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  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She was surprised to discover her pregnancy just last week, as it was unexpected. This is her fourth pregnancy, but she has had three miscarriages in the past. The midwife suggests a quadruple test due to the late discovery of her pregnancy, which reveals the following results:

      - Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is low
      - Unconjugated oestriol (uE3) is low
      - Total human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is low
      - Inhibin-A is normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The quadruple test result shows a decrease in AFP, oestriol, and hCG, without change in inhibin A, indicating Edward’s syndrome. This condition is caused by trisomy 18 and can present with physical features such as micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers. The quadruple test is a screening test used to identify pregnancies with a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, or neural tube defects. It is typically offered to patients who discover their pregnancy late and are no longer eligible for the combined test. ARPKD cannot be diagnosed with a quadruple test, but it can be detected prenatally with an ultrasound. Down’s syndrome would present with low AFP, low unconjugated oestriol, high hCG, and inhibin A, while neural tube defects would present with high AFP and normal oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      30.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 56-year-old man is admitted through the Emergency Department after his wife found...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted through the Emergency Department after his wife found him unresponsive in their bedroom. He was surrounded by empty packets of paracetamol and amitriptyline. On assessment, he is found to be hypotensive and tachycardic, with sluggish pupillary responses. A 12-lead ECG shows a wide-complex tachycardia (QRS complex 140 ms) with a large terminal R wave in the augmented Vector Right (aVR) lead. He is given treatment intravenously with treatment X. A repeat ECG reveals a sinus tachycardia with a QRS complex duration of 92 ms.
      Which of the following is most likely to represent treatment X?

      Your Answer: Calcium gluconate

      Correct Answer: Sodium bicarbonate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Cardiac Toxicity in TCA Overdose

      Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose can lead to a range of symptoms due to the inhibition of multiple receptors. In cases of cardiotoxicity, sodium-channel blockade can cause a widened QRS complex on ECG. The most appropriate treatment option in this scenario is sodium bicarbonate, which can counteract the sodium-channel blockade through serum alkalisation and sodium loading. Adenosine is used for supraventricular tachycardia, while amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic used in advanced life support protocols. Calcium gluconate is indicated for hyperkalemia, which may occur in TCA overdose, but is not required in the absence of hyperkalemic features on ECG. Magnesium sulphate is indicated for pathological QT-segment prolongation or Torsade de pointes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man visits his GP complaining of constant fatigue and frontal hair loss. He has a medical history of high blood pressure and asthma and takes salbutamol, amlodipine, and simvastatin. He appears to be in good health, and his neurological examination is unremarkable. The auto-antibody screen is negative, and his creatine kinase (CK) level is 1,000 U/l (normal range: 22-198 U/l). What is the most likely cause of this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Dermatomyositis

      Correct Answer: Statin therapy

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differential Diagnosis of Elevated CK Levels

      Elevated creatine kinase (CK) levels can indicate a variety of underlying conditions. When considering an elevated CK, it is important to take a detailed medication history as statin therapy, which is a common medication, can cause CK levels to rise in up to 5% of patients. Other common causes of mildly elevated CK include hypothyroidism, steroid use, and alcohol excess.

      Polymyositis is a potential differential diagnosis for a patient with elevated CK and fatigue, but it typically presents with objective proximal muscle weakness. The CK levels are often considerably higher than in the scenario described. Dermatomyositis, which features dermatological features alongside myositis, may present with papules on the hands, periorbital edema, flagellate erythema, or nailfold hemorrhages, none of which are present in this history.

      Extensive exercise can cause elevated CK levels, but it does not usually raise levels to the extent seen in this scenario. Rhabdomyolysis, which is a common cause of elevated CK, often occurs in elderly patients who have experienced a fall and long lie. However, there is no such history in this case, and CK levels in these patients are usually significantly higher.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of elevated CK levels requires a thorough evaluation of the patient’s medical history, medication use, and presenting symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      76.3
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  • Question 4 - A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl comes to the clinic with complaints of right femur pain that has been worsening over the past 3 months. She reports that the pain is particularly severe at night and she has recently noticed a painful lump in her right thigh. Although she denies any fever or weight loss, she has been experiencing a cough. Upon examination, a radiograph reveals a characteristic blastic and destructive intramedullary lesion with periosteal reaction and a sizable soft tissue mass. What is the most suitable course of action for her treatment?

      Your Answer: Order a whole-body bone scan, computed tomography (CT) chest and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the entire femur

      Explanation:

      Approach to a Patient with Suspected Osteosarcoma

      Suspected osteosarcoma requires a systematic approach to establish a diagnosis and stage the disease before initiating treatment. The patient’s history and examination may suggest osteosarcoma, but staging is necessary to determine the extent of the disease and guide treatment decisions.

      The next step is to stage the patient, which involves a CT chest, a bone scan, and an MRI of the involved bone. Biopsy is required to obtain tissue diagnosis and institute therapy. Treatment of osteosarcoma involves a multidisciplinary team approach and may require preoperative multi-agent chemotherapy to downstage the tumour. The aim of surgical resection is to aim for limb salvage and limb preservation.

      Offering amputation of the affected limb is not appropriate before staging the disease and obtaining a tissue diagnosis. Biopsy will ultimately provide tissue diagnosis and guide subsequent treatment. Repeating radiographs in 3 months to look for progression would be inappropriate. Radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and wide excision should not be performed prior to staging the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      52.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 54-year-old woman presents with thickened skin on her face and below her...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old woman presents with thickened skin on her face and below her elbows, while the skin above her elbows appears normal. She has a known history of Raynaud's phenomenon. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis

      Explanation:

      Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is a form of systemic sclerosis where the skin hardening is limited to the face and distal limbs, below the elbows. In contrast, diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs. Sclerodactyly specifically refers to skin hardening of the fingers or toes. Dermatomyositis and systemic lupus erythematosus are inflammatory conditions that do not typically cause skin hardening. Psoriasis is a skin condition characterized by red, scaly patches of skin covered with silvery scales.

      Understanding Systemic Sclerosis

      Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      38.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of cyclical pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of cyclical pelvic pain and painful bowel movements. She has previously sought treatment from gynaecology and found relief with paracetamol and mefenamic acid, but the pain has returned and she is seeking alternative options. She is not pregnant but plans to start a family within the next few years. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing her condition from the options provided below?

      Your Answer: Injectable depo-provera

      Correct Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      If simple analgesia with paracetamol and NSAIDs is not effective in treating endometriosis symptoms, hormonal treatment with the combined oral contraceptive pill or a progesterone should be considered.

      Although a referral to gynaecology may be necessary due to the recurrence of symptoms and potential pelvic/bowel involvement, primary care can offer further treatment options in the meantime. Hormonal treatment is recommended for this patient, and the combined oral contraceptive pill or any of the progesterone options can be used. As the patient plans to start a family soon, a hormonal option that can be quickly reversed is the most suitable.

      Buscopan is not an appropriate treatment for endometriosis, as it only provides relief for menstrual cramps and is not a cure. It may be used to alleviate symptoms associated with irritable bowel syndrome.

      Injectable depo-provera is not the best option for this patient, as it can delay the return of fertility, which conflicts with her desire to start a family within the next year.

      Opioid analgesia is not recommended for endometriosis treatment, as it carries the risk of side effects and dependence. It is not a long-term solution for managing symptoms.

      Understanding Endometriosis

      Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.

      First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.

      It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      117.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy? ...

    Correct

    • What is impacted by Heberden's arthropathy?

      Your Answer: Distal interphalangeal joints

      Explanation:

      Heberden’s Nodules

      Heberden’s nodules are bony growths that form around the joints at the end of the fingers. These nodules are most commonly found on the second and third fingers and are caused by calcification of the cartilage in the joint. This condition is often associated with osteoarthritis and is more common in women. Heberden’s nodules typically develop in middle age.

      Overall, Heberden’s nodules can be a painful and uncomfortable condition for those who experience them. However, the causes and symptoms of this condition can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and manage their symptoms effectively. With proper care and attention, it is possible to minimize the impact of Heberden’s nodules on daily life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
      41.3
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of fatigue and general discomfort. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old man presents with complaints of fatigue and general discomfort. He is overweight and has a history of hypertension, which is currently being treated. He does not smoke and drinks very little alcohol. His blood pressure is 129/80 mmHg and his BMI is 30 kg/m2. Upon conducting fasting blood tests, the following results were obtained: glucose 8.5 mmol/L (3.0-6.0), total cholesterol 6.7 mmol/L (<5.2), triglycerides 9.3 mmol/L (0.45-1.69), HDL 1.3 mmol/L (>1.55), and LDL unable to calculate due to high triglycerides. He was diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and was referred to a dietitian and practice nurse for further management.

      Nine months later, the patient returned for a follow-up appointment. He had been taking fenofibrate 160 mg OD and metformin 1g BD for the past three months and had lost some weight, bringing his BMI down to 28 kg/m2. A repeat lipid profile was conducted and compared to the previous results. The cholesterol level had decreased from 5.4 to 3.9 (<5.2), triglycerides had decreased from 3.7 to 1.5 (0.45-1.69), HDL had decreased from 1.2 to 0.5 (1.55), and calculated LDL had increased from 2.5 to 2.72 (<3.36). The patient's low HDL level was a cause for concern.

      What is the likely cause of the patient's low HDL level?

      Your Answer: Pseudo low HDL due to reduced total cholesterol

      Correct Answer: Fibrate therapy

      Explanation:

      Fibrates and Low HDL in Diabetic Patients

      This phenomenon is not commonly seen, but it is becoming more prevalent in diabetic patients who are prescribed fibrate therapy. The cause of this occurrence is not yet understood, but it typically resolves once the fibrate medication is discontinued. Low HDL levels are now considered a crucial factor in reducing cardiovascular risk. Although low HDL is a characteristic of metabolic syndrome, it is expected to be present at the time of diagnosis and to increase with weight loss. Weight loss may also lead to an increase in HDL levels. HDL is measured independently of total cholesterol, and reducing visceral adiposity may help to increase HDL levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      99.8
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 72-year-old retired head teacher undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a colonic carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old retired head teacher undergoes a right hemicolectomy for a colonic carcinoma. The neuromuscular blocking agent used during intubation and surgery acts by competitive inhibition at the receptor site. Which of the following drugs is a neuromuscular blocking agent that works through competitive inhibition?

      Your Answer: Succinylcholine

      Correct Answer: Pancuronium

      Explanation:

      Understanding Neuromuscular Blockers: Types and Actions

      Neuromuscular blockers are drugs that are commonly used during surgical procedures to induce muscle relaxation. There are two types of neuromuscular blockers: non-depolarising and depolarising blockers.

      Non-depolarising blockers, such as pancuronium, atracurium, vecuronium, and tubocurarine, act as competitive inhibitors by competing with acetylcholine for the receptor site. Their action is reversible and can be terminated by the use of an anticholinesterase, such as neostigmine or edrophonium.

      Neostigmine prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It is sometimes used to treat acute attacks of myasthenia gravis.

      Depolarising blockers, such as succinylcholine and suxamethonium, are irreversible. Their initial action is to cause stimulation, which may result in muscle fasciculation. Suxamethonium has a rapid onset and is short-acting, but its effects can be devastating in patients with a deficiency of the enzyme pseudocholinesterase.

      Edrophonium prolongs the action of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase, without competition. It was historically used to diagnose myasthenia during the Tensilon® test, but this test has a high risk for cardiac events.

      Understanding the types and actions of neuromuscular blockers is important for healthcare professionals to ensure safe and effective use during surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      46.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), attends his regular clinic appointment. He has missed an earlier appointment and is poorly compliant with his antiretroviral therapy, which he puts down to his busy work schedule. He has recently noticed blotches on his nose. His partner reports that the patient also has similar lesions on his back.
      On examination, you note several red-purple papules across the patient’s back and face.
      Which of the following viruses may have caused these lesions?

      Your Answer: Human papillomavirus (HPV)

      Correct Answer: Human herpesvirus 8

      Explanation:

      The patient has Kaposi’s sarcoma, which is caused by human herpesvirus 8. This condition can be the first presentation of AIDS in some HIV patients and is more common in males and men who have sex with men. The skin lesions appear as red-purple papules or plaques and can also be found on mucous membranes. Kaposi’s sarcoma mainly affects the skin, but it can also affect the lungs and gastrointestinal tract. Symptoms of pulmonary Kaposi’s sarcoma include cough, shortness of breath, and haemoptysis, while gastrointestinal involvement can cause intestinal obstruction.

      CMV infection can occur as reactivation or primary infection, usually in those with low CD4+ counts. In the immunocompromised, it can present with chorioretinitis, encephalitis, pneumonitis, or gastrointestinal disease. HPV is a common virus that causes genital warts, verrucas, and warts on the lips/oral mucosa. It is also a major risk factor for cervical and anal cancers. In immunosuppressed patients, the severity of HPV symptoms and risk of cancer are increased. HSV 1 and 2 are common viruses that can cause oral and genital herpes. In immunosuppression, these viruses may reactivate more frequently and cause more severe symptoms. Cryptococcus neoformans is a fungus that can cause opportunistic infections in AIDS, mostly causing fungal pneumonia and subacute meningitis, but it does not typically cause skin lesions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/2) 0%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Orthopaedics (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Rheumatology (1/1) 100%
Clinical Sciences (0/1) 0%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Passmed