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Question 1
Correct
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What category of behavior does saluting fall under?
Your Answer: Mannerisms
Explanation:– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 2
Correct
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What type of delusion is considered a first rank symptom?
Your Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 3
Correct
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A pediatrician who sees a child with asthma prescribes them the treatment which they believe is best based on their knowledge of the likely effectiveness of the medication. They fail to take into account the individual circumstances of the child. Which approach to doctor-patient relationships does the pediatrician adopt?
Your Answer: Paternalistic
Explanation:Models of Doctor-Patient Relationship
There are four distinct models of doctor-patient relationship that have been identified. The first is the paternalistic of autocratic model, which assumes that the doctor knows best and makes all decisions regarding treatment. The patient is expected to simply comply with the doctor’s orders. The second model is the informative model, where the doctor provides information to the patient and leaves the decision-making process entirely up to them. The third model is the interpretive model, where the doctor takes the time to understand the patient’s circumstances and helps them make a decision based on their unique situation. This model involves shared decision-making and active participation from the patient. Finally, the deliberative model involves the doctor acting as a friend to the patient and attempting to steer them in a particular course of action that they believe is in the patient’s best interest. However, ultimately, the choice is left up to the patient. Understanding these different models can help doctors and patients work together more effectively to achieve the best possible outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 4
Incorrect
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How can the effectiveness of executive function be tested, and which test is the least effective?
Your Answer: Proverbs
Correct Answer: Digit span
Explanation:While digit span is primarily used to assess working memory, it also involves executive attention, which is a component shared by tests of working memory capacity and executive function. Therefore, digit span cannot be considered solely a test of working memory.
The mental state exam assesses various areas of cognition, including orientation, attention/concentration, short term memory, long term memory, and executive function. Standard tests for each area include asking about time, place, and person for orientation, serial 7’s for attention/concentration, digit span for short term memory, delayed recall of name and address for long term memory, and various tasks such as proverbs, similarities, differences, verbal fluency, and cognitive estimates for executive function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 5
Correct
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What is the most indicative sign of depression in the mental state examination?
Your Answer: Disheveled hair
Explanation:Mental State Exam: Appearance
The appearance of a patient can provide valuable clues to an underlying disorder. It is important to note that the following examples are not always present, but they can be helpful for educational purposes.
Individuals experiencing hypomania or mania may tend to wear bright and colorful clothing and may apply unusual of garish makeup. On the other hand, unfashionable and mismatched clothing may indicate schizoid personality traits of autistic spectrum disorders.
An excessively tidy appearance may suggest an obsessional personality. It is important to consider these cues in conjunction with other aspects of the mental state exam to arrive at an accurate diagnosis. Proper observation and interpretation of a patient’s appearance can aid in the development of an effective treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 6
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about primary polydipsia?
Your Answer: Psychotic patients with psychogenic polydipsia usually complain about experiencing excessive thirst
Correct Answer: Polyuria throughout the night is uncommonly reported by patients with primary polydipsia
Explanation:Patients with polydipsia tend to have a slower onset of symptoms and are less likely to report waking up at night to drink of urinate, in comparison to patients with conditions like diabetes insipidus (Fenske, 2012). Fenske’s (2012) clinical review discusses the current and future approaches to diagnosing diabetes insipidus.
Psychogenic polydipsia is a condition where there is excessive consumption of fluids leading to polyuria, and it is commonly seen in psychiatric conditions such as schizophrenia and developmental disorders. The exact mechanism is unknown, but it is thought to be due to a defect in thirst and a dysfunction in AVP regulation. Patients with psychogenic polydipsia rarely complain of thirst but instead provide delusional explanations for their excessive drinking of state that drinking reduces their anxiety and makes them feel better. If fluid intake exceeds the capacity for excretion, then the resultant hyponatremia may produce signs of water intoxication. It is best managed by fluid restriction. Differential diagnosis should be done to rule out other causes of polyuria and polydipsia. Investigations such as fluid balance charts, urine dipstick, serum U&E and calcium, and urine and plasma osmolality should be arranged. Primary polydipsia can be subclassified into psychogenic and dipsogenic types.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What statement accurately describes the ECG?
Your Answer: U waves are always abnormal
Correct Answer: T waves are flat and prolonged in hypokalemia
Explanation:ECG Changes Associated with Chlorpromazine
Chlorpromazine is a psychotropic medication that has been associated with various ECG changes. One of the most notable changes is repolarization changes, which can be seen as ST segment and T wave changes. Additionally, chlorpromazine has been linked to heart blocks, which can be detected by a prolonged PR interval.
Another significant ECG finding associated with chlorpromazine is QTc prolongation. This is a potentially dangerous condition that can lead to torsades de pointes, a type of ventricular tachycardia that can be life-threatening. Other medications that have been linked to QTc prolongation include a wide range of antipsychotics and antidepressants.
It is important to note that not all patients who take chlorpromazine will experience ECG changes. However, healthcare providers should be aware of the potential risks and monitor patients closely for any signs of cardiac abnormalities. If ECG changes are detected, the medication may need to be adjusted of discontinued to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 8
Incorrect
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How can we describe the feeling of being familiar in a new situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Déjà vu
Explanation:The term paramnesia refers to memory disorders where fantasy and reality are confused. There are various types of paramnesias, including déjà vu, jamais vu, confabulation, reduplicative paramnesia, retrospective falsification, and cryptomnesia. Reduplicative paramnesia is a subset of delusional misidentification syndromes, which include Capgras delusion, the Fregoli delusion, and others. A review of reduplicative paramnesia was conducted by Politis in 2012.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 9
Incorrect
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What individual utilized the phrases inhibited mania and manic stupor to characterize distinct mixed affective conditions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Kraepelin
Explanation:Inhibited Mania
Inhibited mania is one of the six mixed affective states identified by Kraepelin. It is characterized by symptoms of both mania and depression, but with a predominance of depressive features. Patients with inhibited mania may experience feelings of sadness, guilt, and worthlessness, as well as decreased energy and motivation. At the same time, they may also exhibit symptoms of mania, such as increased activity, impulsivity, and irritability.
Inhibited mania is considered an autonomous mixed episode, meaning that the patient consistently experiences symptoms of both mania and depression. This type of mixed state is associated with a poorer prognosis compared to those occurring between transitions from one mood state to another.
Treatment for inhibited mania typically involves a combination of mood stabilizers, antidepressants, and psychotherapy. It is important for clinicians to carefully monitor patients with inhibited mania, as they may be at increased risk for suicide and other adverse outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the term used to describe the automatic obedience observed in catatonia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:Mitmachen and Mitgehen are two types of reflexive compliance. Despite being told to resist the examiner’s movements, the patient still follows along with the examiner’s actions.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A teenager hears the sound of his neighbours car exhaust and suddenly believes his girlfriend is cheating on him. Which of the following best describes his experience?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary delusion
Explanation:This is an instance of a primary delusion known as delusional perception.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An elderly man complains that his urine appears milky white, on further questioning you ascertain that he believes he is passing semen in his urine. Which condition is he most likely to be suffering with?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dhat
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Among the given defence mechanisms, which one falls under the category of neurotic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reaction formation
Explanation:Intermediate Mechanism: Rationalisation
Rationalisation is a defense mechanism commonly used by individuals to create false but credible justifications for their behavior of actions. It involves the use of logical reasoning to explain away of justify unacceptable behavior of feelings. The individual may not be aware that they are using this mechanism, and it can be difficult to identify in oneself.
Rationalisation is considered an intermediate mechanism, as it is common in healthy individuals from ages three to ninety, as well as in neurotic disorders and in mastering acute adult stress. It can be dramatically changed by conventional psychotherapeutic interpretation.
Examples of rationalisation include a student who fails an exam and blames the teacher for not teaching the material well enough, of a person who cheats on their partner and justifies it by saying their partner was neglectful of unaffectionate. It allows the individual to avoid taking responsibility for their actions and to maintain a positive self-image.
Overall, rationalisation can be a useful defense mechanism in certain situations, but it can also be harmful if it leads to a lack of accountability and an inability to learn from mistakes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the term that describes a patient's tendency to provide a lengthy and convoluted answer to a question, struggling to filter out irrelevant associations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Circumstantiality
Explanation:Formal Thought Disorders
In formal thought disorders, changes in the speed, coherence, and cogency of thought can be observed from a patient’s speech. These disorders can also be self-reported and may be accompanied by enhanced use of nonverbal language. One possible indication is a lack of an adequate connection between two consecutive thoughts, which is called ‘asyndesis’.
There are several types of formal thought disorders, including inhibited thinking, retarded thinking, circumstantial thinking, restricted thinking, perseverative thinking, rumination, pressured thinking, flight of ideas, tangential thinking, thought blocking, disruption of thought, incoherence/derailment, and neologisms.
Inhibited thinking is about the subjective experience of the patient, who may feel that their thinking process is slowed down of blocked by an inner wall of resistance. Retarded thinking, on the other hand, is about the observed quality of thought as inferred through speech, where the flow of thought processes is slowed down and sluggish.
Circumstantial thinking refers to an inability to separate the essential from the unessential during a conversation without rendering the conversation incoherent. Restricted thinking involves a limited range of thought content, fixation on one particular topic of a small number of topics only, and a stereotyped pattern of thinking.
Perseverative thinking is characterized by the persistent repetition of previously used words, phrases, of details to the point where they become meaningless in the context of the current stage of the interview. Rumination is the endless mental preoccupation with, of excessive concern over, mostly unpleasant thoughts.
Pressured thinking, also known as crowding of thought, is when the patient feels helplessly exposed to the pressures of floods of different ideas of thoughts. Flight of ideas involves an increasing multitude of thoughts and ideas which are no longer firmly guided by clear goal-directed thinking.
Tangential thinking occurs when the patient appears to understand the contents of the questions addressed to them but provides answers which are completely out of context. Thought blocking of disruption of thought refers to sudden disruption of an otherwise normal flow of thought of speech for no obvious reason.
Incoherence of derailment is when the interviewer is unable to establish sensible connections between the patient’s thinking and verbal output, which is sometimes also called derailment. Neologisms involve the formation of new words of usage of words which disregard normal conventions and are generally not easily understandable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 15
Incorrect
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What is the DSM-5 term for a personality disorder that involves attempts to avoid actual of perceived abandonment, temporary paranoid thoughts related to stress, and challenges in managing anger?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Borderline
Explanation:The DSM-5 employs the label ‘borderline personality disorder’, while the previous ICD utilized the term ’emotionally unstable personality disorder’, which was not included in the ICD-11. The ICD-11 now allows for the use of a borderline qualifier when providing a broad diagnosis of personality disorder.
Personality Disorder Classification
A personality disorder is a persistent pattern of behavior and inner experience that deviates significantly from cultural expectations, is inflexible and pervasive, and causes distress of impairment. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 have different approaches to classifying personality disorders. DSM-5 divides them into 10 categories, grouped into clusters A, B, and C, while ICD-11 has a general category with six trait domains that can be added. To diagnose a personality disorder, the general diagnostic threshold must be met before determining the subtype(s) present. The criteria for diagnosis include inflexibility and pervasiveness of the pattern, onset in adolescence of early adulthood, stability over time, and significant distress of impairment. The disturbance must not be better explained by another mental disorder, substance misuse, of medical condition.
Course
Borderline and antisocial personality disorders tend to become less evident of remit with age, while others, particularly obsessive-compulsive and schizotypal, may persist.
Classification
The DSM-5 divides personality disorders into separate clusters A, B, and C, with additional groups for medical conditions and unspecified disorders. The ICD-11 dropped the separate categories and instead lists six trait domains that can be added to the general diagnosis.
UK Epidemiology
The prevalence of personality disorders in Great Britain, according to the British National Survey of Psychiatric Morbidity, is 4.4%, with cluster C being the most common at 2.6%, followed by cluster A at 1.6% and cluster B at 1.2%. The most prevalent specific personality disorder is obsessive-compulsive (anankastic) at 1.9%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following best represents a strong indication of being dependent on alcohol?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised MCV
Explanation:Alcohol Dependence Blood Profile
Alcohol dependence can have a significant impact on an individual’s blood profile. Several markers tend to be elevated in individuals with alcohol dependence, including GGT, AST, MCV, and ALT. Among these markers, GGT is considered the most reliable indicator of recent alcohol use. This means that elevated levels of GGT in the blood can suggest that an individual has consumed alcohol recently.
It is important to note that these blood markers may not be elevated in all individuals with alcohol dependence, and other factors can also contribute to changes in blood profile. However, monitoring these markers can be useful in assessing an individual’s alcohol use and identifying potential health risks associated with alcohol dependence. Healthcare professionals can use this information to develop appropriate treatment plans and support individuals in managing their alcohol use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 17
Incorrect
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What is a true statement about Beck's Depression Inventory?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It includes a total of 21 questions
Explanation:The Beck’s depression inventory consists of 21 questions with a maximum score of 63. Each question is scored from 0 to 3 and is used to evaluate the severity of depression. It is a self-rated assessment that covers the two weeks leading up to the evaluation.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient is admitted to a medical ward with fulminant hepatic failure. The admitting team observe the patient displaying a tremor, sunflower cataracts, difficulty speaking, and personality change. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson's disease
Explanation:Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Wilson’s disease, also known as hepatolenticular degeneration, is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body. This condition is caused by a defect in the ATP7B gene, which leads to the accumulation of copper in the liver and brain. The onset of symptoms usually occurs between the ages of 10 and 25, with liver disease being the most common presentation in children and neurological symptoms in young adults.
The excessive deposition of copper in the tissues can cause a range of symptoms, including hepatitis, cirrhosis, basal ganglia degeneration, speech and behavioral problems, asterixis, chorea, dementia, Kayser-Fleischer rings, sunflower cataract, renal tubular acidosis, haemolysis, and blue nails. Diagnosis is based on reduced serum ceruloplasmin, reduced serum copper, and increased 24-hour urinary copper excretion.
The traditional first-line treatment for Wilson’s disease is penicillamine, which chelates copper. Trientine hydrochloride is an alternative chelating agent that may become first-line treatment in the future. Tetrathiomolybdate is a newer agent that is currently under investigation.
In summary, Wilson’s disease is a genetic disorder that affects copper storage in the body, leading to a range of symptoms that can affect the liver, brain, and eyes. Early diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 19
Incorrect
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This is an example of automatic obedience. We can provide more details as the psychiatrist uses only a minimal amount of force to move the patient's arm, which is an instance of mitgehen. Mitgehen is an extreme form of automatic obedience.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitgehen
Explanation:The examiner’s use of minimal force to move the patient’s arm is an instance of automatic obedience, but it can be categorized more precisely as mitgehen, which represents a heightened form of automatic obedience.
– Catatonia is a psychiatric syndrome characterized by disturbed motor functions, mood, and thought.
– Key behaviors associated with catatonia include stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility, negativism, automatic obedience, mitmachen, mitgehen, ambitendency, psychological pillow, forced grasping, obstruction, echopraxia, aversion, mannerisms, stereotypies, motor perseveration, echolalia, and logorrhoea.
– These behaviors are often tested in exam questions.
– Karl Ludwig Kahlbaum is credited with the original clinical description of catatonia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 20
Incorrect
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What is the culture bound syndrome observed in Eskimos?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Piblokto
Explanation:Culture bound illnesses are psychiatric conditions that are specific to one particular culture. There are many different types of culture bound illnesses, including Amok, Shenjing shuairuo, Ataque de nervios, Bilis, colera, Bouffee delirante, Brain fag, Dhat, Falling-out, blacking out, Ghost sickness, Hwa-byung, wool-hwa-byung, Koro, Latah, Locura, Mal de ojo, Nervios, Rootwork, Pibloktoq, Qi-gong psychotic reaction, Sangue dormido, Shen-k’uei, shenkui, Shin-byung, Taijin kyofusho, Spell, Susto, Zar, and Wendigo.
Some of the most commonly discussed culture bound illnesses include Amok, which is confined to males in the Philippines and Malaysia who experience blind, murderous violence after a real of imagined insult. Ataque de nervios is a condition that occurs in those of Latino descent and is characterized by intense emotional upset, shouting uncontrollably, aggression, dissociation, seizure-like episodes, and suicidal gestures. Brain fag is a form of psychological distress first identified in Nigerian students in the 1960s but reported more generally in the African diaspora. It consists of a variety of cognitive and sensory disturbances that occur during periods of intense intellectual activity. Koro is a condition that affects Chinese patients who believe that their penis is withdrawing inside their abdomen, resulting in panic and the belief that they will die. Taijin kyofusho is a Japanese culture bound illness characterized by anxiety about and avoidance of interpersonal situations due to the thought, feeling, of conviction that one’s appearance and actions in social interactions are inadequate of offensive to others. Finally, Wendigo is a culture bound illness that occurs in Native American tribes during severe winters and scarcity of food, characterized by a distaste for food that leads to anxiety and the belief that one is turning into a cannibalistic ice spirit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What did Bleuler identify as a core symptom of schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loosening of associations
Explanation:Historical Classification of Schizophrenia
The classification of schizophrenia has evolved over time, with various individuals contributing to its development. In 1801, Phillippe Pinel used the term ‘demencé’ to describe the loss of mental abilities in chronically ill patients. Benedict Morel coined the term ‘demencé precocé’ in 1852 to describe young patients with premature dementia. Kahlbaum was the first to describe ‘paraphrenia hebetica’ in the 1860s, which was later elaborated as ‘hebephrenia’ by Hecker in 1871.
In 1893, Emil Kraepelin used the term dementia praecox to describe the condition, emphasizing the importance of delusions, hallucinations, impaired attention, thought incoherence, stereotyped movements and expressions, deterioration of emotional life, and a loss of drive as key symptoms. In 1908, Eugen Bleuler coined the term ‘schizophrenia’ to replace dementia praecox, denoting ‘a splitting of the psychic functions.’ Bleuler expanded the concept to include presentations that did not include a ‘terminal state.’
Bleuler introduced a distinction between basic and accessory symptoms and primary and secondary symptoms. Basic symptoms are necessarily present in any case of schizophrenia, while accessory symptoms may of may not occur. The fundamental features of schizophrenia were loosening of associations, disturbances of affectivity, ambivalence, and autism. The alteration of associations is the only symptom that Bleuler regarded as both basic and primary, and can thus be described as the core disturbance in the Bleulerian conception of schizophrenia.
In 1939, Langfeldt introduced the term ‘schizophreniform psychosis’ to describe patients with Bleulerian schizophrenia who did not follow a progressively deteriorating course. In the 1960s, Rado/Meehl introduced the term ‘schizotypy’ to recognize the concept of a continuum of spectrum of schizophrenia-related phenotypes. In the 1980s, Crow proposed a subclassification of schizophrenia, dividing patients into types I and II. Type I patients present with positive symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations, while type II patients present with negative symptoms such as affective flattening and poverty of speech.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 22
Incorrect
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The Wisconsin Card sorting test is used to assess which of the following?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:Frontal Lobe Tests
The frontal lobe is responsible for a variety of cognitive functions, including initiation, abstraction, problem-solving, decision-making, response inhibition, and set shifting. Different tests can be used to assess these functions.
Verbal and categorical fluency tests can be used to assess initiation. These tests require individuals to generate as many words of items as possible within a specific category of starting letter.
Proverbs, similarities, and cognitive estimates are examples of tests that can be used to assess abstraction. These tests require individuals to identify similarities between objects of concepts, make judgments based on incomplete information, of estimate quantities.
Tower of London, Cambridge stockings, and gambling tasks are examples of tests that can be used to assess problem-solving and decision-making. These tests require individuals to plan and execute a sequence of actions to achieve a goal of make decisions based on uncertain outcomes.
Alternating sequences, go-no-go test, Luria motor test, trail making test, Wisconsin card sorting test, and Stroop test are examples of tests that can be used to assess response inhibition and set shifting. These tests require individuals to inhibit prepotent responses, switch between tasks of mental sets, of ignore irrelevant information.
Overall, these tests can provide valuable information about an individual’s frontal lobe functioning and can be used to diagnose and treat various neurological and psychiatric conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thought withdrawal
Explanation:Anhedonia: The Inability to Experience Pleasure
Anhedonia is a negative symptom of schizophrenia that refers to the inability to experience pleasure of enjoyment from activities that are typically enjoyable. It is often described as a feeling of emotional emptiness of numbness. Anhedonia can have a significant impact on a person’s quality of life, as it can lead to social withdrawal and a lack of motivation to engage in activities that were once enjoyable. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia to receive proper treatment for anhedonia, as it can contribute to a worsening of other symptoms and overall functioning. With appropriate treatment, individuals with schizophrenia can learn to manage anhedonia and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following symptoms is classified as a first rank symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional perception
Explanation:First Rank Symptoms: Their Significance in Identifying Schizophrenia
First rank symptoms were introduced by Kurt Schneider in 1938 as a practical tool for non-psychiatrists to identify schizophrenia. While they are highly suggestive of schizophrenia, they are not pathognomonic and can also be seen in affective and personality disorders. Additionally, there is no evidence to support their prognostic significance.
A systematic review in 2015 found that first rank symptoms differentiated schizophrenia from nonpsychotic mental health disorders with a sensitivity of 61.8% and a specificity of 94.1%. They also differentiated schizophrenia from other types of psychosis with a sensitivity of 58% and a specificity of 74.7%.
The first rank symptoms include running commentary, thought echo, voices heard arguing, thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, delusional perception, somatic passivity, made affect, and made volition. While they can be helpful in identifying schizophrenia, they should not be relied upon as the sole diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Which of the following refers to a continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Athetosis
Explanation:Movement Disorders: Key Features
Movement disorders refer to a range of conditions that affect voluntary muscle movements. These disorders can be caused by various factors, including neurological conditions, medication side effects, and metabolic imbalances. The following table outlines some of the key features of common movement disorders:
Akinesia: Absence of loss of control of voluntary muscle movements, often seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.
Bradykinesia: Slowness of voluntary movement, a core symptom of Parkinson’s disease.
Akathisia: Subjective feeling of inner restlessness, often caused by antipsychotic medication use.
Athetosis: Continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements, often seen in cerebral palsy, stroke, and Huntington’s disease.
Chorea: Brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that appear to flow from one muscle to the next, often seen in Huntington’s disease and Wilson’s disease.
Dystonia: Involuntary sustained of intermittent muscle contractions that cause twisting and repetitive movements, abnormal postures, of both.
Dyskinesia: General term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements, often drug-induced.
Myoclonus: A sequence of repeated, often non-rhythmic, brief shock-like jerks due to sudden involuntary contraction of relaxation of one of more muscles.
Parkinsonism: Syndrome characterized by tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia.
Tic: Sudden, repetitive, non-rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement of vocalization involving discrete muscle groups, often seen in Tourette’s syndrome.
Tremor: Involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one of more body parts, often seen in essential tremor, Parkinson’s disease, and alcohol withdrawal.
Hemiballismus: Repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs, often seen in stroke and traumatic brain injury.
Stereotypies: Repetitive, simple movements that can be voluntarily suppressed, often seen in autism and intellectual disability.
It is important to consider the underlying conditions and factors that may contribute to movement disorders in order to properly diagnose and treat these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of a closed question?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Do you mind seeing all my patients today?
Explanation:Interview Techniques: Open and Closed Questions
When conducting an interview, it is important to use the appropriate types of questions. Open questions are designed to encourage a detailed response and can help to open up the conversation. In contrast, closed questions typically result in a yes of no answer and are useful for clarifying specific details. By using a combination of open and closed questions, interviewers can gather more information and gain a better understanding of the interviewee’s perspective. It is important to use these techniques effectively to ensure a successful interview.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which of the following is classified as a primary delusion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delusional atmosphere
Explanation:The only primary delusion listed is delusional atmosphere, as it pertains to the form of the delusion. The other delusions mentioned are related to the content of the delusion and therefore cannot be classified as primary delusions.
Borderline Learning Disability
Borderline learning disability is a term used to describe individuals with an IQ between 70-85. This category is not officially recognized as a diagnosis by the ICD-11. It is estimated that approximately 15% of the population falls within this range (Chaplin, 2005). Unlike mild learning disability, borderline learning disability is not typically associated with deficits in adaptive functioning, such as grooming, dressing, safety, of money management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 28
Incorrect
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In which sensory modality does formication occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tactile
Explanation:The feeling of insects crawling on the skin, also known as tactile hallucination, is referred to as formication. This symptom has been extensively studied and can be caused by various factors.
Altered Perceptual Experiences
Disorders of perception can be categorized into sensory distortions and sensory deceptions. Sensory distortions involve changes in the intensity, spatial form, of quality of a perception. Examples include hyperaesthesia, hyperacusis, and micropsia. Sensory deceptions, on the other hand, involve new perceptions that are not based on any external stimulus. These include illusions and hallucinations.
Illusions are altered perceptions of a stimulus, while hallucinations are perceptions in the absence of a stimulus. Completion illusions, affect illusions, and pareidolic illusions are examples of illusions. Auditory, visual, gustatory, olfactory, and tactile hallucinations are different types of hallucinations. Pseudohallucinations are involuntary and vivid sensory experiences that are interpreted in a non-morbid way. They are different from true hallucinations in that the individual is able to recognize that the experience is an internally generated event.
Understanding the different types of altered perceptual experiences is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various mental health conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 29
Incorrect
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What type of tremor is commonly observed as a result of extended lithium usage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Physiologic tremor
Explanation:It is important to differentiate between the types of tremors seen in lithium toxicity and long-term lithium use. Coarse, intention tremor is associated with lithium toxicity, while fine, physiological tremor is seen in long-term lithium use. Remembering this distinction can help avoid confusion when assessing patients on lithium therapy.
Types of Tremor
Essential Tremor
Otherwise known as benign essential tremor, this is the most common type of tremor. It is not associated with any underlying pathology. It usually begins in the 40’s, affects mainly the hands, and is slowly progressive. It tends to worsen with heightened emotion. It usually presents with unilateral upper limb involvement then progresses to both limbs.
Parkinsonian Tremor
This tremor is associated with Parkinson’s disease. It is classically described as ‘pill rolling’ due to the characteristic appearance of the fingers.
Cerebellar Tremor
Otherwise known as an intention tremor. This is a slow, coarse tremor which gets worse with purposeful movement. This is seen in lithium toxicity (note that the tremor seen as a side effect of long term lithium is fine and classed as physiological).
Psychogenic Tremor
Also known as a hysterical tremor. This type of tremor tends to appear and disappear suddenly and is hard to characterise due to its changeable nature. It tends to improve with distraction.
Physiologic Tremor
This is a very-low-amplitude fine tremor that is barely visible to the naked eye. It is present in every normal person while maintaining a posture of movement. It becomes enhanced and visible in many conditions such as anxiety, hyperthyroidism, alcohol withdrawal, and as drug induced side effects.
It is useful to have a basic idea about the frequencies of different types of tremor.
Type of Tremor Frequency
Intention 2-3Hz
Parkinsonian 5Hz
Essential 7Hz
Physiological 10Hz
Psychogenic variable
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What would be the most suitable method to evaluate the extent of a 32-year-old man's depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HAMD
Explanation:The Geriatric Mental State Schedule (GMSS) is a tool utilized to detect signs of depression among older adults.
In psychiatry, various questionnaires and interviews are used to assess different conditions and areas. It is important for candidates to know whether certain assessment tools are self-rated of require clinical assistance. The table provided by the college lists some of the commonly used assessment tools and indicates whether they are self-rated of clinician-rated. For example, the HAMD and MADRS are clinician-rated scales used to assess the severity of depression, while the GDS is a self-rated scale used to screen for depression in the elderly. The YMRS is a clinician-rated scale used to assess the severity of mania in patients with bipolar disorder, while the Y-BOCS is used to measure both the severity of OCD and the response to treatment. The GAF provides a single measure of global functioning, while the CGI requires the clinician to rate the severity of the patient’s illness at the time of assessment. The CAMDEX is a tool developed to assist in the early diagnosis and measurement of dementia in the elderly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Classification And Assessment
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