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Question 1
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the examination, it is observed that when a light is shone in her right eye, both pupils constrict, but when the light is immediately moved to the left eye, both pupils appear to dilate. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Left optic neuritis
Explanation:The ‘swinging light test’ can detect a relative afferent pupillary defect, which is indicated by less constriction of the pupils on one side. In this case, the left side is affected, suggesting an underlying condition such as multiple sclerosis causing optic neuritis. Symptoms of optic neuritis may include a dull ache around the eye that worsens with movement, which is common in patients of this age group.
Understanding Relative Afferent Pupillary Defect
A relative afferent pupillary defect, also known as the Marcus-Gunn pupil, is a condition that can be identified through the swinging light test. This condition is caused by a lesion that is located anterior to the optic chiasm, which can be found in the optic nerve or retina.
When conducting the swinging light test, the affected eye will appear to dilate when light is shone on it, while the normal eye will not. This is due to the fact that the afferent pathway of the pupillary light reflex is disrupted. The pathway starts from the retina, then goes through the optic nerve, lateral geniculate body, and midbrain. The efferent pathway, on the other hand, starts from the Edinger-Westphal nucleus in the midbrain and goes through the oculomotor nerve.
There are various causes of relative afferent pupillary defect, such as retina detachment and optic neuritis, which is commonly associated with multiple sclerosis. Understanding this condition is important in diagnosing and treating patients who may be experiencing vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl became acutely ill last week with vomiting, high fevers (maximum temperature of 39.5 °C) and weakness. Her mother took the girl to the general practitioner (GP) on day two of the illness, and he suggested she had gastroenteritis and that it should resolve itself in a week. However, the girl continues to be very ill and has now developed a non-blanching petechial rash on her abdomen.
Blood tests show many blasts in the periphery, low platelets and severe anaemia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute myeloblastic leukaemia (AML)
Correct Answer: Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL)
Explanation:Types of Leukaemia: Characteristics and Symptoms
Leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. There are different types of leukaemia, each with its own characteristics and symptoms. Here are some of the most common types:
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL): This is the most common type of leukaemia in children, usually presenting before the age of five. It is associated with a clonal expansion of immature lymphoid progenitor cells, leading to anaemia, thrombocytopenia, and increased susceptibility to infections. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, generalised lymphadenopathy, new-onset bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and superimposed infections. Treatment is with pegaspargase.
Hairy-cell leukaemia: This is a B-cell leukaemia usually affecting middle-aged men. The malignant cells have cytoplasmic projections that make them look hairy, hence the name.
Acute myeloblastic leukaemia (AML): This is a type of leukaemia that is most commonly seen in adults. It can be of various types, but one that is commonly assessed is promyelocytic leukaemia M3 that is characterised by cells with dark, pink, needle-like intracytoplasmic inclusions called Auer rods. This is a very aggressive form of leukaemia.
Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL): This is a disease most commonly seen in the elderly and is usually of B-cell origin. Blood smear findings commonly refer to ‘smudge cells’, which is a result of the fragile cells breaking during preparation of the smear.
Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML): This is a disease most commonly seen in middle-aged adults and is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome, a chimeric chromosome formed by the translocation of part of chromosome 9 to chromosome 22.
In conclusion, leukaemia is a serious disease that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Knowing the characteristics and symptoms of each type can help in early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin
Explanation:Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines
Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.
Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.
It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes is found to have an elevated plasma creatinine of 150 μmol/l (reference range 62–106 μmol/l). Her blood pressure is 170/95 mmHg, and fundoscopy reveals mild hypertensive changes and background diabetic retinopathy. She has a neuroischaemic ulcer on her left foot and no palpable pedal pulses. Urine dipstick is negative, and renal ultrasound shows a 8.5-cm left kidney and a 6.2-cm right kidney, with reduced cortical thickness.
What is the most likely cause of the renal impairment?Your Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Renal Dysfunction and Their Clinical Features
Renal dysfunction can have various causes, and identifying the underlying condition is crucial for appropriate management. Here are some common causes of renal dysfunction and their clinical features:
Renal artery stenosis (RAS): RAS can lead to renovascular hypertension and renal impairment, especially in older individuals with atherosclerosis or diabetes mellitus. Symptoms may include sudden worsening of hypertension or renal function, and ultrasonography may show kidney size asymmetry. Treatment options include pharmacologic control of hypertension and serum cholesterol levels, as well as surgical or percutaneous revascularisation in selected cases.
Membranous nephropathy: This is a type of nephrotic syndrome that often presents with oedema and significant proteinuria (>3.5 g/24 h). It is more common in adults and may be asymptomatic in some cases.
Cholesterol emboli syndrome: This condition may occur after an invasive arterial procedure and is characterised by renal dysfunction, hypertension, and distal ischaemia due to small-vessel occlusion. Livedo reticularis and blue toe syndrome may also be present.
Diabetic glomerulosclerosis: This is a complication of diabetes mellitus that can cause persistent albuminuria, declining glomerular filtration rate, and elevated blood pressure. Physical findings associated with long-term diabetes may also be present.
Reflux nephropathy: This condition is caused by the backflow of urine from the bladder to the kidneys and can lead to renal scarring. It is more common in children with urinary tract abnormalities but can also occur in adults with bladder outlet obstruction or neurogenic bladder. Symptoms may include nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infection.
In summary, renal dysfunction can have diverse causes and presentations, and a thorough evaluation is necessary to establish the diagnosis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 68-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of central chest pain that started 8 hours ago. The pain is spreading to his left jaw. He has a medical history of hypertension and hyperlipidaemia.
Upon conducting an ECG, it shows ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Troponin levels are significantly elevated. The patient is given 300mg of aspirin and sublingual glyceryl trinitrate.
Unfortunately, the nearest hospital that can provide primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is 4 hours away. What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Administer fibrinolysis
Explanation:For the management of STEMI, guidelines recommend primary PCI within 120 minutes of presentation or within 12 hours of symptom onset. As this patient presented with 10 hours of pain and transfer to the nearest hospital for PCI would take 3 hours, fibrinolysis should be offered instead. Giving unfractionated heparin and a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitor is inappropriate in this case. The patient should not be immediately transferred for PCI, but if the ST elevation is not resolved on a repeat ECG taken 90 minutes after fibrinolysis, then transfer for PCI should be considered. Rechecking troponin in 120 minutes is not necessary, and repeating an ECG in 120 minutes is not the next most important step. Administering fibrinolysis and taking a repeat ECG at the 90-minute mark are the appropriate next steps.
Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines
Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.
ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.
For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.
This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 6
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She had her last period 6 weeks ago and is sexually active without using any hormonal contraception. She has no significant medical history. Upon examination, she has a heart rate of 84 bpm and a blood pressure of 128/78 mmHg. There is tenderness in the left iliac fossa. A pregnancy test confirms that she is pregnant, and further investigations reveal a 40 mm left adnexal mass with no heartbeat. The serum b-hCG level is 6200 IU/L. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?
Your Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring
Explanation:For women with no other risk factors for infertility, salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, rather than salpingotomy. In the case of a patient with acute-onset abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding after 6-8 weeks following her last period, a positive pregnancy test, and ultrasound findings confirming an ectopic pregnancy, laparoscopic salpingectomy and monitoring is the correct course of action. This is especially true if the size of the ectopic pregnancy is greater than 35 mm and the beta-hCG levels are higher than 5000 IU/L. Salpingotomy may require further treatment with methotrexate and may not remove the ectopic pregnancy entirely, making salpingectomy the preferred method. Expectant management and monitoring, laparoscopic salpingotomy and monitoring, and methotrexate and monitoring are all inappropriate for this patient’s case.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 7
Correct
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A 57-year-old male patient with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension is admitted to a surgical ward for a routine cholecystectomy. He is currently taking metformin 500mg BD, gliclazide 120 mg BD, ramipril 5mg, and atorvastatin 20 mg. The nurse on the morning drug round asks the doctor if they should administer the morning dose of gliclazide, as the surgery is scheduled for 9 am. What should the doctor advise the nurse?
Your Answer: The morning dose of gliclazide should be held but the afternoon dose can be given
Explanation:On the day of surgery, sulfonylureas should be omitted, except for patients who take them twice a day. In this case, the morning dose should be withheld, and the afternoon dose given after the surgery. This is because there is a risk of hypoglycemia in the fasted state before surgery. Withholding both doses or withholding for 24 or 48 hours is incorrect. The BNF website provides a comprehensive guide for managing diabetic patients on insulin and anti-diabetic drugs during surgery, including information on when to introduce variable rate insulin infusions and withholding anti-diabetic medications.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 8
Correct
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A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: No further testing required, start treatment
Explanation:Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST
Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.
Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.
Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man presents with recurrent, intense pain in his right flank area. A urine dipstick reveals the presence of blood and a CT KUB confirms the presence of a 7mm stone in the right ureter. The patient is administered intramuscular diclofenac to alleviate the pain. What other type of medication could potentially be helpful in this situation?
Your Answer: Benzodiazepine
Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic blocker
Explanation:Calcium channel blockers may be utilized to assist in the natural passage of the stone.
The management of renal stones involves initial medication and investigations, including an NSAID for analgesia and a non-contrast CT KUB for imaging. Stones less than 5mm may pass spontaneously, but more intensive treatment is needed for ureteric obstruction or renal abnormalities. Treatment options include shockwave lithotripsy, ureteroscopy, and percutaneous nephrolithotomy. Prevention strategies include high fluid intake, low animal protein and salt diet, and medication such as thiazides diuretics for hypercalciuria and allopurinol for uric acid stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worries about the condition of his left eye. He is a smoker. Upon examination of his left eye, the doctor observes a constricted pupil and partial ptosis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Horner syndrome
Explanation:Disorders Affecting the Eye: Symptoms and Causes
Horner Syndrome, Holmes-Adie Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis (MS), Myasthenia Gravis (MG), and Riley-Day Syndrome are all disorders that can affect the eye. Horner Syndrome is caused by an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye, resulting in a constricted pupil, partial ptosis, and a loss of hemifacial sweating. Holmes-Adie Syndrome is caused by damage to the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers or the ciliary ganglion, resulting in a tonically dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light. MS is characterized by optic neuritis, which causes decreased pupillary light reaction, visual reduction, abnormal contrast sensitivity, and changes to color vision. MG is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but does not affect the pupils. Riley-Day Syndrome, also known as familial dysautonomia, affects the development and survival of sensory, sympathetic, and some parasympathetic neurons in the autonomic and sensory nervous systems, but is not consistent with the presentation described.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man is brought in by ambulance after falling off a 6-foot ladder and hitting his head. He has a deep laceration to the lateral left knee and is being kept overnight for observations. An x-ray of the left leg shows no fractures. He has a history of hypercholesterolemia.
During the night, he is using the maximum dose of prescribed PRN morphine due to pain in his left leg. The doctor is called to review the patient and on examination, there is reduced sensation on the medial aspect of the plantar left foot.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve injury
Correct Answer: Compartment syndrome
Explanation:Compartment syndrome is the likely diagnosis in this case, as excessive use of breakthrough analgesia and a history of trauma followed by lower limb pain should raise suspicion. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure builds up in a compartment due to oedema and blood, resulting in venous compression and compromised transferring nerves. In this case, the patient’s medial plantar nerve has been compromised, leading to reduced sensation in the medial aspect of the plantar foot and paresthesia. The fact that the patient is using the maximum dose of PRN morphine should raise clinical suspicion of compartment syndrome, as it can be extremely painful. Pallor is a late sign, and x-rays may not show any findings in the context of compartment syndrome.
Acute limb ischaemia is an unlikely diagnosis, as the usual presenting complaint is pain with associated pallor from reduced arterial perfusion, which is not present in this case. Common peroneal nerve injury is also unlikely, as this nerve supplies the dorsum and lateral aspects of the foot, whereas the medial plantar nerve has been compromised in this case. Posttraumatic osteomyelitis is also an unlikely diagnosis, as it typically presents more than 48 hours after the trauma, and the loss of sensation in the medial aspect of the plantar foot cannot be explained by this condition.
Compartment syndrome is a complication that can occur after fractures or vascular injuries. It is characterized by increased pressure within a closed anatomical space, which can lead to tissue death. Supracondylar fractures and tibial shaft injuries are the most common fractures associated with compartment syndrome. Symptoms include pain, numbness, paleness, and possible paralysis of the affected muscle group. Diagnosis is made by measuring intracompartmental pressure, with pressures over 20 mmHg being abnormal and over 40mmHg being diagnostic. X-rays typically do not show any pathology. Treatment involves prompt and extensive fasciotomies, with careful attention to decompressing deep muscles in the lower limb. Patients may develop myoglobinuria and require aggressive IV fluids. In severe cases, debridement and amputation may be necessary, as muscle death can occur within 4-6 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A middle-aged patient presents with lethargy, weight loss and fainting episodes. In the Emergency Department, a postural drop in blood pressure is noted of > 20 mmHg systolic from the supine to the standing position. Blood glucose is 2.9 mmol/l, and Na+ is 122 mmol/l.
What is the cause of this patient's condition?Your Answer: Decreased cortisol; increased aldosterone
Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; decreased aldosterone
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease: Hormonal Imbalances and Clinical Presentation
Addison’s disease, or primary adrenal failure, is a condition characterized by autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex, resulting in reduced levels of cortisol and aldosterone. This hormonal imbalance leads to a range of clinical symptoms, including hypotension, hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, acidosis, and skin and mucosal hyperpigmentation.
While other hormonal imbalances may occur in the adrenal glands, such as increased cortisol or aldosterone, they are less likely to result in the clinical presentation of Addison’s disease. For example, increased cortisol is unlikely due to autoimmune destruction of the zona fasciculata, while increased aldosterone is rare and typically caused by an adrenal adenoma. Similarly, decreased cortisol with normal aldosterone is more commonly associated with secondary adrenal failure caused by pituitary disease, but does not fit with the hyponatraemia seen in Addison’s disease.
Overall, understanding the hormonal imbalances and clinical presentation of Addison’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his GP complaining of nasal congestion, facial pain, a runny nose, and a decreased sense of smell that has been ongoing for three months. He has a history of seasonal allergies. Upon palpation of the maxillofacial area, tenderness is noted. No visible nasal polyps are present.
What are the primary symptoms of chronic sinusitis?Your Answer: Cough
Correct Answer: Facial pain and/or pressure
Explanation:Understanding the Symptoms of Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the sinuses that lasts for at least 12 weeks. To diagnose this condition, doctors look for specific symptoms that are indicative of chronic sinusitis. These symptoms include nasal obstruction, nasal discharge, facial pain and pressure, and loss of smell sensation.
Facial pain and pressure are common symptoms of chronic sinusitis, and they are caused by congestion of the sinuses. Pain is typically felt over the maxillary, ethmoid, and frontal sinuses, which can be palpated by a doctor during an examination. Coughing is not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but it may be present in some patients and could indicate an underlying condition such as asthma or COPD.
Nasal polyps are not a major symptom of chronic sinusitis, but they can be present in some individuals with this condition. The presence of nasal polyps indicates a variant of chronic sinusitis, which may require different management strategies.
It is important to note that symptoms must last for at least 12 weeks without resolution before a diagnosis of chronic rhinosinusitis can be made. If symptoms last for less than 12 weeks, the criteria for chronic rhinosinusitis are not met. While patients may be experiencing chronic sinusitis before the 12-week mark, doctors must wait for this duration to confirm the diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and irritation in his mouth and throat on two or three occasions in the past year. Most recently, he suffered from swelling of his throat and difficulty breathing after receiving a local anaesthetic for tooth extraction at the dentist. He reports that his father died of a suspected allergic reaction when he was 42 years old.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 341 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 5 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
Patch testing Mild reaction to grass pollens
C4 Low
C3 Normal
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?Your Answer: Acquired angio-oedema
Correct Answer: Hereditary angio-oedema
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for this patient is hereditary angio-oedema, also known as hereditary angioneurotic oedema. This is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a congenital deficiency of the C1 inhibitor protein, which is mapped to chromosome 11. In some cases, C1 inhibitor levels are normal but have reduced function. Symptoms typically appear during adolescence and include recurrent attacks of pain, tingling, or itching, particularly around the mouth and pharynx, which may be triggered by increased circulating sex steroids or dental anaesthesia using lidocaine. Diagnosis is made by measuring complement levels, with C4 always low during attacks and often low in between, while C3 and C1q are always normal. Treatment involves using C1 inhibitor concentrate during acute attacks and danazol to increase C4 levels and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated due to the risk of bradykinin accumulation. Acquired angio-oedema, which is caused by an acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency and is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, is a different condition. Protein C deficiency is a genetic prothrombotic condition that does not explain this patient’s symptoms, and somatisation disorder is unlikely given the clear test abnormalities related to the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 15
Incorrect
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In the UK, what is the primary reason for irreversible blindness in individuals over the age of 65?
Your Answer: Senile cataract
Correct Answer: Macular degeneration
Explanation:Common Eye Diseases and Conditions
Age-related macular degeneration, diabetic retinopathy, glaucoma, senile cataract, and corneal abrasion are some of the most common eye diseases and conditions that affect people worldwide.
Macular Degeneration
Macular degeneration is a leading cause of irreversible vision loss in developed countries. The non-exudative (dry) form of the disease is the most common, characterized by the presence of drusen in the macular region. Dry AMD progresses slowly over decades, while the exudative (wet) form can cause rapid central visual loss and distortion.
Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes that can lead to blindness. It is the most common cause of new blindness in people aged 25-64 years globally. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy is rare within the first decade of a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus, but increases with disease duration.
Glaucoma
Glaucoma is a group of eye diseases that damage the optic nerve and can cause specific visual field defects over time. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type, and it is described as a chronic, progressive, and irreversible optic neuropathy. Glaucoma is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries.
Senile Cataract
Senile cataract is an age-related disease that causes gradual progressive thickening of the lens of the eye. It is the world’s leading cause of treatable blindness.
Corneal Abrasion
Corneal abrasion is a common eye injury that occurs due to a disruption in the integrity of the corneal epithelium or because of physical external forces. Most people recover fully from minor corneal abrasions, but deeper scratches can cause corneal infections, erosion, or scarring, leading to long-term vision problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 16
Correct
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Patients with severe pneumonia may face various risk factors that increase their chances of death. Which of the following factors does not contribute to this risk?
Your Answer: Age 49 years
Explanation:Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Mortality Prediction in Pneumonia
Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can lead to mortality, especially in older patients. Several factors can increase the risk of death, including elevated urea levels, low blood pressure, leukopenia, and atrial fibrillation. To predict mortality in pneumonia, healthcare professionals use the CURB-65 score, which considers five parameters: confusion, urea >7 mmol/l, respiratory rate >30/min, systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure <60 mmHg, and age >65 years. Each parameter scores a point, and the higher the total score, the higher the associated mortality.
Based on the CURB-65 score, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about treatment and admission to hospital. Patients with a score of 0 or 1 can be treated at home with oral antibiotics, while those with a score of 2 should be considered for hospital admission. Patients with a score of 3 or higher should be admitted to hospital, and those with a score of 4-5 may require high dependency or intensive therapy unit admission. However, individual circumstances, such as the patient’s performance status, co-morbidities, and social situation, should also be considered when making treatment decisions.
In summary, the CURB-65 score is a valuable tool for predicting mortality in pneumonia and guiding treatment decisions. By considering multiple factors, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this serious infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 9-month history of personality changes, disinhibition and altered dietary habits with a preference for salty foods. She lost her job as a teacher because of inappropriate social behaviour. There is no memory deficit. Neurological examination is normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Frontotemporal dementia (FTD)
Explanation:Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a rare form of dementia that typically affects younger patients, with onset between 55 and 65 years old. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, early memory impairment is not a characteristic symptom of FTD. Instead, early personality and behavior changes are core features. Consensus guidelines suggest diagnostic criteria that include insidious onset and gradual progression, decline in social interpersonal conduct, early impairment in regulation of personal conduct, early emotional blunting, and early loss of insight. Supportive diagnostic features may include behavioral disorders, speech and language changes, and physical signs. Other forms of dementia, such as Alzheimer’s disease, diffuse Lewy body disease (LBD), multiple sclerosis (MS), and vascular dementia, have different characteristic symptoms and diagnostic criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of the surgery, she complains of increased discomfort at the transplant site. Upon examination, she has a fever, tenderness at the transplant site, and has not produced urine since the procedure. Her creatinine levels have significantly increased in the past 24 hours. What is the fundamental mechanism behind her rejection?
Your Answer: Cell-mediated (cytotoxic T cell) induced rejection
Correct Answer: Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens
Explanation:Understanding HLA Typing and Graft Failure in Renal Transplants
The human leucocyte antigen (HLA) system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and plays a crucial role in renal transplants. The HLA system includes class 1 antigens (A, B, and C) and class 2 antigens (DP, DQ, and DR), with DR being the most important for HLA matching in renal transplants. Graft survival rates for cadaveric transplants are 90% at 1 year and 60% at 10 years, while living-donor transplants have a 95% survival rate at 1 year and 70% at 10 years.
Post-operative problems may include acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections. Hyperacute rejection, which occurs within minutes to hours, is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in the need for graft removal. Acute graft failure, which occurs within 6 months, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Chronic graft failure, which occurs after 6 months, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms and leads to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, with recurrence of the original renal disease being a common cause.
In summary, understanding the HLA system and its role in renal transplants is crucial for successful outcomes. Monitoring for post-operative problems and early detection of graft failure can help improve long-term survival rates.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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You are a senior doctor in the paediatrics department. A fifteen year-old whose parents are devout Jehovah's witnesses requires a blood transfusion. Both parents state that they do not wish their child to have a potentially life saving transfusion. The fifteen year-old herself understands the risks and benefits of a transfusion and wishes to have the transfusion regardless.
Which of the following is correct?Your Answer: A High Court Order should be obtained to overrule the parents right to refuse blood products
Correct Answer: The blood can be transfused without the parents consent
Explanation:Once a child reaches the age of 16, they are considered competent to provide consent for treatment. In this case, the 16-year-old child can provide consent for the blood transfusion, but cannot refuse it. Therefore, the blood can be given as the child has provided consent. If the child were to refuse the treatment, the blood could still be given in their best interests without the consent of the child or their parents, using the Children Act 1989 and a High Court Order. However, in this particular case, such an order is not necessary. While some Jehovah witnesses may accept certain blood products, such as fresh frozen plasma or albumin, they may decline a complete blood transfusion. However, this is not appropriate in this situation. It may be advisable to contact the hospital liaison representative, but as the child is of age and understands the situation, they are able to provide consent for the treatment.
Understanding Consent in Children
The issue of consent in children can be complex and confusing. However, there are some general guidelines to follow. If a patient is under 16 years old, they may be able to consent to treatment if they are deemed competent. This is determined by the Fraser guidelines, which were previously known as Gillick competence. However, even if a child is competent, they cannot refuse treatment that is deemed to be in their best interest.
For patients between the ages of 16 and 18, it is generally assumed that they are competent to give consent to treatment. Patients who are 18 years or older can consent to or refuse treatment.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years old, the Fraser Guidelines outline specific requirements that must be met. These include ensuring that the young person understands the advice given by the healthcare professional, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to engage in sexual activity with or without treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without treatment. Ultimately, the young person’s best interests must be taken into account when deciding whether to provide contraceptive advice or treatment, with or without parental consent.
In summary, understanding consent in children requires careful consideration of age, competence, and best interests. The Fraser Guidelines provide a useful framework for healthcare professionals to follow when providing treatment and advice to young patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 20
Correct
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As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound
Explanation:The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 26-year-old woman comes to the clinic 10 days after giving birth. She reports a continuous pink vaginal discharge with a foul odor. During the examination, her pulse is 90 / min, temperature is 38.2ºC, and she experiences diffuse suprapubic tenderness. The uterus feels tender on vaginal examination, but her breasts appear normal. The urine dipstick shows blood ++. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Admit to hospital
Explanation:Understanding Puerperal Pyrexia
Puerperal pyrexia is a condition that occurs when a woman experiences a fever of more than 38ºC within the first 14 days after giving birth. The most common cause of this condition is endometritis, which is an infection of the lining of the uterus. Other causes include urinary tract infections, wound infections, mastitis, and venous thromboembolism.
If a woman is suspected of having endometritis, it is important to seek medical attention immediately. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics such as clindamycin and gentamicin until the patient is afebrile for more than 24 hours. It is important to note that puerperal pyrexia can be a serious condition and should not be ignored. By understanding the causes and seeking prompt medical attention, women can receive the necessary treatment to recover from this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-month history of lethargy, extreme thirst and increased urinary frequency. Two days ago, he also started to experience a dull pain in his left flank, which seems to occasionally radiate down into his groin. He has also not opened his bowels for four days and he is usually fairly regular.
On examination, he is found to have a blood pressure of 115/85 mmHg. The rest of the examination is unremarkable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis: Polyuria, Polydipsia, Constipation, and Loin-to-Groin Pain
Possible Causes and Clinical Features
Primary Hyperparathyroidism: This condition can cause hypercalcemia, leading to symptoms such as bone pain, osteopenia, kidney stones, constipation, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, fatigue, depression, and memory impairment. In severe cases, cardiac and metabolic disturbances, delirium, or coma may occur. Diagnosis is made by measuring serum-adjusted calcium and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels at the same time.
Acute Pancreatitis: This condition can cause severe epigastric pain radiating to the back, vomiting, epigastric tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Aetiological factors include alcohol and gallstones.
Addison’s Disease: This condition can cause generalised fatigue, abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, ‘salt craving’, hyperpigmentation, vitiligo, loss of pubic hair in women, hypotension, hypoglycaemia, hyponatraemia, and hyperkalaemia.
Anxiety Attack: This condition can cause chest pain, palpitations, nausea, vomiting, sweating, insomnia, flushing, tremor, and urinary frequency. It typically occurs in an individual who is excessively worried about a number of different events, causing increased tension.
Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA): This condition can cause polyuria, polydipsia, abdominal pain, Kussmaul respiration, and pear-drops-smelling breath.
Differential Diagnosis of Polyuria, Polydipsia, Constipation, and Loin-to-Groin Pain
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 23
Correct
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A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for the past three days, he has had a high fever (up to 40 °C), vomiting and night sweats. For the last four weeks, he has been lethargic and has sweated through his pyjamas almost every night. He has had several nosebleeds in this time period, which his parents attributed to dry air from the heater. He has also been complaining that his back hurts.
On examination, his temperature is 39.5 °C, his heart rate 140 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and his respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute. He appears acutely ill, and you notice small petechiae on his abdomen.
Which one of the following would an examination of peripheral lymphocytes most likely show?Your Answer: A clonal population of immature cells expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
Explanation:Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a common pediatric cancer that occurs due to the clonal expansion of immature T lymphocytes expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). This protein is involved in gene rearrangements during T-cell receptor and immunoglobulin development and is no longer expressed after maturation. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and infections. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow aspirate and biopsy, and treatment involves pegaspargase, which interferes with malignant cell growth. Hairy cell leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes with thin cytoplasmic projections and is mostly seen in middle-aged men. Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a chromosomal translocation leading to a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, treated with imatinib. Promyelocytic leukemia is an aggressive form of acute myeloid leukemia with a clonal population of immature cells containing Auer rods. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is characterized by a clonal population of mature B cells, often seen in the elderly population and referred to as smudge cells on peripheral smear.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about a lump in her breast that she discovered three weeks ago. The lump is causing discomfort when she wears a bra. During the examination, the doctor detects a 4 cm, non-tethered, and firm lump in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The surface and contour are smooth, the skin is intact, and it does not transilluminate. The doctor refers her for a triple assessment, which confirms that she has a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Refer for surgical excision
Explanation:The appropriate action for a patient presenting with a breast fibroadenoma larger than 3 cm is to refer them for surgical excision. Fibroadenomas are benign masses that develop from the whole lobule and are typically small, firm, and smooth, often referred to as breast mice. While they are usually treated conservatively, surgical excision is necessary if they cause discomfort, as in this case. Checking the mass again in three months, discharge and safety netting, prescribing oral antibiotics, and referring for aspiration are all incorrect management options for a fibroadenoma.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman came to your GP clinic complaining of sudden onset itching, burning, and watering in both eyes. During the examination, you noticed moderate chemosis in both eyes and conjunctival follicles. You also discovered tender preauricular lymph nodes while palpating her neck. She informed you that her boyfriend had similar symptoms a week ago. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Adenoviral conjunctivitis
Explanation:Adenoviral conjunctivitis is easily spread from person to person. The patient’s boyfriend had the same condition a week ago, so it’s not surprising that she has it now. This type of viral conjunctivitis is the most common.
There is no evidence of herpes simplex because there are no cold sores or dendritic ulcers visible with fluorescein uptake.
Bacterial and chlamydial conjunctivitis are unlikely because there is no pus discharge. Allergic conjunctivitis is also unlikely because there is no history of atopy or itchiness.Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.
In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.
For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic seeking contraception. She has a history of Chlamydia infection 2 years ago, which was treated and confirmed negative after treatment. She is interested in starting the mini pill but is concerned about potential side effects, as her friend reported developing acne after starting the medication. She has been relying on condoms for contraception until now. What is the most frequently reported side effect in patients who initiate this medication?
Your Answer: Irregular vaginal bleeding
Explanation:The most common adverse effect associated with the progesterone-only pill, also known as the ‘mini pill’, is irregular vaginal bleeding. Patients should be advised to take the pill at the same time every day without a pill-free break. While oily skin may occur due to increased sebum production, this is not as common as irregular vaginal bleeding. Patients with a history of acne vulgaris who take the progesterone-only pill may experience increased sebum production. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is commonly used to manage acne vulgaris and hirsutism in polycystic ovarian syndrome. Headaches may occur during the first few months of using hormonal contraception, but this is less likely to occur with the POP as the most common time to experience headaches is during the ‘pill-free interval’. Patients with a history of migraine with aura should be advised of the risks associated with the COCP and migraine with aura and informed that the POP is likely to be a safer alternative. While mood changes have been studied with birth control, there is no definite outcome of recent studies, and epidemiological data gathered by NICE does not support this as the most common adverse effect.
Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 27
Correct
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.
The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of painful periods. She has been experiencing this for the past two years and reports a normal amount of blood loss. Her periods are regular and there is no abnormal bleeding. She is not sexually active yet. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer: Ibuprofen
Explanation:First-line treatment for dysmenorrhoea involves NSAIDs, which work by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins, a major contributor to menstrual pain.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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Can you analyze the post-bronchodilator spirometry findings of a 54-year-old female who has been experiencing gradual breathlessness?
FEV1/FVC ratio: 0.60
FEV1 percentage predicted: 60%
What would be the suitable conclusion based on these outcomes?Your Answer: COPD (stage 2 - moderate)
Explanation:Investigating and Diagnosing COPD
COPD is a condition that should be considered in patients over 35 years of age who are smokers or ex-smokers and have symptoms such as chronic cough, exertional breathlessness, or regular sputum production. To confirm a diagnosis of COPD, several investigations are recommended. These include post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to exclude lung cancer and identify hyperinflation, bullae, or flat hemidiaphragm, a full blood count to exclude secondary polycythaemia, and a calculation of body mass index (BMI).
The severity of COPD is categorized based on the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio. If the ratio is less than 70%, the patient is diagnosed with COPD. The severity of the condition is then determined based on the FEV1 value. Stage 1 is considered mild, and symptoms should be present to diagnose COPD in these patients. Stage 2 is moderate, Stage 3 is severe, and Stage 4 is very severe.
It is important to note that measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction. The grading system for COPD severity has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines. If the FEV1 is greater than 80% predicted but the post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC is less than 0.7, the patient is classified as Stage 1 – mild.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 28-year-old who comes to your GP clinic seeking information about cystic fibrosis. She is in a committed relationship and wants to start a family. Samantha mentions that her partner's family has a history of cystic fibrosis and she wants to know more about it. She has already done some research and knows that cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the CF transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR) on chromosome 7. Samantha asks you to explain how cystic fibrosis is inherited.
Can you help her understand the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis?Your Answer: X-linked recessive inheritance
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. The carrier frequency is estimated to be 1 in 25 individuals, while the prevalence of the disease is 1 in 2500 newborns. Having a positive family history is the only known risk factor for CF, and parents should receive appropriate counseling before conception or during pregnancy if they are carriers.
Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.
CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 31
Correct
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A 16-year-old woman who takes insulin for type I diabetes presents to the Emergency Department feeling unwell. She states she has had vomiting and diarrhoea for two days and since she is not eating, she has not been taking her full insulin doses. Her capillary glucose is 37 mmol/l, and there are 4+ ketones on urinalysis. An arterial blood gas is performed, and the results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
pH 7.12 7.35–7.45
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) 3.5 kPa 4.5–6.0 kPa
Partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) 13 kPa 10–14 kPa
Sodium (Na+) 121 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Bicarbonate 13 mmol/l 22–28 mmol/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment option?
Select the SINGLE best treatment from the list below.
Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) 0.9% sodium chloride bolus
Explanation:Management of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of diabetes that requires prompt treatment. The key principles of DKA management include initial fluid resuscitation with normal saline, followed by an IV insulin infusion at a fixed rate of 0.1 unit/kg per hour. Once the blood glucose level reaches 15 mmol/l, an infusion of 5% dextrose is added. Correction of electrolyte disturbance, particularly hypokalaemia, is also essential.
Empirical IV antibiotics are not useful in DKA unless triggered by an infection, in which case emergency DKA treatment should be started first. An insulin sliding scale is not used in DKA management.
It is important to note that IV 10 units Actrapid and 50 ml 50% dextrose are not used in DKA management. Similarly, IV sodium bicarbonate bolus is not recommended. Instead, careful monitoring of electrolyte levels and appropriate fluid and insulin therapy are crucial for successful management of DKA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman has recently discovered that she is expecting her second child. During her first pregnancy, she experienced gestational diabetes. However, after giving birth, she was informed that she no longer had diabetes. What is the best course of action for her current pregnancy?
Your Answer: Start metformin and ask the woman to self-monitor glucose
Correct Answer: Do oral glucose tolerance test as soon as possible after booking
Explanation:The guidelines of NICE have been revised, stating that women who are at risk of gestational diabetes should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test immediately after booking, instead of waiting until 16-18 weeks as previously recommended.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 33
Correct
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As a junior doctor on the postnatal ward, you perform a newborn examination on a twelve-hour-old baby delivered vaginally. During the examination, you observe a scalp swelling that has poorly defined margins and crosses suture lines. The swelling is soft and pitted on pressure. The mother reports that the swelling has been present since birth. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Caput succedaneum
Explanation:Scalp edema known as caput seccedaneum can be identified by its ability to extend beyond the suture lines during examination.
Understanding Caput Succedaneum
Caput succedaneum is a condition that refers to the swelling of the scalp at the top of the head, usually at the vertex. This swelling is caused by the mechanical trauma that occurs during delivery, particularly in prolonged deliveries or those that involve the use of vacuum delivery. The condition is characterized by soft, puffy swelling due to localized edema that crosses suture lines.
Compared to cephalohaematoma, which is a collection of blood under the scalp, caput succedaneum is caused by edema. While cephalohaematoma is limited to a specific area and does not cross suture lines, caput succedaneum can affect a larger area and cross suture lines. Fortunately, no treatment is needed for caput succedaneum, as the swelling usually resolves on its own within a few days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 34
Correct
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A 68-year-old male visits his primary care physician with a complaint of persistent left-sided ear pain for over a month. He reports no hearing loss or discharge and feels generally healthy. He has a history of hypertension and currently smokes 15 cigarettes a day. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. What is the best course of action to take?
Your Answer: Refer to ENT under 2-week wait
Explanation:If a person experiences unexplained ear pain on one side for more than 4 weeks and there are no visible abnormalities during an otoscopy, it is important to refer them for further investigation under the 2-week wait. This is particularly crucial for individuals who smoke, as they are at a higher risk for head and neck cancer. Using topical antibiotic/steroid drops or nasal steroid sprays without identifying any underlying pathology is not recommended. While amitriptyline may provide relief for symptoms, it should not be used as a substitute for proper diagnosis and treatment. Referring the patient for further evaluation is necessary to rule out the possibility of malignancy.
Understanding Head and Neck Cancer
Head and neck cancer is a broad term that encompasses various types of cancer, including oral cavity cancers, pharynx cancers, and larynx cancers. Symptoms of head and neck cancer may include a neck lump, hoarseness, persistent sore throat, and mouth ulcers.
To ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has established suspected cancer pathway referral criteria. For instance, individuals aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness or an unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for laryngeal cancer. Similarly, those with unexplained ulceration in the oral cavity lasting for more than three weeks or a persistent and unexplained lump in the neck may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for oral cancer.
Dentists may also play a role in identifying potential cases of oral cancer. Individuals with a lump on the lip or in the oral cavity or a red or red and white patch in the oral cavity consistent with erythroplakia or erythroleukoplakia may be urgently referred for assessment within two weeks. Finally, individuals with an unexplained thyroid lump may be referred for an appointment within two weeks to assess for thyroid cancer. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help ensure timely diagnosis and treatment of head and neck cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 35
Correct
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A 12-month-old boy is due to receive his vaccinations today.
Which of the following vaccines are most likely to be given to a child at 12 months old?Your Answer: MMR, Hib/meningitis C, meningitis B and pneumococcal
Explanation:Vaccination Schedule for Infants in the UK
In the UK, infants are recommended to receive a series of vaccinations to protect them from various diseases. Here is a breakdown of the vaccination schedule and when each vaccine is given.
UK Infant Vaccination Schedule
MMR, Hib/Men C, Men B, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
At one year of age, infants are given the MMR, Hib/Men C, and the third dose of both the Men B and pneumococcal vaccines.
Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, Men B, and MMR Vaccines
The pneumococcal and rotavirus vaccines are given at eight weeks, while the Men B vaccine is given at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year. The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months.
MMR, Rotavirus, and Pneumococcal Vaccines
The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months, while the rotavirus and pneumococcal vaccines are given at eight weeks, 16 weeks, and one year.
Rotavirus, MMR, Six-in-One, and Men B Vaccines
The rotavirus and six-in-one vaccines are given at eight weeks, while the Men B vaccine is given at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year. The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months.
Six-in-One Vaccine
The six-in-one vaccine is given at eight weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 5-year-old son to the clinic as she is worried about his bedwetting habit. Unlike his older sibling who stopped bedwetting at the age of 4, this child still wets the bed at night. The mother is seeking advice on possible treatment options. What is the best course of action to manage this issue?
Your Answer: Enuresis alarm
Correct Answer: Reassurance and advice on fluid intake, diet and toileting behaviour
Explanation:Reassurance and advice are sufficient for managing nocturnal enuresis in children under 5 years of age. It is important to reassure mothers that bedwetting is still common at the age of 4.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 37
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?
Your Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.
Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the Memory Clinic with a 9-month history of cognitive decline. Her daughter mentions that she has difficulty remembering basic tasks and is becoming more confused and forgetful than usual. Her daughter noticed a change in her personality and has caught her leaving the stove on and wandering outside alone on multiple occasions.
Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following is the most appropriate initial step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Start treatment with an acetylcholinesterase (AChE) inhibitor agent
Correct Answer: Stop drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion (anticholinergics, central nervous system drugs)
Explanation:Managing Frontotemporal Dementia: Treatment Options and Referrals
Frontotemporal dementia (FTD) is a progressive neurodegenerative disorder that affects behavior, language, and executive function. While there is no cure for FTD, management strategies can help alleviate symptoms and provide support for patients and their families.
One important step in managing FTD is to stop any drugs that may be exacerbating memory problems or confusion, such as anticholinergics or central nervous system drugs. Multidisciplinary health and social care is also crucial, involving referrals to geriatric medicine, psychiatry, psychology, social work, occupational therapy, speech and language therapy, physiotherapy, and community nursing.
However, certain treatment options should be avoided or used with caution in FTD patients. Benzodiazepines, for example, are associated with cognitive worsening and fall-related injuries. Anticholinesterase inhibitors, typically used in mild to moderate Alzheimer’s disease, have shown disappointing results in FTD patients who do not have cholinergic loss. Memantine, used in moderate to severe Alzheimer’s disease, has not been shown to be effective in FTD and may even have a detrimental effect on cognition in some individuals.
Antipsychotics should only be used cautiously and when other options have failed, as FTD patients are at higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Overall, a personalized and coordinated approach to FTD management is essential for optimizing patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman reports experiencing a cough and tightness in her chest a few days a week, but feels better on weekends. She mentions that she works at a hair salon.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation for occupational asthma?Your Answer: Spirometry
Correct Answer: Serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work
Explanation:The recommended initial investigation for suspected occupational asthma is serial peak expiratory flow rates at home and at work, according to SIGN (Scottish Intercollegiate Guidelines Network) referenced by NICE. CT of the thorax is inappropriate due to high radiation doses and chest radiograph is not part of the initial work-up for occupational asthma as it is unlikely to show specific evidence. Skin-prick testing is only recommended for high-molecular-weight agents and spirometry is not recommended as an initial investigation for occupational asthma, but may be appropriate for surveillance in industries with risk of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 40
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the endocrine clinic with thyroid function test results indicating palpitations, excessive sweating, unintentional weight loss, and a notable thyroid goitre that is tender upon palpation. The test results show a TSH level of 9.4 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5) and a free T4 level of 6.4 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Subacute (De Quervain's) thyroiditis
Explanation:Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 41
Correct
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A human immunodeficiency virus-1 (HIV-1)-positive woman develops multiple raised purple lesions on her legs. Her CD4 count is 96 cells/mm3 (normal range: > 600 mm3) and her viral load measures greater than 500 000 copies/ml.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Kaposi’s sarcoma
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Raised Nodular Lesion: Common Skin Conditions in HIV-1 Patients
Kaposi’s sarcoma is a prevalent tumour in HIV-1-positive individuals and a leading cause of death in these patients. It is an AIDS-defining illness in 15% of patients and commonly occurs with a CD4 count of fewer than 200 cells/mm3. Other common tumours in HIV-1 include non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and those caused by human papillomavirus. Basal cell carcinoma, the most common non-melanoma skin cancer, typically presents with a single, shiny, pearlised nodule and may ulcerate, but does not match the description in this scenario. Cryoglobulinaemia, a condition associated with hepatitis C infection, causes a vasculitic rash and does not match this scenario’s description. Fixed drug eruption describes the development of one or more annular or oval erythematous plaques resulting from systemic exposure to a drug and does not tend to cause raised nodular lesions. Melanoma is typically black/darkly pigmented and usually a single lesion, therefore it does not match the description in this scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 42
Incorrect
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Which of the following is linked to a favorable prognosis in individuals with schizophrenia?
Your Answer: Premorbid history of social withdrawal
Correct Answer: Acute onset
Explanation:A poor prognosis is often linked to a gradual onset rather than an acute one.
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that can have varying prognoses depending on certain factors. Some indicators associated with a poor prognosis include a strong family history of the disorder, a gradual onset of symptoms, a low IQ, a prodromal phase of social withdrawal, and a lack of an obvious precipitant. These factors can contribute to a more severe and chronic course of the illness, making it more difficult to manage and treat. It is important for individuals with schizophrenia and their loved ones to be aware of these indicators and seek appropriate treatment and support.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 43
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) and loss of peripheral vision. She also has diabetes.
Which of the following treatments would ophthalmology have initiated?Your Answer: Latanoprost
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Open-Angle Glaucoma and Treatment Options
Chronic open-angle glaucoma (COAG) is a progressive and irreversible optic neuropathy that can lead to significant visual loss if left untreated. It is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries. Patients with COAG may not present with any symptoms until late in the disease course, making early detection and treatment crucial.
The first-line treatment for COAG is a prostaglandin analogue, such as latanoprost. Other options include pilocarpine, a cholinergic parasympathomimetic agent, and brinzolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. More than one agent may be needed concurrently to achieve the target intraocular pressure (IOP).
Beta-blockers, such as timolol, may also be used as an alternative or adjuvant therapy, but should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not effective in the management of COAG or ocular hypertension (OHT).
OHT is a major risk factor for developing COAG, but COAG can also occur without raised IOP. Age thresholds for treatment recommendations only apply when vision is currently normal and treatment is purely preventative. Patients experiencing peripheral vision loss should be evaluated for COAG regardless of age.
Early detection and appropriate treatment can help prevent significant visual loss in patients with COAG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?
Your Answer: Progestogen treatment may be used in frail elderly patients not fit for surgery
Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis
Explanation:The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 45
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman, known to have human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), presents to the Emergency Department with reducing vision in her right eye. Her last CD4 count, measured in clinic, was < 100 cells/mm3.
Which is the most likely cause?Your Answer: Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis
Explanation:Eye Conditions in Immunocompromised Patients
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis, acute glaucoma, age-related macular degeneration, molluscum contagiosum of eyelids, and uveitis are all potential eye conditions that can affect immunocompromised patients.
CMV retinitis is a common cause of eye disease in patients with HIV, causing necrotising retinitis with visual loss. Fundoscopy demonstrates a characteristic ‘pizza pie’ picture, with flame-shaped haemorrhages and retinal infarction. Treatment involves local and/or systemic delivery of antiviral agents such as ganciclovir, valganciclovir, or foscarnet.
Acute glaucoma is a medical emergency that presents with sudden onset of severe unilateral eye pain, vomiting, red-eye, and seeing lights distorted by haloes and decreasing vision. It is not associated with HIV/low CD4+ counts.
Age-related macular degeneration is a chronic and progressive condition affecting older people, resulting in a gradual loss of vision, particularly of the central vision. It is not related to HIV and typically presents as a chronic condition.
Molluscum contagiosum of eyelids is a viral skin infection that is more common in immunocompromised hosts. However, it tends to occur on the trunk, extremities, or abdomen, and involvement of the eyelid and buccal mucosa is uncommon.
Uveitis presents with eye pain, photophobia, blurring vision with loss of peripheral vision in some patients, redness in the eye, and possibly floaters in the vision. It is associated with HLA-B27, autoimmune conditions such as Crohn’s disease, and infections such as toxoplasmosis, tuberculosis, and Lyme disease. It is not associated with HIV, and pain and photophobia are normally very prominent symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 1-week history of epistaxis and bleeding gums. She recently recovered from influenza and has a history of hypothyroidism for which she takes levothyroxine. On examination, she has multiple bruises and petechiae over her lower limbs and trunk. Her investigations reveal a low platelet count and normal coagulation parameters. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)
Correct Answer: Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP), a condition where the immune system destroys platelets. This can be caused by autoantibodies targeting glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib–V–IX complexes, and is often seen in patients with autoimmune diseases. Acute cases can occur in children following a viral infection or vaccination, and symptoms typically include bleeding from the skin and mucous membranes. Given the patient’s history of hypothyroidism, ITP is a more likely diagnosis than other conditions such as Factor V Leiden, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), or von Willebrand’s disease (VWD). Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is also unlikely, as the patient’s coagulation profile is normal aside from the low platelet count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 64-year-old woman with a history of recurrent deep vein thrombosis due to antiphospholipid syndrome comes in for evaluation. She has been on warfarin for the past 8 years, with a desired INR range of 2.0 - 3.0. Her INR control is typically excellent, but her most recent reading was 1.2. What could be the reason for her current INR level?
Your Answer: Recent rifampicin as she was a contact of a patient with meningococcal meningitis
Explanation:Rifampicin induces P450 enzymes.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 48
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 75 year-old woman comes to the clinic with a non-healing skin area on her ankle. She had a deep vein thrombosis 15 years ago after a hip replacement surgery. She is currently taking Adcal D3 and no other medications. During the examination, a superficial ulcer is observed in front of the medial malleolus. Apart from this, she is in good health. What test would be the most beneficial in deciding the next course of action?
Your Answer: Ankle-brachial pressure index
Explanation:The patient exhibits typical signs of a venous ulcer and appears to be in good overall health without any indications of infection. The recommended treatment for venous ulcers involves the use of compression dressings, but it is crucial to ensure that the patient’s arterial circulation is sufficient to tolerate some level of compression.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 26-year-old female presents for follow-up. She was diagnosed with asthma four years ago and is currently utilizing a salbutamol inhaler 100mcg as needed in combination with beclometasone dipropionate inhaler 200 mcg twice daily. However, her asthma remains poorly controlled. Upon examination, her chest is clear and she demonstrates proper inhaler technique. In accordance with NICE recommendations, what is the most suitable course of action for further management?
Your Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:According to NICE 2017 guidelines, if a patient with asthma is not effectively managed with a SABA + ICS, the first step should be to add a LTRA rather than a LABA.
The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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