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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman presents to you with bilateral palpable flank masses and headaches. Her blood pressure is 170/100 mmHg and creatinine is 176.8 μmol/l. She has no past medical history of this, but her family history is significant for renal disease requiring transplant in her mother, brother and maternal grandmother.
On which chromosome would genetic analysis most likely find an abnormality?Your Answer: Chromosome 13
Correct Answer: Chromosome 16
Explanation:This information provides a summary of genetic disorders associated with specific chromosomes and genes. For example, adult polycystic kidney disease is an autosomal dominant condition linked to mutations in the polycystin 1 (PKD1) gene on chromosome 16. This disease is characterized by the formation of multiple cysts in the kidneys, which can lead to renal failure and other symptoms such as hypertension, urinary tract infections, and liver and pancreatic cysts. Other important chromosome/disease pairs include BRCA2 on chromosome 13, which is associated with breast/ovarian/prostate cancers and Fanconi anemia, and the VHL gene on chromosome 3, which is linked to von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, a condition characterized by benign and malignant tumor formation on various organs of the body. Additionally, mutations in the FXN gene on chromosome 9 can result in Friedreich’s ataxia, a degenerative condition involving the nervous system and the heart, while a deletion of 22q11 on chromosome 22 can cause di George syndrome, a condition present at birth associated with cognitive impairment, facial abnormalities, and cardiac defects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Correct
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A 62-year-old woman with a history of type II diabetes comes in for her yearly check-up. Her most recent early morning urinary albumin : creatinine ratio (ACR) is 4 mg/mmol (normal for women: < 3.5 mg/mmol). What should be the target blood pressure for managing her diabetic nephropathy?
Your Answer: 130/80 mmHg
Explanation:Blood Pressure Targets for Patients with Diabetes
Blood pressure targets vary depending on the type of diabetes and the presence of co-morbidities. For patients with type II diabetes and signs of end-organ damage, the target is 130/80 mmHg. Ideal blood pressure for most people is between 90/60 mmHg and 120/80 mmHg. Patients with type I diabetes without albuminuria or > 2 features of metabolic syndrome have a target of 135/85 mmHg. Type II diabetics without signs of end-organ damage have a target of 140/80 mmHg. For patients over 80 years old, the target is 150/90 mmHg. It is important for patients with diabetes to work with their healthcare provider to determine their individual blood pressure target.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 40-year-old piano teacher presented to the Emergency Department with an acute kidney injury (AKI) and was referred to the renal team for urgent haemodialysis. Which of the following is not a reason for immediate dialysis?
Your Answer: Alkalosis
Explanation:Indications for Urgent Dialysis in Renal Failure Patients
Dialysis is a life-saving treatment for patients with renal failure. Urgent dialysis is required in certain situations to prevent serious complications. Acidosis, not alkalosis, is an urgent indication for dialysis. Pulmonary edema caused by furosemide-resistant fluid overload is another indication for urgent dialysis. Severe hyperkalemia, with potassium levels greater than 6.5 mmol/l or less if electrocardiographic changes are apparent, is also an indication for dialysis. Severe uraemia, with symptoms such as vomiting, encephalopathy, and urea levels greater than 60 mmol/l, requires urgent dialysis. Uraemic pericarditis is another indication for urgent dialysis. It is important to recognize these indications and initiate dialysis promptly to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman with a history of systemic lupus erythematosus and recently diagnosed with CKD stage G3a (GFR 45 ml/min/1.73 m2) is seen by her GP. The GP notes that the patient has a BP of 152/90 mmHg, which is persistently elevated on two further readings taken on separate occasions by the practice nurse. The patient has no past history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate management for the patient's hypertension?
Your Answer: Lisinopril and losartan
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Management of Hypertension in Chronic Kidney Disease
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) requires careful management of hypertension to slow the progression of renal disease. The recommended first-line treatment for hypertension in CKD is angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEis), which should maintain systolic BP < 140 mmHg and diastolic BP < 90 mmHg. Before starting ACEi treatment, serum potassium concentrations and estimated glomerular filtration rate (GFR) should be measured and monitored regularly. While ACEis and angiotensin receptor antagonists (ARBs) may be used as first-line treatments, they should not be used concurrently due to the risk of hyperkalaemia and hypotension. Potassium-sparing diuretics, such as amiloride, should also be avoided in renal impairment due to the risk of hyperkalaemia. In addition to medication, dietary modification and exercise advice can also help manage hypertension in CKD patients. If hypertension is not controlled with an ACEi or ARB alone, thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide may be added as second-line therapy. Overall, careful management of hypertension is crucial in CKD patients to slow the progression of renal disease and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 59-year-old man has been undergoing regular haemodialysis for the past 6 years. He previously had an AV fistula in his left arm, but it became infected 4 years ago and was no longer functional. Currently, he is receiving dialysis through an AV fistula in his right forearm. He presents with pain in his right hand and wrist. Upon examination, there is redness and a necrotic ulcer on his right middle finger. His right hand strength is normal. He is not experiencing any constitutional symptoms and is not taking any medications. He had undergone uncomplicated dialysis the day before. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS)
Explanation:Possible Complications of AV Fistula in Dialysis Patients
AV fistula is a common vascular access for patients undergoing dialysis. However, it can lead to various complications, including distal hypoperfusion ischaemic syndrome (DHIS). DHIS, also known as steal syndrome, occurs when blood flow is shunted through the fistula, causing distal ischaemia, which can result in ulcers and necrosis. Surgical revision or banding of the fistula may be necessary in severe cases. Older patients with atherosclerotic arteries are more prone to DHIS. Other possible complications include unrelated local pathology, infected AV fistula, infective endocarditis, and thrombosis with distal embolisation. It is important to identify and manage these complications promptly to prevent further harm to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
Investigation Results Normal value
Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?Your Answer: Parathyroid adenoma
Correct Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.
In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.
Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.
Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the physical examination, no abnormalities are detected, but his blood pressure is found to be 178/90 mmHg. The doctor suspects a renal origin for the hypertension and wants to perform an initial screening test for renovascular causes. What is the most appropriate investigation for this purpose?
Your Answer: Urine albumin : creatinine ratio
Correct Answer: Abdominal duplex ultrasound
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Renal Hypertension
Renal hypertension, or high blood pressure caused by kidney disease, can be diagnosed through various diagnostic tests. The appropriate initial screening investigation is an abdominal duplex ultrasound, which can detect renal vascular or anatomical pathologies such as renal artery stenosis or polycystic kidney disease. If abnormalities are found, more advanced testing such as a CTA, magnetic resonance angiography, or nuclear medicine testing may be necessary. However, an ultrasound is the best initial screening investigation for renal hypertension.
A CTA is a follow-up test that may be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension. It is an advanced, specialist test that would not be appropriate as an initial screening investigation. On the other hand, a magnetic resonance angiography is an advanced, gold-standard test that can be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension.
HbA1c is a blood test that tests your average blood glucose levels over the last 2–3 months. It can indicate if diabetes may have contributed to the hypertension, but will not clarify whether there is a renal cause. Lastly, a urine albumin: creatinine ratio tests for the presence of protein in the urine, which is a reflection of kidney disease, but does not give us any indication of the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by lens dislocation. After conducting additional tests, the diagnosis of Alport syndrome is made. What type of collagen is typically affected by a molecular defect in this disease?
Your Answer: Type IV
Explanation:Types and Effects of Collagen Defects on Human Health
Collagen is an essential protein that provides structural support to various tissues in the human body. Defects in different types of collagen can lead to various health conditions. Type IV collagen is crucial for the integrity of the basement membrane, and mutations in its genes can cause Alport syndrome, resulting in haematuria, hearing loss, and visual disturbances. Type III collagen defects cause Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, characterized by joint hypermobility, severe bruising, and blood vessel defects. Type I collagen defects lead to osteogenesis imperfecta, characterized by brittle bones, abnormal teeth, and weak tendons. Kniest dysplasia is caused by defects in type II collagen, leading to short stature, poor joint mobility, and eventual blindness. Kindler syndrome is characterized by the absence of epidermal anchoring fibrils due to defects in type VII collagen, resulting in skin fragility. Understanding the effects of collagen defects on human health is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 55-year-old man with chronic kidney disease has recently received a renal transplant. After three months he starts to feel unwell with flu-like symptoms, fever, and pain over the transplant area.
What is the most likely type of reaction that has occurred in the patient?Your Answer: Acute graft failure
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Graft Failure After Transplantation
Acute graft failure is a type of graft failure that occurs within six months after transplantation. If a patient presents with symptoms such as fever, flu-like symptoms, and pain over the transplant after three months, it may indicate acute graft failure. This type of failure is usually caused by mismatched human leukocyte antigen and may be reversible with steroids and immunosuppressants.
Wound infection is not a likely cause of symptoms after three months since any wounds from the transplant would have healed by then. Chronic graft failure, on the other hand, occurs after six months to a year following the transplant and is caused by a combination of B- and T-cell-mediated immunity, infection, and previous occurrences of acute graft rejections.
Hyperacute rejection is a rare type of graft failure that occurs within minutes to hours after transplantation. It happens because of pre-existing antibodies towards the donor before transplantation. In cases of hyperacute rejection, removal of the organ and re-transplantation is necessary.
It is important to understand the different types of graft failure after transplantation to properly diagnose and treat patients who may be experiencing symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Correct
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A 63-year-old man presented with fever, body ache and pedal oedema for three months. He was taking oral diclofenac frequently for the aches. He had no other drug history and had not travelled recently.
On examination, there was sternal tenderness. His blood report revealed:
Investigation Result Normal range
Haemoglobin 76 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 134 mm/hr 0–10mm in the 1st hour
Platelets 280 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Urea 13 mmol/l 2.5–6.0 mmol/l
Calcium 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
What is the most likely cause of renal failure in this case?Your Answer: Light chain deposition
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Renal Failure in Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a rare but possible diagnosis in young adults, with a higher incidence in black populations and men. Renal failure is a common complication of this disease, with various possible causes. While NSAID use, hypercalcaemia, hyperuricaemia, and infiltration of the kidney by myeloma cells are all potential factors, the most common cause of renal failure in multiple myeloma is light chain deposition. This can lead to tubular toxicity and subsequent renal damage. Therefore, understanding the underlying causes of renal failure in multiple myeloma is crucial for effective management and treatment of this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 11
Correct
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A 20-year-old African-Caribbean woman with sickle-cell anaemia presents with acute kidney injury. Her only medication is hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea).
What is the most probable reason for her condition?Your Answer: Renal papillary necrosis
Explanation:Causes of Acute Kidney Injury
Acute kidney injury (AKI) can be caused by various factors. One of the causes is renal papillary necrosis, which is commonly associated with sickle-cell anaemia. This occurs when sickled red blood cells cause infarction and necrosis of renal papillae. Other causes of renal papillary necrosis include diabetes mellitus, acute pyelonephritis, and chronic paracetamol use.
Another cause of AKI is hypoperfusion of renal tubules from hypotension. This happens when there is a decrease in blood pressure due to shock or dehydration, leading to the hypoperfusion of renal tubules and acute tubular necrosis.
Drug-induced interstitial nephritis is also a cause of AKI. This occurs when there is an allergic reaction to certain drugs such as non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, antibiotics, and loop diuretics. Eosinophils in the urine are associated with this type of AKI.
Pyelonephritis from Salmonella species is not a cause of AKI in patients with sickle-cell disease. However, diffuse cortical necrosis is a rare cause of AKI associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, especially in obstetric emergencies such as abruptio placentae.
In conclusion, AKI can be caused by various factors, and it is important to identify the underlying cause to provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man has been asked to visit his GP because of abnormal renal function tests for the past two months. His GFR reading has been consistently 35 ml/min. What stage of CKD is this patient exhibiting?
Your Answer: Stage 3b
Correct Answer: This patient does not meet the criteria for CKD
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease Stages
Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys and their ability to filter waste from the blood. To diagnose CKD, a patient must have a GFR (glomerular filtration rate) of less than 60 ml/min for at least three months. This is the primary criteria for CKD diagnosis.
There are five stages of CKD, each with different GFR values and symptoms. Stage 1 CKD presents with a GFR greater than 90 ml/min and some signs of kidney damage. Stage 3a CKD presents with a GFR of 45-59 ml/min, while stage 3b CKD patients have a GFR of 30-44 ml/min. However, both stage 3a and 3b require the GFR to be present for at least three months.
There is no stage 4a CKD. Instead, stage 4 CKD patients have a GFR of 15-29 ml/min. It is important to understand the different stages of CKD to properly diagnose and treat patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 13
Correct
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An 80-year-old woman with a history of cervical carcinoma has been brought to the Emergency Department in a confused and dehydrated state. Her blood tests reveal significant abnormalities, including a potassium level of 7.2 mmol/l (NR 3.5–4.9), creatinine level of 450 μmol/l (NR 60–110), and urea level of 31.2 mmol/l (NR 2.5–7.5). Upon retesting, her serum potassium remains elevated. What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?
Your Answer: Arrange continuous ECG monitoring and consider giving 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate intravenous (IV)
Explanation:Managing Hyperkalaemia in a Patient with Renal Dysfunction
Hyperkalaemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt management. Once confirmed via a repeat blood sample, continuous ECG monitoring is necessary. For cardioprotection, 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate IV should be considered. Insulin can also be administered to drive potassium ions from the extracellular to the intracellular compartment. A third blood sample is not necessary and may delay treatment. An urgent ultrasound scan should be arranged to determine the underlying cause of renal dysfunction. Furosemide should be reserved until fluid balance assessment results are known. Renal replacement therapy may be considered as a final option, but prognosis should be assessed first. Nebulised salbutamol may also have positive effects in reducing serum potassium, but IV administration carries a significant risk of arrhythmia. Correction of severe acidosis may exacerbate fluid retention in patients with kidney disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 14
Correct
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A 6-year-old boy presents to the Emergency Department with periorbital pain, ascites, and oedema. He has no past medical history and is typically healthy, without recent illnesses. Upon examination, his serum urea is elevated and protein in his urine is ++++. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer: Minimal change glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Overview of Different Types of Glomerulonephritis
Glomerulonephritis is a group of kidney diseases that affect the glomeruli, the tiny blood vessels in the kidneys that filter waste and excess fluids from the blood. Here are some of the different types of glomerulonephritis:
1. Minimal Change Glomerulonephritis: This is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children. It is caused by T-cell-mediated injury to the podocytes of the epithelial cells. The diagnosis is made by electron microscopy, and treatment is with steroids.
2. Membranous Glomerulonephritis: This is the second most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults. It can be primary or secondary, and some causes of secondary membranous glomerulonephritis include autoimmune conditions, malignancy, viral infections, and drugs. On light microscopy, the basement membrane has characteristic spikes.
3. Mesangiocapillary Glomerulonephritis: This is associated with immune deposition in the glomerulus, thickening of the basement membrane, and activation of complement pathways leading to glomerular damage. It presents with nephrotic syndrome and is seen in both the pediatric and adult population. It is the most common glomerulonephritis associated with hepatitis C.
4. Post-Streptococcal Glomerulonephritis: This presents with haematuria, oedema, hypertension, fever, or acute kidney failure following an upper respiratory tract infection or pharyngitis from Streptococcus spp.
5. IgA Nephropathy Glomerulonephritis: This is a condition associated with IgA deposition within the glomerulus, presenting with haematuria following an upper respiratory tract infection. It is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis in adults.
Understanding the Different Types of Glomerulonephritis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 15
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with long-standing insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus was on dialysis, secondary to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Three months ago, he received a kidney transplant, with his old kidney left in place. The transplanted kidney is attached to the central circulation, mimicking natural circulation. There are absolutely no signs of rejection, and the kidney is working perfectly. The patient is surprised to find out that he no longer has ‘thin blood’ because it has been years since he has not required medical management for his anaemia.
What is the main factor responsible for the normalization of his blood parameters and his recovery, following the kidney transplant?Your Answer: Erythropoietin (EPO)
Explanation:The Role of Kidney Function in Anaemia of ESRD Patients
Erythropoietin (EPO) is synthesized and secreted by the kidney, making it a crucial factor in maintaining haematopoiesis. Patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) often suffer from severe anaemia and require exogenous EPO to address this issue. A hypoproliferative disorder, ESRD may or may not be accompanied by anaemia of chronic disease or iron deficiency, leading to decreased reticulocytes. Iron supplementation is often necessary in conjunction with EPO to maintain haematopoiesis in dialysis patients.
Renin, on the other hand, is not implicated in anaemia. Aldosterone, which is part of the renin-angiotensin pathway that originates in the kidney, is not directly involved in anaemia either. Any derangement in aldosterone levels secondary to ESRD would have been normalized by now in the kidney.
Normalizing kidney function may improve the iron levels of the patient, but the primary effect of renal disease is insufficient EPO secretion, leading to anaemia. Patients with ESRD are typically phosphate-overloaded and calcium-deficient. While a transplant may lead to decreased phosphate levels due to increased clearance, this is not directly implicated in haematopoiesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?
Your Answer: Immune complex deposition
Correct Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules
Explanation:Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases
Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.
Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.
Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with sudden onset severe pain in his right loin. The pain began 3 hours ago just below the right side of his rib cage and has gradually moved down to his right groin, radiating into his right testis. He denies any visible haematuria. He is unable to tolerate physical examination and is writhing around on his bed.
What is the most appropriate initial management?Your Answer: Morphine iv
Correct Answer: Diclofenac im
Explanation:The recommended pain relief for renal or ureteric colic is an im injection of diclofenac (75 mg), according to current NICE guidelines. If pain is severe, morphine can be used, but pethidine should be avoided due to its increased risk of vomiting. While paracetamol is appropriate for mild pain according to the WHO pain ladder, diclofenac has more evidence for relieving renal colic pains. Morphine is the top step on the WHO pain ladder, but its administration has several complications, including nausea and vomiting, constipation, confusion, and addiction. Diazepam could be the next step on the WHO pain ladder as a weak opioid, but morphine would be the next option if diclofenac failed to control pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman was admitted to hospital seven days ago with moderate symptoms of community-acquired pneumonia and was treated with amoxicillin. She has developed a fever, maculopapular skin rash and haematuria over the last two days. You suspect that her new symptoms may be due to acute tubulointerstitial nephritis caused by a reaction to the amoxicillin she was given.
Which of the following investigations would provide a definitive diagnosis?Your Answer: Urinalysis
Correct Answer: Kidney biopsy
Explanation:Investigations for Tubulointerstitial Nephritis
Tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition that affects the kidneys and can lead to renal failure if left untreated. There are several investigations that can be done to help diagnose this condition.
Kidney Biopsy: This is the most definitive investigation for tubulointerstitial nephritis. It involves taking a small sample of kidney tissue for examination under a microscope. This is usually only done if other tests have been inconclusive or if the diagnosis is unclear.
Full Blood Count: This test can help identify the presence of eosinophilia, which is often seen in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, the absence of eosinophilia does not rule out the condition.
Kidney Ultrasound: This test can help rule out other conditions such as chronic renal failure, hydronephrosis, or renal calculi. In cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis, the kidneys may appear enlarged and echogenic due to inflammation.
Serum Urea and Electrolytes: This test measures the levels of urea and creatinine in the blood, which can be elevated in cases of tubulointerstitial nephritis.
Urinalysis: This test can detect the presence of low-grade proteinuria, white blood cell casts, and sterile pyuria, which are all indicative of tubulointerstitial nephritis. However, it is not a definitive diagnostic tool.
In conclusion, a combination of these investigations can help diagnose tubulointerstitial nephritis and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 19
Correct
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A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 20
Correct
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A 12-year-old male patient is referred to the renal physicians after several episodes of frank haematuria. He does not recall any abdominal or loin pain. He had an upper respiratory tract infection a few days ago. Urine dipstick shows blood, and blood tests are normal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Explanation:Differentiating Glomerulonephritis and Other Possible Causes of Haematuria in a Young Patient
Haematuria in a young patient can be caused by various conditions, including glomerulonephritis, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, minimal change disease, sexually transmitted infections, and bladder cancer. IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s Disease, is the most common glomerulonephritis in the developed world and commonly affects young men. It presents with macroscopic haematuria a few days after a viral upper respiratory tract infection. A renal biopsy will show IgA deposits in the mesangium, and treatment is with steroids or cyclophosphamide if renal function is deteriorating.
Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, on the other hand, presents in young children usually one to two weeks post-streptococcal infection with smoky urine and general malaise. Proteinuria is also expected in a glomerulonephritis. Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children and is associated with an upper respiratory tract infection. However, nephrotic syndrome involves proteinuria, which this patient does not have.
It is also important to exclude sexually transmitted infections, as many are asymptomatic, but signs of infection and inflammation would likely show up on urine dipstick. Bladder cancer is unlikely in such a young patient devoid of other symptoms. Therefore, a thorough evaluation and proper diagnosis are necessary to determine the underlying cause of haematuria in a young patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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