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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency department with ankle pain following a football injury. He is able to bear weight, experiences pain below his lateral malleolus, and has no tenderness in the bone. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Request an ankle radiograph
Correct Answer: Give analgesia and review in 1 hour before discharge with advice
Explanation:Understanding the Ottawa Ankle Rules: Managing Foot and Ankle Injuries
Foot and ankle injuries are common, but it can be difficult to determine whether a patient has sustained a sprain or a fracture. The Ottawa ankle rules are a set of guidelines that can help clinicians decide whether a patient with foot or ankle pain requires radiographs to diagnose a possible fracture. By following these rules, unnecessary radiographs can be reduced by 25%.
When managing foot and ankle injuries, it is important to understand the Ottawa ankle rules and how they apply to each patient. If a patient does not meet the criteria for an ankle radiograph, simple analgesia and advice on managing a soft tissue injury may be sufficient. However, if a patient does meet the criteria, a radiograph may be necessary to diagnose a possible fracture.
By understanding and applying the Ottawa ankle rules, clinicians can provide appropriate and effective management for foot and ankle injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with worries about hair loss. She reports experiencing hair loss in small patches on her scalp. During examination, you observe distinct patches of hair loss with some ‘broken exclamation mark’ hairs at the edges.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Androgenic hair loss
Correct Answer: Alopecia areata
Explanation:Understanding Hair Loss: Causes and Symptoms
Hair loss is a common concern for many individuals, causing anxiety and worry. There are various causes of hair loss, each with their own unique symptoms. Alopecia areata is a chronic inflammatory disease that affects the hair follicles, resulting in patchy, non-scarring hair loss on the scalp. Androgenic alopecia, on the other hand, is more common in men and causes a receding hairline and loss of hair from the top and front of the head. Fungal infections, such as tinea capitis, can also cause hair loss accompanied by scaling, itching, and pain. Scalp psoriasis can range from mild scaling to severe crusted plaques covering the entire scalp, while erosive pustular dermatosis of the scalp affects elderly individuals with scarring and yellow-brown crusts. It is important to understand the various causes and symptoms of hair loss in order to properly diagnose and treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Sarah, 35, has come to her doctor complaining of weakness on the left side of her face, which is confirmed upon examination. Sarah also reports experiencing ear pain and an otoscopy reveals vesicles on her tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Guillain-Barre syndrome
Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this case is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. This syndrome occurs when the Varicella Zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion, leading to the appearance of vesicles on the tympanic membrane, as well as other symptoms such as facial paralysis, taste loss, dry eyes, tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss. While Bell’s palsy could explain the facial weakness, the presence of tympanic vesicles and ear pain make this diagnosis less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia is unlikely to cause facial weakness, although it could explain the pain. An acoustic neuroma could explain both the facial weakness and ear pain, but the absence of tympanic vesicles makes this diagnosis less probable.
Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome
Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.
To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past 2 weeks. He has recently been diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer. During the morning ward round, he expresses dissatisfaction with his pain management. He is currently taking oral morphine sulphate 20 mg four times a day, codeine 30mg four times a day, and regular ibuprofen. What is the appropriate dose of oral morphine for breakthrough pain in this patient?
Your Answer: Morphine 20mg
Correct Answer: Morphine 15mg
Explanation:To calculate the breakthrough dose, we need to first convert oral codeine to oral morphine by dividing by 10. For example, 10mg of oral codeine is equivalent to 1mg of oral morphine.
If a person takes 30mg of oral codeine four times a day, this equals 12mg of oral morphine. If they also take 20mg of oral morphine four times a day, the total daily dose of morphine is 92mg (12mg + 80 mg).
To determine the breakthrough dose, we divide the total daily dose of morphine by 6. In this case, the breakthrough dose would be 15mg of morphine.
Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 4-year-old boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother who is concerned that he has had diarrhoea for three days. He has been experiencing 2–3 loose, watery stools every day. He has also vomited twice at the onset of the illness but not since.
On examination, he is afebrile and well hydrated. His abdomen is soft and nontender. The family recently returned from a trip to Australia. While away, the patient was admitted to hospital for two days with a lower respiratory tract infection.
Which of the patient’s features is most likely to indicate the need for a stool sample for culture and sensitivity?
Select the SINGLE factor from the list below.Your Answer: The recent hospital admission
Explanation:Assessing the Need for Stool Culture in a Child with Gastroenteritis
Gastroenteritis is a common illness characterized by diarrhea, abdominal pain, and nausea. In most cases, it is caused by a viral, bacterial, or parasitic infection and is self-limiting. However, recent hospital admission or antibiotic treatment can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile toxin as the cause, making stool culture necessary. Additionally, patients who have recently traveled to certain countries or are under the age of five and attend nursery, pre-school, or school may require stool culture. If symptoms persist beyond seven days or if there is blood or mucus in the stool, stool samples should be taken. Vomiting is not a red-flag feature unless it leads to dehydration. Parents should be given safety-net advice on when to seek further medical attention if their child’s condition worsens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old man of South Asian descent presents with bilateral leg swelling. He works as a construction worker and has a history of multiple sexual partners without protection.
During examination, his body weight is 40 kg, and you observe some mouth sores.
The following investigations are conducted:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.0 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 2.0 × 109/l 2.5–7.58 × 109/l
Lymphocytes 1.5 × 109/l 1.5–3.5 × 109/l
Eosinophils 0.8 × 109/l 0.1–0.4 × 109/l
Urine Protein 2+
Cholesterol 4.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
What is the next recommended test for this patient?Your Answer: Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests and Treatment for HIV-Associated Nephropathy
HIV infection is a high possibility in a patient with risk factors and presenting with emaciation, oral ulcers, and lymphopenia. HIV serological testing and a CD4 count should be done urgently to establish the diagnosis. HIV-associated nephropathy is a common complication, with focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis being the most frequent pathological diagnosis. Other variants include membranoproliferative nephropathy, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, and IgA nephropathy. Treatment involves angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors and antiretroviral therapy. Renal biopsy may be necessary, but HIV testing should be performed first. Serum complement levels and anti-nuclear factor may be useful in diagnosing SLE-associated nephropathy or other connective tissue diseases, but the lack of systemic symptoms in this case makes it less likely. Serum IgA levels may be elevated in IgA nephropathy, but it typically presents with haematuria rather than proteinuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a history of gallstones is scheduled for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy in two months. She is currently taking Microgynon 30 (combined oral contraceptive pill) and is concerned about the increased risk of blood clots. What advice should be given to the patient in this scenario?
Your Answer: She should stop Microgynon 7 days before the procedure
Correct Answer: She should stop Microgynon 28 days before the procedure
Explanation:Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a serious condition that can lead to severe health complications and even death. However, it is preventable. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for 2018 to provide recommendations for the assessment and management of patients at risk of VTE in hospital. All patients admitted to the hospital should be assessed individually to identify risk factors for VTE development and bleeding risk. The department of health’s VTE risk assessment tool is recommended for medical and surgical patients. Patients with certain risk factors, such as reduced mobility, surgery, cancer, and comorbidities, are at increased risk of developing VTE. After assessing a patient’s VTE risk, healthcare professionals should compare it to their risk of bleeding to decide whether VTE prophylaxis should be offered. If indicated, VTE prophylaxis should be started as soon as possible.
There are two types of VTE prophylaxis: mechanical and pharmacological. Mechanical prophylaxis includes anti-embolism stockings and intermittent pneumatic compression devices. Pharmacological prophylaxis includes fondaparinux sodium, low molecular weight heparin (LMWH), and unfractionated heparin (UFH). The choice of prophylaxis depends on the patient’s individual risk factors and bleeding risk.
In general, medical patients deemed at risk of VTE after individual assessment are started on pharmacological VTE prophylaxis, provided that the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding and there are no contraindications. Surgical patients at low risk of VTE are treated with anti-embolism stockings, while those at high risk are treated with a combination of stockings and pharmacological prophylaxis.
Patients undergoing certain surgical procedures, such as hip and knee replacements, are recommended to receive pharmacological VTE prophylaxis to reduce the risk of VTE developing post-surgery. For fragility fractures of the pelvis, hip, and proximal femur, LMWH or fondaparinux sodium is recommended for a month if the risk of VTE outweighs the risk of bleeding.
Healthcare professionals should advise patients to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill or hormone replacement therapy four weeks before surgery and mobilize them as soon as possible after surgery. Patients should also ensure they are hydrated. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent VTE and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Correct
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A 47-year-old heavy smoker presents with a persistent cough and occasional wheezing. The chest radiograph reveals hyperinflation but clear lung fields.
What is the next step to assist in making a diagnosis?Your Answer: Spirometry
Explanation:Spirometry: The Best Diagnostic Tool for COPD
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common respiratory condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. To diagnose COPD, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool. According to NICE guidelines, a diagnosis of COPD should be made based on symptoms and signs, but supported by spirometry results. Post-bronchodilator spirometry should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. Airflow obstruction is confirmed by a forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1):forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Other diagnostic tools, such as CT of the chest, serial peak flow readings, and trials of beclomethasone or salbutamol, may have a role in the management of COPD, but they are not used in the diagnosis of the condition. CT of the chest may be used to investigate symptoms that seem disproportionate to the spirometric impairment, to investigate abnormalities seen on a chest radiograph, or to assess suitability for surgery. Serial peak flow readings may be appropriate if there is some doubt about the diagnosis, in order to exclude asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids and short-acting beta agonists may be used in the management of COPD for breathlessness/exercise limitation, but they are not used in the diagnosis of COPD. In summary, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool for COPD, and other diagnostic tools may have a role in the management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after being bitten by a tick. She explains that the tick was removed by her husband using tweezers and is worried about the potential for Lyme disease. She reports no symptoms such as rash, headache, fever, lethargy, or joint pain. Her vital signs are normal and a full physical examination reveals no abnormalities. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Re-assure the patient and provide safety netting advice
Explanation:If a patient has been bitten by a tick but shows no signs of Lyme disease, such as erythema migrans or systemic malaise, prophylactic antibiotics are not necessary. According to NICE guidelines, asymptomatic patients with tick bites do not require ELISA investigation or antibiotic treatment. Referral to secondary care is also unnecessary in this case. The best course of action is to provide reassurance to the patient and advise them to be aware of potential symptoms of Lyme disease.
Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and undergoes a salpingectomy. She is also rhesus negative. What is the advice regarding anti-D?
Your Answer: Await results of indirect coombs test
Correct Answer: Anti-D should be given
Explanation:When managing an ectopic pregnancy through surgery, it is necessary to administer Anti-D immunoglobulin. However, if the ectopic pregnancy is being treated medically or if the location of the pregnancy is unknown, Anti-D is not needed. The Coombs test has two types: Direct Coombs, which is used to detect autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, and Indirect Coombs, which is used during pregnancy to identify antibodies in the mother’s blood that can cause haemolytic disease in the newborn.
Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of painful erythematous lesions on her shins. Which of the following is not commonly associated with this presentation?
Your Answer: Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: Syphilis
Explanation:Erythema nodosum caused by syphilis is uncommon.
Understanding Erythema Nodosum
Erythema nodosum is a condition characterized by inflammation of the subcutaneous fat, resulting in tender, erythematous, nodular lesions. These lesions typically occur over the shins but may also appear on other parts of the body such as the forearms and thighs. The condition usually resolves within six weeks, and the lesions heal without scarring.
There are several possible causes of erythema nodosum, including infections such as streptococci, tuberculosis, and brucellosis. Systemic diseases like sarcoidosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and Behcet’s can also lead to the condition. In some cases, erythema nodosum may be associated with malignancy or lymphoma. Certain drugs like penicillins, sulphonamides, and the combined oral contraceptive pill, as well as pregnancy, can also trigger the condition.
Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of erythema nodosum is important for prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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You are a foundation doctor working in general practice. You review a sixty-five-year-old gentleman with a facial rash. On examination you note a vesicular rash extending to the tip of the nose. Observations are unremarkable.
What is your primary concern?Your Answer: Possible involvement of the iris
Correct Answer: Possible involvement of the cornea
Explanation:The presence of vesicles extending to the tip of the nose, known as Hutchinson’s sign, is strongly linked to shingles affecting the eyes. This is because the trigeminal nerve branch that supplies the cornea and nasal tip is affected. While pneumonia can be associated with herpes, this patient does not exhibit any respiratory symptoms. Despite the potential for post-herpetic neuralgia from the painful rash of shingles, the primary concern for this patient is the ocular involvement indicated by Hutchinson’s sign.
Herpes Zoster Ophthalmicus: Symptoms, Treatment, and Complications
Herpes zoster ophthalmicus (HZO) is a condition that occurs when the varicella-zoster virus reactivates in the area supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It is responsible for approximately 10% of shingles cases. The main symptom of HZO is a vesicular rash around the eye, which may or may not involve the eye itself. Hutchinson’s sign, a rash on the tip or side of the nose, is a strong indicator of nasociliary involvement and increases the risk of ocular involvement.
Treatment for HZO involves oral antiviral medication for 7-10 days, ideally started within 72 hours of symptom onset. Intravenous antivirals may be necessary for severe infections or immunocompromised patients. Topical antiviral treatment is not recommended for HZO, but topical corticosteroids may be used to treat any secondary inflammation of the eye. Ocular involvement requires urgent ophthalmology review to prevent complications such as conjunctivitis, keratitis, episcleritis, anterior uveitis, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
In summary, HZO is a condition caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve. It presents with a vesicular rash around the eye and may involve the eye itself. Treatment involves oral antiviral medication and urgent ophthalmology review is necessary for ocular involvement. Complications of HZO include various eye conditions, ptosis, and post-herpetic neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer: S1
Correct Answer: L5
Explanation:The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old rancher presents to the ER with his spouse. He is experiencing a high fever and excessive sweating. During the examination, multiple black blisters are observed, which are producing a malodorous discharge. What is the typical microorganism linked to this ailment?
Your Answer: Group B streptococci
Correct Answer: Clostridium perfringens
Explanation:Gas gangrene is a severe bacterial infection that can lead to muscle necrosis, sepsis, gas production, and ultimately, death. The infection can occur in two ways: through traumatic or surgical inoculation of a wound with bacteria, or spontaneously, which is often observed in immunocompromised patients. While there are multiple causes of gas gangrene, clostridium perfringens, a type of clostridia species, is frequently implicated. The condition typically begins with pain and progresses to systemic symptoms such as fever and dehydration. Skin changes, including blisters that can burst and produce a foul-smelling discharge, are also common. Movement may produce a crackling sound known as crepitus.
Clostridia: Gram-Positive Anaerobic Bacilli
Clostridia are a group of gram-positive, obligate anaerobic bacilli. There are several species of Clostridia, each with their own unique features and pathologies. C. perfringens produces α-toxin, a lecithinase, which can cause gas gangrene and haemolysis. Symptoms of gas gangrene include tender, oedematous skin with haemorrhagic blebs and bullae, and crepitus may be present on palpation. C. botulinum is typically found in canned foods and honey and can cause flaccid paralysis by preventing the release of acetylcholine. C. difficile is known for causing pseudomembranous colitis, which is often seen after the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics. This species produces both an exotoxin and a cytotoxin. Finally, C. tetani produces an exotoxin called tetanospasmin, which prevents the release of glycine from Renshaw cells in the spinal cord, leading to spastic paralysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 15
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis
Explanation:Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.
Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast
Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a few days a week, but feels better on weekends. She mentions that she works at a hair salon.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for occupational asthma?Your Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work
Explanation:The recommended initial investigation for suspected occupational asthma is serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work, according to SIGN (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) referenced by NICE. CT of the thorax is inappropriate due to high radiation doses and chest radiograph is not part of the initial work-up for occupational asthma as it is unlikely to show specific evidence. Skin-prick testing is only recommended for high-molecular-weight agents and spirometry is not recommended as an initial investigation for occupational asthma, but may be appropriate for surveillance in industries with risk of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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In the differential diagnosis of cognitive decline, which of the following is the single most appropriate statement?
Your Answer: A multi-infarct aetiology is more common than the Alzheimer disease type
Correct Answer: In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic
Explanation:Misconceptions about Dementia: Debunking Common Myths
Dementia is a complex and often misunderstood condition. Here are some common misconceptions about dementia that need to be debunked:
1. In Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease an EEG may be characteristic: An EEG is abnormal in approximately 90% of cases of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease, showing characteristic changes (i.e. periodic sharp wave complexes).
2. A multi-infarct aetiology is more common than the Alzheimer disease type: Multi-infarct dementia is the second most common type of dementia in people aged over 65 years.
3. A CT scan will reliably distinguish between Alzheimer disease and multi-infarct dementia: The diagnosis of both AD and multi-infarct dementia remains essentially a clinical one (and can only be definitively confirmed at autopsy).
4. In Alzheimer disease a gait disorder is seen at an early stage: Gait disturbances are usually a late sign of AD.
5. Visual hallucinations are typical of Alzheimer’s disease: Visual hallucinations, often very vivid and colourful, are typical of dementia with Lewy bodies (DLB) and Parkinson’s disease dementia (PDD), not of AD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometriosis is false?
Your Answer: Is a cause of secondary dysmenorrhoea
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic findings correlate well with the severity of symptoms and can guide treatment
Explanation:Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma
Correct Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old male presents with a 2-day history of feeling unwell and abdominal pain. Upon examination, you note a distended abdomen with guarding and absent bowel sounds. The patient's blood pressure is 88/42 mmHg, and heart rate is 120 bpm. A CT scan reveals a perforation of the sigmoid colon due to a large lesion causing bowel obstruction. The patient undergoes emergency laparotomy. What surgical procedure is most likely to have been performed?
Your Answer: Ileocolic anastomosis
Correct Answer: End colostomy
Explanation:When dealing with an emergency situation where a colonic tumour has caused perforation, it is riskier to perform a colon-colon anastomosis. This is because it could result in an anastomotic leak, which would release bowel contents into the abdomen. Therefore, it is safer to perform an end colostomy, which can be reversed at a later time. Ileostomy, both end and loop, is not suitable for this patient as the perforation is located in the distal colon. Ileocolic anastomoses are generally safe in emergency situations and do not require de-functioning. However, in this case, an ileocolic anastomosis would not be appropriate as the obstructing lesion is in the distal colon rather than the proximal colon.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Correct
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A 47-year-old man with ulcerative colitis visits the GP clinic due to a flare-up. He reports having diarrhoea 5 times a day with small amounts of blood, which has not improved with oral mesalazine. He feels fatigued but is otherwise in good health. The patient's vital signs are as follows:
- Heart rate: 94 beats/minute
- Blood pressure: 121/88 mmHg
- Respiratory rate: 12 breaths/minute
- Temperature: 37.4ºC
- Oxygen saturation: 99% on room air
What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Explanation:If a patient with mild-moderate ulcerative colitis does not respond to topical or oral aminosalicylates, the next step is to add oral corticosteroids. In the case of this patient, who is experiencing five episodes of diarrhea and some blood but is otherwise stable, oral prednisolone is the appropriate treatment option. Intravenous ceftriaxone, intravenous hydrocortisone, and oral amoxicillin with clavulanic acid are not indicated in this situation. Oral azathioprine may be considered after the flare is controlled to prevent future exacerbations.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a cut sustained while helping her mother with gardening. The wound appears superficial and is closed with skin glue. During examination, her vital signs are recorded as a temperature of 36.9ºC, heart rate of 86 bpm, blood pressure of 115/87 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16/min, and oxygen saturation of 98% on room air. The patient's mother is concerned about the need for a tetanus booster as she cannot recall if her daughter received the full course of vaccinations during childhood. How should the patient be managed?
Your Answer: Oral antibiotics
Correct Answer: Tetanus booster vaccine and immunoglobulin
Explanation:If a patient’s tetanus vaccination history is uncertain and the wound is not minor and less than 6 hours old, they should receive a booster vaccine and immunoglobulin. In this case, the patient is 13 years old and should have received 4 or 5 vaccinations against tetanus under the standard UK vaccination schedule. Antibiotics are not necessary if the wound is clean and not deep. It is more efficient to administer the booster while the patient is in the department rather than asking the GP to follow up, which could result in the patient being lost to follow up. The term tetanus level is incorrect as there is no such test.
Tetanus Vaccination and Management of Wounds
The tetanus vaccine is a purified toxin that is given as part of a combined vaccine. In the UK, it is given as part of the routine immunisation schedule at 2, 3, and 4 months, 3-5 years, and 13-18 years, providing a total of 5 doses for long-term protection against tetanus.
When managing wounds, the first step is to classify them as clean, tetanus-prone, or high-risk tetanus-prone. Clean wounds are less than 6 hours old and have negligible tissue damage, while tetanus-prone wounds include puncture-type injuries acquired in a contaminated environment or wounds containing foreign bodies. High-risk tetanus-prone wounds include wounds or burns with systemic sepsis, certain animal bites and scratches, heavy contamination with material likely to contain tetanus spores, wounds or burns with extensive devitalised tissue, and wounds or burns that require surgical intervention.
If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose less than 10 years ago, no vaccine or tetanus immunoglobulin is required regardless of the wound severity. If the patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines with the last dose more than 10 years ago, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required for tetanus-prone wounds, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for high-risk wounds. If the vaccination history is incomplete or unknown, a reinforcing dose of vaccine is required regardless of the wound severity, and a reinforcing dose of vaccine plus tetanus immunoglobulin is required for tetanus-prone and high-risk wounds.
Overall, proper vaccination and wound management are crucial in preventing tetanus infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up. What ECG findings should be considered worrisome?
Your Answer: Type 1 atrioventricular block
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block
Explanation:Left bundle branch block is typically indicative of underlying ischaemic or structural heart disease and is never considered normal. However, there are several normal variants that can appear on an ECG, such as sinus arrhythmia, right axis deviation (common in tall and thin individuals), left axis deviation (common in short, obese individuals), and partial right bundle branch block. Additionally, athletes may exhibit certain normal variants due to their high vagal tone, such as sinus bradycardia and 1st degree atrioventricular block.
Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs
Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 24
Correct
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A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with a decline in his vision. He describes a gradual onset of dark floaters in his vision over the past few months and has recently experienced some episodes of flashing lights when outside in bright sunlight. The patient has a history of hypertension, which is managed with 5mg ramipril daily. He has a smoking history of 45 pack-years, does not consume alcohol, and is able to perform his daily activities independently. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient's vision changes?
Your Answer: Vitreous detachment
Explanation:The patient has flashers and floaters associated with vitreous detachment, which can lead to retinal detachment. This is not central retinal artery occlusion, ischaemic optic neuropathy, macular degeneration, or temporal arteritis.
Sudden loss of vision can be a scary symptom for patients, as it may indicate a serious issue or only be temporary. Transient monocular visual loss (TMVL) is a term used to describe a sudden, brief loss of vision that lasts less than 24 hours. The most common causes of sudden, painless loss of vision include ischaemic/vascular issues (such as thrombosis, embolism, and temporal arteritis), vitreous haemorrhage, retinal detachment, and retinal migraine.
Ischaemic/vascular issues, also known as ‘amaurosis fugax’, have a wide range of potential causes, including large artery disease, small artery occlusive disease, venous disease, and hypoperfusion. Altitudinal field defects are often seen, and ischaemic optic neuropathy can occur due to occlusion of the short posterior ciliary arteries. Central retinal vein occlusion is more common than arterial occlusion and can be caused by glaucoma, polycythaemia, or hypertension. Central retinal artery occlusion is typically caused by thromboembolism or arteritis and may present with an afferent pupillary defect and a ‘cherry red’ spot on a pale retina.
Vitreous haemorrhage can be caused by diabetes, bleeding disorders, or anticoagulants and may present with sudden visual loss and dark spots. Retinal detachment may be preceded by flashes of light or floaters, which are also common in posterior vitreous detachment. Differentiating between posterior vitreous detachment, retinal detachment, and vitreous haemorrhage can be challenging, but each has distinct features such as photopsia and floaters for posterior vitreous detachment, a dense shadow that progresses towards central vision for retinal detachment, and large bleeds causing sudden visual loss for vitreous haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to a gastroenterology clinic with a history of diarrhoea, bloating, and severe abdominal pain for the past 8 months. Her full blood count results are as follows:
Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 190 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 7.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What would be the most appropriate next investigation?Your Answer: Faecal calprotectin
Correct Answer: Serum immunoglobulin IgA tissue transglutaminase antibody (tTGA) and total IgA
Explanation:Investigating Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?Your Answer: Timolol
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care
After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of tingling in both hands that began a month ago and has progressively worsened. He has no significant medical history. During the examination, you observe that the man has large hands, widely spaced teeth, and a prominent brow. You suspect that he may have acromegaly. What is the most suitable initial investigation for acromegaly?
Your Answer: Serum growth hormone
Correct Answer: Serum IGF1 levels
Explanation:Investigations for Acromegaly: Serum IGF1 Levels, CT/MRI Head, and Visual Field Testing
Acromegaly is a condition caused by excess growth hormone (GH) production, often from a pituitary macroadenoma. To diagnose acromegaly, insulin-like growth factor 1 (IGF1) levels are measured instead of GH levels, as IGF1 has a longer half-life and is more stable in the blood. If IGF1 levels are high, a glucose tolerance test is used to confirm the diagnosis. CT scans of the head are not as sensitive as MRI scans for detecting pituitary tumors, which are often the cause of acromegaly. Visual field testing is also important to determine if a pituitary tumor is compressing the optic chiasm, but it is not a specific investigation for acromegaly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the examination, it is observed that when a light is shone in her right eye, both pupils constrict, but when the light is immediately moved to the left eye, both pupils appear to dilate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Left optic neuritis
Explanation:The ‘swinging light test’ can detect a relative afferent pupillary defect, which is indicated by less constriction of the pupils on one side. In this case, the left side is affected, suggesting an underlying condition such as multiple sclerosis causing optic neuritis. Symptoms of optic neuritis may include a dull ache around the eye that worsens with movement, which is common in patients of this age group.
Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.
When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the surgery with a slip from his ex-girlfriend indicating that she has tested positive for Chlamydia. He had sexual intercourse with her 2 months ago and is currently asymptomatic, with no signs of dysuria or discharge. What is the best course of action for managing this situation?
Your Answer: Offer antibiotic therapy
Correct Answer: Offer Chlamydia testing and antibiotic treatment immediately without waiting for the results
Explanation:Treatment is administered based on the individual’s exposure to the infection rather than confirmed infection.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the first doctor to respond. A healthcare assistant on an observation round has found a 72-year-old man unresponsive. You perform a head tilt and chin lift and check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds while listening for breath sounds, but you detect neither.
Telemetry attached to the patient shows sinus rhythm at a rate of 110 bpm. The crash team is being summoned, and the crash trolley is being brought to the bedside. You are unaware of any DNACPR orders.
What is the most appropriate initial step?Your Answer: Administer 1mg adrenaline
Correct Answer: Start chest compressions at a rate of 30:2
Explanation:For a patient in cardiac arrest with a non-shockable rhythm (pulseless-electrical activity), the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilation is 30:2. Therefore, the initial action should be to start chest compressions at this rate. Administering 1 mg adrenaline or 300 mg amiodarone is inappropriate as the first step. Adrenaline may be given once chest compressions have started. Amiodarone is only indicated for patients in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Delivering a single synchronised DC shock or three quick successive stacked unsynchronised DC shocks followed by 2 minutes of 30:2 compressions is incorrect for a patient in PEA, as these are only appropriate for a shockable rhythm while on telemetry.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 31
Incorrect
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You assess a 23-year-old male patient who has newly developed extensive psoriatic plaques on his elbows and knees. He has no prior history of skin issues, but his mother has a history of psoriasis. You suggest using an emollient to manage the scaling. What would be the most suitable initial prescription for treating his plaques?
Your Answer: Topical dithranol
Correct Answer: Topical steroid + topical calcipotriol
Explanation:As a first-line treatment, NICE suggests using a strong corticosteroid and a vitamin D analogue separately, once a day for up to four weeks. The corticosteroid should be applied in the morning and the vitamin D analogue in the evening.
NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner after discovering a firm lump just under her tongue on the right side. She has been experiencing discomfort and mild swelling in the same area while eating for the past few days. She is stable and not running a fever.
What is the most suitable management option for this probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral antibiotics and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
Correct Answer: Short course of NSAIDs and referral to an ENT surgeon
Explanation:Management of Salivary Gland Stones: Recommended Approaches and Guidelines
Salivary gland stones, or sialolithiasis, can cause pain and swelling of the affected gland, triggered by salivary flow stimulation during eating or chewing. If left untreated, these stones can lead to secondary infections, cellulitis, and airway compromise. Here are some recommended approaches and guidelines for managing salivary gland stones:
Referral to an ENT Surgeon and NSAIDs
If a salivary stone is suspected, a referral to an ENT surgeon should be made, with the urgency guided by clinical judgement. Patients should also be advised to remain well hydrated, and NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain.Antibiotics and Referral to an ENT Surgeon
Antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection, typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset. In this case, a referral to an ENT surgeon is also recommended.Oral Antibiotics and NSAIDs
NSAIDs can be used to relieve any pain, but antibiotics should only be used if there is a suspicion of a secondary infection. This is typically suggested by persistent pain and swelling, sometimes with fever and systemic upset.Oral Steroids
Oral steroids have no role in the management of salivary gland stones.Watchful Waiting
Left untreated, salivary gland stones can cause significant stress and psychological distress to patients. Therefore, it is not recommended to adopt a watchful waiting approach. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female patient comes to you seeking emergency contraception after her condom broke last night. She is not currently using any regular form of contraception and is currently on day 20 of her 28-day menstrual cycle. You have discussed the possibility of an intrauterine device, but she has declined. What would be the most suitable course of action among the available options?
Your Answer: Stat dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg + repeat dose levonorgestrel 1.5mg 12 hours later
Correct Answer: Stat dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man came to your GP clinic complaining of blurred vision for the past month. He has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus. During direct ophthalmoscopy, you observed a ring of hard exudates at the fovea, but the rest of the retina appeared normal. What is the probable diagnosis for his vision blurring?
Your Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Diabetic maculopathy
Explanation:Diabetic maculopathy refers to any structural anomaly in the macula caused by diabetes. The patient in this case had hard exudates in the macula, which resulted in blurred vision. As there were no abnormalities in the rest of the retina, options 1-3 (background, pre-proliferative and proliferative diabetic retinopathies) are incorrect. Although vitreous hemorrhage can cause blurred vision in cases of proliferative retinopathy, there is no indication of it in the given history.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness among adults aged 35-65 years old. The condition is caused by hyperglycemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls and damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage causes increased vascular permeability, resulting in exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot hemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous hemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. Treatment options include intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors for maculopathy, regular observation for non-proliferative retinopathy, and panretinal laser photocoagulation and intravitreal VEGF inhibitors for proliferative retinopathy. Vitreoretinal surgery may be necessary in cases of severe or vitreous hemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is being evaluated for cognitive impairment with concerns about a movement disorder. As part of his evaluation, he undergoes cross-sectional brain imaging and a dopamine Transporter Scan (DaTscan). The results show reduced dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra bilaterally on the DaTscan and age-related changes on the MRI head. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Alzheimer’s dementia
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Neurodegenerative Disorders: A Comparison of Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Dementia, Frontotemporal Dementia, Huntington’s Disease, and Vascular Dementia
Neurodegenerative disorders can be difficult to differentiate due to overlapping symptoms. Parkinson’s disease, for example, involves the death of neurones in the substantia nigra and is often confirmed through the use of DaTscan, which visualises dopamine transporter levels in the brain. Dementia is a common complication of Parkinson’s disease, affecting 20-40% of patients and causing cognitive, mood, and behavioural changes.
Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is characterised by cortical atrophy visible on CT and MRI scans and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects behaviour and language and is also not typically associated with movement disorders.
Huntington’s disease is another basal ganglia disorder, but it primarily involves cell loss in the striatum, leading to chorea – uncontrollable limb movements. CT and MRI scans can show loss of striatal volume in moderate-to-severe cases, but early scans may appear normal.
Vascular dementia, the second most common cause of dementia after Alzheimer’s, often has a history of cerebral vascular disease and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Understanding the unique characteristics of each neurodegenerative disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old boy is presented to the emergency department following an episode of syncope. According to his friends, he was laughing at a joke and suddenly collapsed to the ground. The school teacher called for an ambulance, and he recovered within 15 minutes. His school reports indicate that he often dozes off during classes and was recently disciplined for this behavior. What could be the probable reason for his condition?
Your Answer: Generalised epilepsy
Correct Answer: Cataplexy
Explanation:It is probable that the patient experienced cataplexy, as indicated by their laughter and history of excessive sleepiness during classes, which suggests a potential diagnosis of narcolepsy. While cardiac syncope is a possibility, further investigations such as an ECG and transthoracic echocardiogram would be necessary to rule it out. Absence seizures are unlikely due to the absence of blank staring, and generalized epilepsy is also improbable as it typically involves longer-lasting tonic-clonic seizures with a slower recovery time.
Understanding Cataplexy
Cataplexy is a condition characterized by a sudden and temporary loss of muscle control triggered by intense emotions such as laughter or fear. It is commonly associated with narcolepsy, with around two-thirds of patients experiencing cataplexy. The symptoms of cataplexy can vary from mild buckling of the knees to complete collapse.
This condition can be debilitating and can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. It can also be challenging to diagnose, as the symptoms can be mistaken for other conditions such as seizures or fainting spells. Treatment options for cataplexy include medication and lifestyle changes, such as avoiding triggers that can cause emotional responses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He reports experiencing some discomfort behind his ear but otherwise feels fine. Upon examination, a left-sided facial nerve palsy is observed, affecting the face from forehead to chin. Both tympanic membranes appear normal.
What is the probable cause of this condition?Your Answer: Syphilis
Correct Answer: Bell’s palsy
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management
Bell’s palsy is a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve that typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy. It is caused by a unilateral, lower motor neuron lesion, affecting the muscles controlling facial expression on one side only. The forehead is involved in Bell’s palsy, unlike in upper motor neuron lesions such as a cerebrovascular accident.
Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is associated with severe pain and caused by herpes zoster virus, and transient ischaemic attack/stroke, which is the sudden onset of focal neurological signs that completely resolve within 24 hours.
Syphilis and vasculitis are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy. Syphilis has various stages, with primary syphilis presenting with a chancre and secondary syphilis characterized by multi-system involvement. Vasculitis has many different types, including Churg–Strauss syndrome, temporal arteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henloch–Schönlein purpura, and polymyalgia rheumatica.
Management of Bell’s palsy includes reassurance and meticulous eye care to prevent complications such as corneal abrasions. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, are effective if given within 72 hours of onset. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of Bell’s palsy is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?
Your Answer: Clopidogrel
Correct Answer: Alteplase
Explanation:During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.
Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old woman presents to the clinic after undergoing a lumpectomy for a cancerous lump in her left breast. The histopathology report indicates that the tissue was oestrogen receptor-positive, and the patient is offered anastrozole therapy as adjuvant treatment. She has no significant medical history and is not currently taking any medications. The patient is eager to begin the recommended adjuvant therapy. What diagnostic tests should be conducted before initiating treatment?
Your Answer: Liver function blood tests
Correct Answer: DEXA scan
Explanation:Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, is a recommended adjuvant therapy for patients with oestrogen positive cancer (ER+). However, it may lead to osteoporosis as an adverse effect. Therefore, NICE recommends performing a DEXA scan before initiating therapy. A clotting screen is not necessary before starting anastrozole, as it does not cause coagulopathies. ECGs are not required either, as cardiac changes and arrhythmias are not associated with this medication. Unlike certain medications like statins, anastrozole is not known to commonly affect lipid profiles, so it does not need to be monitored. Liver function tests are also not routinely assessed before starting anastrozole, as it is not known to affect liver function. However, it would have been appropriate to send a clotting screen before the patient’s lumpectomy.
Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old female is hospitalized due to a pulmonary embolism. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, and schizophrenia. The patient is taking ramipril, olanzapine, metformin, gliclazide, and sodium valproate. The junior doctors are hesitant to start her on warfarin due to a potential interaction that could affect the dosage. Which medication is causing this interaction?
Your Answer: Gliclazide
Correct Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 41
Correct
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A 47-year-old man presents with complaints of fever, back pain, and painful urination. Upon examination, suprapubic tenderness and tender prostate are noted. The diagnosis of acute prostatitis is suspected. What is the most suitable treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:Immediate antibiotic therapy should be initiated for men suspected of having prostatitis. While urine cultures and sexual health screening are important, treatment should not be delayed. According to NICE, quinolone antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin 500 mg twice daily or ofloxacin 200 mg twice daily should be administered for 28 days to treat acute prostatitis. If these antibiotics are not suitable, trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily for 28 days is recommended. Pain management through analgesia should also be provided, and patients should be reevaluated within 24 to 48 hours.
Antibiotic Guidelines for Common Infections
Respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, skin infections, ear, nose, and throat infections, genital infections, and gastrointestinal infections are some of the most common infections that require antibiotic treatment. The British National Formulary (BNF) provides guidelines for the appropriate use of antibiotics for these infections.
For respiratory infections such as chronic bronchitis, community-acquired pneumonia, and hospital-acquired pneumonia, antibiotics such as amoxicillin, tetracycline, clarithromycin, co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, piperacillin with tazobactam, ceftazidime, or ciprofloxacin are recommended depending on the severity and type of infection.
For urinary tract infections, lower urinary tract infections can be treated with trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin, while acute pyelonephritis requires broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone. Acute prostatitis can be treated with quinolone or trimethoprim.
Skin infections such as impetigo, cellulitis, erysipelas, and animal or human bites require antibiotics such as topical hydrogen peroxide, oral flucloxacillin, erythromycin, doxycycline, clarithromycin, or metronidazole depending on the severity and type of infection.
Ear, nose, and throat infections such as throat infections, sinusitis, otitis media, otitis externa, periapical or periodontal abscess, and acute necrotising ulcerative gingivitis require antibiotics such as phenoxymethylpenicillin, amoxicillin, erythromycin, or flucloxacillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Genital infections such as gonorrhoea, chlamydia, pelvic inflammatory disease, syphilis, and bacterial vaginosis require antibiotics such as intramuscular ceftriaxone, doxycycline, azithromycin, ofloxacin, metronidazole, or benzathine benzylpenicillin depending on the severity and type of infection.
Gastrointestinal infections such as Clostridioides difficile, Campylobacter enteritis, Salmonella (non-typhoid), and Shigellosis require antibiotics such as oral vancomycin, oral fidaxomicin, clarithrom
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily
Explanation:Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments
When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.
For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.
It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.
When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.
Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.
In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 43
Incorrect
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As the GPST1 in the emergency department, you are requested to assess a 34-year-old woman who fell and struck her head while drinking three hours ago. Your consultant instructs you to confirm the absence of any clinical indications of a base of skull fracture. Which of the following is not linked to a base of skull injury?
Your Answer: CSF otorrhoea
Correct Answer: Stellwag's sign
Explanation:The base of the skull is made up of three bony fossae: the anterior, middle, and posterior. These structures provide support for various internal structures within the cranium. If these bones are fractured, it can result in damage to associated neurovascular structures, which can have external manifestations in areas such as the nasal cavity or auditory canal. Bleeding from ruptured vessels can lead to haemotympanum or Battle’s sign in the mastoid area, while ruptured CSF spaces can cause CSF rhinorrhoea and otorrhoea. Stellwag’s sign, on the other hand, is not related to base of skull trauma and refers to reduced blinking.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. There are different types of traumatic brain injuries, including extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, and secondary brain injury can occur due to cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, or herniation. Management may include IV mannitol/frusemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of dysmenorrhoea and deep dyspareunia that she has been experiencing for the past 4 years. She reports severe pain during her menstrual cycle and feels nauseous. Additionally, she mentions that she and her partner have been trying to conceive for 2 years without any success. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Correct Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Endometriosis is characterized by pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, dyspareunia, and subfertility. The main indicators of this condition are cyclic abdominal pain and deep dyspareunia, which may be accompanied by fertility issues. Unlike endometriosis, pelvic inflammatory disease does not typically cause pain during menstruation. A bicornuate uterus, which is a congenital anomaly resulting in a heart-shaped uterus, is associated with a higher risk of recurrent miscarriages. Cervical carcinomas are usually accompanied by abnormal bleeding, such as post-coital and inter-menstrual bleeding, but they are unlikely to have been present for as long as three years.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old football player comes to the GP clinic complaining of a loss of motor function in his left leg. He denies any specific injuries and has an important game next week that he's been anxious about. He enters the room using crutches. During the examination, it is found that he has 0/5 power in his left knee, ankle, and toes. The rest of the neurological and musculoskeletal examination is unremarkable. Blood tests and a lumbar MRI come back normal, making an organic cause for his symptoms unlikely. He is eager to know the reason behind his condition so that he can resume his training.
What is the most probable cause of his symptoms?Your Answer: Somatisation disorder
Correct Answer: Conversion disorder
Explanation:It is probable that the patient is experiencing conversion disorder, which is often triggered by stress and involves the loss of motor or sensory function. The potential grand final rugby game may have been the stressor in this case.
Somatisation disorder is unlikely as it requires the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, whereas this patient has only one acute onset symptom. Dissociative disorder is also improbable as there are no evident psychiatric symptoms such as amnesia, stupor, or fugue. The patient remembers clearly that he has a football game and has not sustained any recent injuries.
However, factitious disorder cannot be ruled out entirely. It is possible that the patient is feigning the symptom to avoid playing the game, but further investigation is necessary. The patient claims to be eager to return to playing, which does not support the notion of factitious disorder.
Psychiatric Terms for Unexplained Symptoms
There are various psychiatric terms used to describe patients who exhibit symptoms for which no organic cause can be found. One such disorder is somatisation disorder, which involves the presence of multiple physical symptoms for at least two years, and the patient’s refusal to accept reassurance or negative test results. Another disorder is illness anxiety disorder, which is characterized by a persistent belief in the presence of an underlying serious disease, such as cancer, despite negative test results.
Conversion disorder is another condition that involves the loss of motor or sensory function, and the patient does not consciously feign the symptoms or seek material gain. Patients with this disorder may be indifferent to their apparent disorder, a phenomenon known as la belle indifference. Dissociative disorder, on the other hand, involves the process of ‘separating off’ certain memories from normal consciousness, and may manifest as amnesia, fugue, or stupor. Dissociative identity disorder (DID) is the most severe form of dissociative disorder and was previously known as multiple personality disorder.
Factitious disorder, also known as Munchausen’s syndrome, involves the intentional production of physical or psychological symptoms. Finally, malingering is the fraudulent simulation or exaggeration of symptoms with the intention of financial or other gain. Understanding these psychiatric terms can help healthcare professionals better diagnose and treat patients with unexplained symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 46
Incorrect
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An 87-year-old woman presents to the Haematology Clinic to review her latest blood test results. These show that her international normalised ratio (INR) is 8.9 (normal range: 2–3). She usually takes warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The patient's General Practitioner has telephoned her to advise that she stop taking the warfarin. The patient says that she feels well and is asymptomatic.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient's management?Your Answer: Give vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in one week
Correct Answer: Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours
Explanation:Managing High INR Levels in Patients on Warfarin: Treatment Options
When a patient on warfarin presents with a high INR level, it is important to take immediate action to prevent spontaneous bleeding and haemorrhage. Here are some treatment options and their implications:
1. Give a dose of vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: Administering vitamin K is necessary to reverse the effects of warfarin, which is a vitamin K antagonist. In this situation, it is important to act quickly to reduce the INR level and prevent haemorrhage.
2. Give intramuscular (IM) vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in 24 hours: While IM vitamin K can be given in cases where peripheral access is difficult, it is slower acting. In a situation with a high INR level, it is important to reduce the INR as soon as possible to prevent haemorrhage.
3. Give vitamin K immediately and re-check her INR in one week: While giving vitamin K is necessary to prevent spontaneous haemorrhage, it is important to recheck the INR relatively soon to ensure it has dropped below the required range. Waiting a week would be too long, and the INR should be rechecked within 24 hours of administering vitamin K.
4. Stop warfarin for life: If the patient has no actual side-effects from warfarin, such as anaphylaxis, they can continue to use it long-term with tighter control.
5. Switch from warfarin to aspirin: Aspirin cannot be used as a substitute for warfarin as it does not prevent thrombosis.
In conclusion, managing high INR levels in patients on warfarin requires prompt action to prevent haemorrhage. Vitamin K administration is necessary, and the INR level should be rechecked within 24 hours to ensure it has dropped below the required range.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman is admitted to the medical ward with a 4-week history of fevers and lethargy. During the examination, you observe a few splinter haemorrhages in the fingernails and a loud systolic murmur at the apex. Your consultant advises you to obtain 3 sets of blood cultures and to schedule an echocardiogram. Microbiology contacts you later that day with the preliminary blood culture findings.
What organism is the most probable cause of the growth?Your Answer: Gram negative cocci
Correct Answer: Gram positive cocci
Explanation:Gram positive cocci are responsible for the majority of bacterial endocarditis cases. The most common culprits include Streptococcus viridans, Staphylococcus aureus (in individuals who use intravenous drugs or have prosthetic valves), and Staphylococcus epidermidis (in those with prosthetic valves). Other less common causes include Enterococcus, Streptococcus bovis, Candida, HACEK group, and Coxiella burnetii. Acute endocarditis is typically caused by Staphylococcus, while subacute cases are usually caused by Streptococcus species. Knowing the common underlying organisms is crucial for determining appropriate empirical antibiotic therapy. For native valve endocarditis, amoxicillin and gentamicin are recommended. Vancomycin and gentamicin are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis, penicillin allergy, or suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Vancomycin and meropenem are recommended for NVE with severe sepsis and risk factors for gram-negative infection. For prosthetic valve endocarditis, vancomycin, gentamicin, and rifampicin are recommended. Once blood culture results are available, antibiotic therapy can be adjusted to provide specific coverage. Treatment typically involves long courses (4-6 weeks) of intravenous antibiotic therapy.
Aetiology of Infective Endocarditis
Infective endocarditis is a condition that affects patients with previously normal valves, rheumatic valve disease, prosthetic valves, congenital heart defects, intravenous drug users, and those who have recently undergone piercings. The strongest risk factor for developing infective endocarditis is a previous episode of the condition. The mitral valve is the most commonly affected valve.
The most common cause of infective endocarditis is Staphylococcus aureus, particularly in acute presentations and intravenous drug users. Historically, Streptococcus viridans was the most common cause, but this is no longer the case except in developing countries. Streptococcus mitis and Streptococcus sanguinis are the two most notable viridans streptococci, commonly found in the mouth and dental plaque. Coagulase-negative Staphylococci such as Staphylococcus epidermidis are the most common cause of endocarditis in patients following prosthetic valve surgery.
Streptococcus bovis is associated with colorectal cancer, with the subtype Streptococcus gallolyticus being most linked to the condition. Non-infective causes of endocarditis include systemic lupus erythematosus and malignancy. Culture negative causes may be due to prior antibiotic therapy or infections caused by Coxiella burnetii, Bartonella, Brucella, or HACEK organisms (Haemophilus, Actinobacillus, Cardiobacterium, Eikenella, Kingella).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been referred by her General Practitioner (GP), as she is passing a substantial volume of urine. She complains that she is continuously thirsty.
Random plasma reveals the following:
Investigation Result Normal values
Sodium (Na+) 155 mmol
Osmolality 300 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 4.5 mmol
Urine analysis reveals the following:
Investigation Result
Osmolality 90 mOsmol/kg
Glucose 0.1 mmol/l
In healthy patients, the urine : plasma osmolality ratio is > 2.
A water deprivation test reveals the following:
After 6.5 hours of fluid deprivation, the patient’s weight had dropped by > 3%, and the serum osmolality was 310 mOsmol/kg. Urine osmolality at this stage was 210 mOsmol/kg. The patient was then given desmopressin intramuscularly (IM) and allowed to drink. The urine osmolality increased to 700 mOsmol/kg, and her plasma osmolality was 292 mOsmol/kg.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary polydipsia
Correct Answer: A pituitary tumour
Explanation:Diagnosing Cranial Diabetes Insipidus: A Pituitary Tumour as the Likely Cause
Cranial diabetes insipidus (DI) is a condition where the kidneys are unable to reabsorb free water, resulting in excessive water loss. The most likely cause of this condition is reduced antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion, which can be caused by a pituitary tumour. In this case, the patient’s low urine osmolality and reduced response to the water deprivation test confirm the presence of cranial DI.
Chronic renal disease and lithium therapy can also cause nephrogenic DI, but the patient’s response to desmopressin im excludes these as potential causes. Diabetes mellitus may cause polydipsia and polyuria, but it also presents with glycosuria and hyperglycaemia. Primary polydipsia, characterized by a compulsive desire to drink, can cause low urine osmolality, but the patient’s ability to concentrate urine to some extent excludes this as a likely cause.
In conclusion, a pituitary tumour is the most likely cause of the patient’s cranial DI, as confirmed by the water deprivation test and response to desmopressin im.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
Your Answer: Serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
Correct Answer: Serum electrophoresis
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man presents to your clinic after a routine blood test showed abnormal liver function tests. He denies any alcohol consumption and his hepatitis screen is negative. His cholesterol level is 4.2 and his HBA1c is 38ml/mol. He has a body mass index of 31 kg/m² and an ultrasound reveals non-alcoholic fatty liver disease. What is the most suitable approach to manage this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diet and exercise
Explanation:The primary management approach for NAFLD is weight loss, achieved through diet and exercise. Medications have not shown to be effective in improving the condition’s outcome.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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