of the incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      30.7
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  • Question 35 - A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is...

    Correct

    • A 76-year-old male with a history of COPD and metastatic lung cancer is admitted with worsening shortness of breath. After consulting with family, it is determined that active treatment, including fluids and antibiotics, will be withdrawn as this admission is likely a terminal event. However, two days later, the patient becomes restless and agitated. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer: Subcutaneous midazolam

      Explanation:

      Palliative Care Prescribing for Agitation and Confusion

      When dealing with agitation and confusion in palliative care patients, it is important to identify and treat any underlying causes such as hypercalcaemia, infection, urinary retention, or medication. If these specific treatments fail, medication can be used to manage symptoms. Haloperidol is the first choice for treating agitation and confusion, with chlorpromazine and levomepromazine as alternative options. In the terminal phase of the illness, midazolam is the preferred medication for managing agitation or restlessness. Proper management of these symptoms can greatly improve the quality of life for palliative care patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      492.6
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  • Question 36 - A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with pertussis. She came to the doctor's office after a child at her workplace daycare tested positive for whooping cough. She has been experiencing an on-and-off cough with occasional vomiting for the past 18 days. Assuming the patient has no allergies, what is the best course of treatment for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Supportive treatment only

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Azithromycin or clarithromycin are recommended as first-line antibiotics for non-pregnant adults with whooping cough if the cough onset is within 21 days. Erythromycin can be used for pregnant adults. Co-amoxiclav and doxycycline are not recommended, and co-trimoxazole can be used off-label if macrolides are contraindicated or not tolerated. Antibiotics are preferred over supportive treatment within 21 days of presentation.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.5
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  • Question 37 - You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman...

    Correct

    • You are urgently called to the ward where you encounter a 54-year-old woman in ventricular tachycardia. The patient had a syncopal episode while walking to the restroom with nursing staff and currently has a blood pressure (BP) of 85/56 mmHg. Although she is oriented to time, place, and person, she is experiencing dizziness. What is the most suitable approach to managing this patient's ventricular tachycardia?

      Your Answer: Synchronised direct current (DC) cardioversion

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Ventricular Tachycardia

      Ventricular tachycardia is a serious cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt treatment. The Resuscitation Council tachycardia guideline recommends immediate synchronised electrical cardioversion for unstable patients with ventricular tachycardia who exhibit adverse features such as shock, myocardial ischaemia, syncope, or heart failure. Synchronised cardioversion is preferred over unsynchronised cardioversion as it reduces the risk of causing ventricular fibrillation or cardiac arrest.

      In the event that synchronised cardioversion fails to restore sinus rhythm after three attempts, a loading dose of amiodarone 300 mg IV should be given over 10-20 minutes, followed by another attempt of cardioversion. However, in an uncompromised patient with tachycardia and no adverse features, the first-line treatment involves amiodarone 300 mg as a loading dose IV, followed by an infusion of 900 mg over 24 hours.

      It is important to note that digoxin and metoprolol are not appropriate treatments for ventricular tachycardia. Digoxin is used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation, while metoprolol is a β blocker that should be avoided in patients with significant hypotension, as it can further compromise the patient’s condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.2
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe chest pain, scoring 9 out of 10, that began an hour ago. He is a smoker and is currently taking amlodipine for his hypertension. Following an ECG and troponin testing, he is diagnosed with NSTEMI. Using the GRACE score, his predicted 6-month mortality is 2%, and he is not at high risk of bleeding. However, the nearest primary percutaneous intervention unit is over an hour away. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Aspirin and fondaparinux

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor and fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.6
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  • Question 39 - A 61-year-old male presents with a four-month history of gradual slurring of speech...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old male presents with a four-month history of gradual slurring of speech and trouble swallowing. The patient reports more difficulty with liquids than solids, frequently choking while drinking water. During the examination, the patient exhibits facial weakness and low-volume speech. Ocular examination shows no signs of ptosis or ophthalmoplegia. What is the probable cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      Motor neurone disease often presents with spared eye movements. This is particularly common in cases of bulbar-onset amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), where patients may struggle with swallowing liquids more than solids in the early stages. Other symptoms may include facial weakness, hypophonic speech, fasciculations, and reduced jaw jerk reflex (a lower motor neuron sign). In contrast, achalasia typically causes difficulty swallowing both liquids and solids due to a loss of normal peristalsis and failure of the lower sphincter to relax during swallowing. This condition does not typically involve fasciculation of the tongue. Oesophageal carcinoma may also cause difficulty swallowing, but patients usually report difficulty with solids before liquids and may experience constitutional symptoms such as weight loss.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.2
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  • Question 40 - A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old overweight man visits the clinic with concerns about abdominal discomfort he experienced over the weekend. He reports that the discomfort began in his upper abdomen shortly after eating a large pizza on Friday night. The discomfort then shifted to the left side of his abdomen. He also vomited a few times. Most of the symptoms subsided within 24 hours. During the examination, he is still slightly tender in the left upper quadrant and has no fever or jaundice.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute pancreatitis

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary colic is a common symptom of gallstones, occurring in 1-4% of patients with choledocholithiasis. The pain is intense and dull, usually resolving within 30-90 minutes, and often occurs after consuming fatty meals. This matches the patient’s symptoms and risk factors. If left untreated, biliary colic can progress to acute cholecystitis, which presents with upper abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever. However, since the patient’s symptoms resolved within 24 hours, acute cholecystitis is unlikely. Acute viral hepatitis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as the patient has no known exposure to the viruses and her symptoms resolved too quickly. Acute pancreatitis presents with severe abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and fever, which does not match the patient’s symptoms. Ascending cholangitis is also unlikely, as the patient is afebrile and not jaundiced, and her symptoms resolved within 24 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 78-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his wife. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about his wife. He reports that in the past year, she has become increasingly forgetful and confused. He has observed her talking to their deceased dog, 'Buddy', and has noticed that she has been falling more frequently and moving around the house at a slower pace. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alzheimer's Dementia

      Correct Answer: Lewy-Body Dementia

      Explanation:

      To differentiate between the possible answers, it is crucial to analyze the patient’s symptoms. Considering his age and the duration of one year, the decline in cognitive function indicates a potential dementia condition. Additionally, the presence of visual hallucinations involving an animal strongly suggests Lewy-body dementia. Furthermore, the decrease in mobility and higher frequency of falls may indicate parkinsonism, further supporting the correct answer of Lewy-body dementia.

      Understanding Lewy Body Dementia

      Lewy body dementia is a type of dementia that is becoming more recognized as a cause of cognitive impairment, accounting for up to 20% of cases. It is characterized by the presence of alpha-synuclein cytoplasmic inclusions, known as Lewy bodies, in certain areas of the brain. While there is a complicated relationship between Parkinson’s disease and Lewy body dementia, with dementia often seen in Parkinson’s disease, the two conditions are distinct. Additionally, up to 40% of patients with Alzheimer’s disease have Lewy bodies.

      The features of Lewy body dementia include progressive cognitive impairment, which typically occurs before parkinsonism, but both features usually occur within a year of each other. Unlike other forms of dementia, cognition may fluctuate, and early impairments in attention and executive function are more common than memory loss. Other features include parkinsonism, visual hallucinations, and sometimes delusions and non-visual hallucinations.

      Diagnosis of Lewy body dementia is usually clinical, but single-photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) can be used to confirm the diagnosis. Management of Lewy body dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and memantine, similar to Alzheimer’s disease. However, neuroleptics should be avoided as patients with Lewy body dementia are extremely sensitive and may develop irreversible parkinsonism. It is important to carefully consider the use of medication in these patients to avoid worsening their condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      21.2
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  • Question 42 - A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man who takes omeprazole 20 mg for gastroesophageal reflux disease has reported a recent worsening of his indigestion and an unintentional weight loss of 5kg over the past 2 months. He has been referred for a 2-week wait and scheduled for an endoscopy in 3 weeks. What guidance should he receive regarding his omeprazole usage?

      Your Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 1 week before endoscopy

      Correct Answer: Stop taking omeprazole 2 weeks before endoscopy

      Explanation:

      To avoid the possibility of masking serious underlying pathology like gastric cancer, patients who are taking proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers should discontinue their use at least two weeks before undergoing an endoscopy.

      Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer

      Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.

      For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      13.6
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  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the clinic with persistent beliefs that his coworkers are plotting against him and trying to sabotage his work, despite reassurance and evidence to the contrary. He has had multiple heated arguments with his colleagues and after each one, he becomes aggressive and blames them for his outbursts. He sometimes feels like he cannot function without them, but also sometimes feels that they are out to get him. He has a history of a recent suicide attempt and has difficulties trusting his family as he feels they are part of the conspiracy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizotypal personality disorder

      Correct Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The young man in question is likely suffering from borderline personality disorder (BPD), also known as emotionally unstable personality disorder (EUPD). This condition is characterized by unstable relationships, alternating between idealization and devaluation of others, recurrent self-harm, unstable self-image and self-esteem, suicidal behavior, difficulty controlling anger, and efforts to avoid abandonment. All of these traits are present in this patient, making BPD the most likely diagnosis.

      Narcissistic personality disorder is not a likely diagnosis for this patient, as it is characterized by a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and a sense of entitlement. These traits are not present in this patient, and his periods of devaluing her partner are temporary and not pervasive.

      Dependent personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as this condition is characterized by a pervasive need for others to make decisions for the patient and constant reassurance. While the patient has felt that he cannot live without his partner in the past, his labile mood and alternating view of his partner make this diagnosis less likely.

      Paranoid personality disorder is also an unlikely diagnosis, as patients with this condition tend to be reluctant to confide in others and have an unforgiving attitude when insulted or questioned. The patient in question does not exhibit these traits, and his difficulty with trusting friends is likely due to his belief that he is undeserving of them.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      21.1
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  • Question 44 - A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick....

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick. He reports that his GP had prescribed him antibiotics for a chest infection. Upon examination, an ECG reveals polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes). What medication is he likely taking?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      Torsades de pointes can be caused by macrolides, particularly clarithromycin, due to its potential to prolong the QT interval and trigger polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. This risk is higher in patients with an underlying channelopathy. Long QT syndrome can be caused by genetic factors such as potassium or sodium channel mutations, as well as electrolyte imbalances like hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypokalaemia. Certain drugs, including antiarrhythmics, antibiotics, and psychotropic medications, can also cause long QT syndrome.

      Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition

      Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.

      The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      23.9
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  • Question 45 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot flashes and vaginal dryness that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She suspects that she may be experiencing menopause. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and psoriasis and is currently taking levothyroxine and has a Mirena intrauterine system in place.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to address the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Estradiol

      Explanation:

      The Mirena intrauterine system is approved for use as the progesterone component of hormone replacement therapy for a duration of 4 years. In a woman with a uterus, hormone replacement therapy aims to replace oestrogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms, but an additional source of progesterone is required to counteract the effects of unopposed oestrogen on the uterus, which increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. As this patient already has the Mirena coil in place, which releases progesterone locally to act on the uterus, the only necessary treatment is oestrogen. Estradiol is the only option that provides only oestrogen therapy and can be administered topically or transdermally. Combined HRT, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone, would be inappropriate as the patient is already receiving progesterone from the Mirena coil. Levonorgestrel and medroxyprogesterone are both progesterones and would not provide oestrogen supplementation to the patient, which is necessary to alleviate her menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.7
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  • Question 46 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?

      Your Answer: 10 Units

      Correct Answer: 16 Units

      Explanation:

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with a 10-day history of fever and sore throat. He recently completed a course of amoxicillin despite developing a rash a few days into the course. On examination, he is febrile and his tonsils are inflamed but no exudate is present; there are petechial spots on his palate and he has a widespread maculopapular rash, cervical lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Sore Throat and Fever

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a common cause of sore throat and fever in adolescents. It is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus and presents with symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and lethargy. The duration of symptoms is longer than other causes of acute sore throat, and examination findings may include lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly. Palatal petechiae is a distinguishing feature between glandular fever and streptococcal tonsillitis. A maculopapular rash may also be present, but it is important to note that amoxicillin can cause a rash in patients with glandular fever. Stevens-Johnson syndrome, bacterial tonsillitis, candidiasis, and mumps are other possible differential diagnoses. However, Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe mucocutaneous reaction to medications or infections, bacterial tonsillitis presents with enlarged, inflamed tonsils with exudate and cervical lymphadenopathy, candidiasis presents with white coating of buccal membranes, throat, or tongue, and mumps presents with bilateral parotid gland enlargement. Therefore, based on the patient’s history and examination findings, infectious mononucleosis is the most likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.8
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you take her medical history, she confesses that she has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
      Her blood tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of >60 ml/min, adjusted calcium of 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate of 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l), and parathyroid hormone of 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l).
      What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism

      Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. The typical biochemical markers are low phosphate and high serum calcium levels. However, the parathyroid hormone level may be high or inappropriately normal. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by chronic hypocalcemia, such as in chronic kidney disease, where serum calcium levels are low or normal, but parathyroid hormone levels are high. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a result of autonomous parathyroid production and usually occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease. Sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis are rare causes of hypercalcemia.

      Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition commonly seen in elderly females, characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, with hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, and carcinoma being less common causes. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, those who do experience symptoms may have polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN I and II).

      To diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism, doctors may look for raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, as well as perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan. A characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism is the pepperpot skull. Treatment options include total parathyroidectomy, conservative management, and the use of calcimimetics like cinacalcet. Calcimimetics mimic the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.

      In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be asymptomatic or present with a range of symptoms. It is most commonly caused by a solitary adenoma and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia. Diagnosis involves blood tests and imaging, while treatment options include surgery and medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      125.6
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  • Question 49 - A geriatric patient presents with chronic heart failure.
    Which of the following drugs should...

    Incorrect

    • A geriatric patient presents with chronic heart failure.
      Which of the following drugs should be used as a first-line treatment for heart failure?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Heart Failure Medications: Uses and Recommendations

      Heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management and treatment. There are several medications available for heart failure, each with its own specific uses and recommendations.

      Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor that works by reducing levels of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, resulting in reduced vasoconstriction and a reduction in left ventricular afterload. It is recommended as a first-line treatment for all patients with heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction.

      Digoxin is recommended for worsening or severe heart failure due to left ventricular systolic dysfunction despite first- and second-line treatment for heart failure.

      Aspirin should be prescribed for patients with heart failure and atherosclerotic arterial disease, including coronary heart disease. It is not useful in monotherapy for the treatment of heart failure.

      Furosemide is a diuretic that is routinely used for the relief of congestive symptoms and fluid retention in patients with heart failure. It should be titrated according to need after the initiation of subsequent heart failure therapies.

      Spironolactone is an aldosterone antagonist that forms the second-line treatment in patients with heart failure. It is important to closely monitor potassium and creatinine levels and the estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). Specialist advice should be sought if the patient develops hyperkalaemia or renal function deteriorates.

      In summary, the appropriate medication for heart failure depends on the individual patient’s condition and needs. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      163.5
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  • Question 50 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents to the GP with jaundice and itchy skin for the past 2 weeks. She claims that is a lot worse during this pregnancy compared to her last one. History reveals that she is currently 30 weeks pregnant with no complications up until presentation.

      On examination, the only notable findings are mild jaundice seen in the sclerae, as well as excoriations around the umbilicus and flanks. She denies any tenderness in her abdomen during the examination. Blood tests show the following:

      ALT 206 U/L
      AST 159 U/L
      ALP 796 umol/l
      GGT 397 U/L
      Bilirubin (direct) 56 umol/L
      Bile salts 34 umol/L
      Bile salts reference range 0 - 14 umol/L

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Correct Answer: Obstetric cholestasis

      Explanation:

      Obstetric cholestasis, also known as intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, is a condition that occurs when the flow of bile is impaired, resulting in a buildup of bile salts in the skin and placenta. The cause of this condition is believed to be a combination of hormonal, genetic, and environmental factors. While the pruritic symptoms can be distressing for the mother, the buildup of bile salts can also harm the fetus. The fetus’s immature liver may struggle to break down the excessive levels of bile salts, and the vasoconstricting effect of bile salts on human placental chorionic veins may lead to sudden asphyxial events in the fetus, resulting in anoxia and death.

      Intrahepatic Cholestasis of Pregnancy: Symptoms and Management

      Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, also known as obstetric cholestasis, is a condition that affects approximately 1% of pregnancies in the UK. It is characterized by intense itching, particularly on the palms, soles, and abdomen, and may also result in clinically detectable jaundice in around 20% of patients. Raised bilirubin levels are seen in over 90% of cases.

      The management of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy typically involves induction of labor at 37-38 weeks, although this practice may not be evidence-based. Ursodeoxycholic acid is also widely used, although the evidence base for its effectiveness is not clear. Additionally, vitamin K supplementation may be recommended.

      It is important to note that the recurrence rate of intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy in subsequent pregnancies is high, ranging from 45-90%. Therefore, close monitoring and management are necessary for women who have experienced this condition in the past.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      47.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Musculoskeletal (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/5) 40%
Reproductive Medicine (4/6) 67%
Neurology (5/7) 71%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/4) 0%
Paediatrics (3/4) 75%
Cardiovascular (3/6) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (2/3) 67%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (4/5) 80%
Infectious Diseases (3/3) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
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