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  • Question 1 - A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought to the paediatric emergency department with symptoms of malaise, rash, vomiting and fever. The mother reports that the child has not been eating well for the past day and has been running a low-grade temperature. Additionally, the mother points out a partial thickness burn on the child's arm that has been treated with dressings by their GP. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Meningococcal septicaemia

      Correct Answer: Toxic shock syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for an unwell child with an unhealed burn

      When a child with an unhealed burn appears acutely unwell, several life-threatening conditions must be considered and ruled out promptly. Among them, toxic shock syndrome and meningococcal septicaemia are particularly concerning and require urgent management in the intensive care unit. Anaphylaxis, although a rare possibility, should also be considered and treated promptly with intramuscular adrenaline. Haemophilus influenzae and Salmonella are less likely causes, as they typically present with respiratory or gastrointestinal symptoms, respectively, which are not evident in this case. A thorough assessment and appropriate interventions are crucial to ensure the best possible outcome for the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 2 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the emergency department with a 4-day history of fever. She has no medical history, allergies, is developing normally and is up-to-date on her immunizations.

      Vital signs:
      - Respiratory rate: 18
      - SpO2: 97%
      - Heart rate: 95
      - Cap. refill time: 2 sec
      - BP: 112/80 mmHg
      - AVPU: Alert
      - Temperature: 39.2ºC

      During the examination, a rough-textured maculopapular rash is found to be widespread. Her tongue is swollen, red, and covered with white papillae, and her tonsils are erythematosus. All other system examinations are normal.

      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Scarlet fever

      Explanation:

      Scarlet fever is a condition caused by erythrogenic toxins produced by Group A haemolytic streptococci, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more prevalent in children aged 2-6 years, with the highest incidence at 4 years. The disease spreads through respiratory droplets or direct contact with nose and throat discharges, especially during sneezing and coughing. The incubation period is 2-4 days, and symptoms include fever, malaise, headache, nausea/vomiting, sore throat, ‘strawberry’ tongue, and a rash that appears first on the torso and spares the palms and soles. The rash has a rough ‘sandpaper’ texture and desquamation occurs later in the course of the illness, particularly around the fingers and toes.

      To diagnose scarlet fever, a throat swab is usually taken, but antibiotic treatment should be initiated immediately, rather than waiting for the results. Management involves administering oral penicillin V for ten days, while patients with a penicillin allergy should be given azithromycin. Children can return to school 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, and scarlet fever is a notifiable disease. Although usually a mild illness, scarlet fever may be complicated by otitis media, rheumatic fever, acute glomerulonephritis, or rare invasive complications such as bacteraemia, meningitis, or necrotizing fasciitis, which may present acutely with life-threatening illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 3 - A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-week-old infant is brought to the GP by their mother due to regurgitation and vomiting after most feeds, ongoing diarrhea with significant amounts of mucous, and difficulty settling. The mother also reports that the infant often pulls their legs up to their chest during crying episodes. The infant was born at full term, had a healthy weight at birth, and is formula-fed. They have a history of eczema managed with emollients. What is the recommended next step in management?

      Your Answer: Omeprazole

      Correct Answer: Trial of extensively hydrolysed formula

      Explanation:

      In case of mild-moderate cow’s milk protein intolerance in a baby who is fed with formula, it is recommended to switch to an extensively hydrolyzed formula.

      Understanding Cow’s Milk Protein Intolerance/Allergy

      Cow’s milk protein intolerance/allergy (CMPI/CMPA) is a condition that affects around 3-6% of children, typically presenting in the first 3 months of life in formula-fed infants. Both immediate and delayed reactions can occur, with CMPA used for immediate reactions and CMPI for mild-moderate delayed reactions. Symptoms include regurgitation, vomiting, diarrhea, urticaria, atopic eczema, colic symptoms, wheeze, chronic cough, and rarely, angioedema and anaphylaxis. Diagnosis is often clinical, with investigations including skin prick/patch testing and total IgE and specific IgE (RAST) for cow’s milk protein.

      Management for formula-fed infants includes using extensive hydrolyzed formula (eHF) milk as the first-line replacement formula for mild-moderate symptoms and amino acid-based formula (AAF) for severe CMPA or if no response to eHF. Around 10% of infants are also intolerant to soya milk. For breastfed infants, mothers should eliminate cow’s milk protein from their diet and consider prescribing calcium supplements to prevent deficiency. eHF milk can be used when breastfeeding stops until at least 6 months and up to 12 months of age.

      The prognosis for CMPI is usually good, with most children becoming milk tolerant by the age of 3-5 years. However, a challenge is often performed in a hospital setting as anaphylaxis can occur. It is important to refer infants with severe symptoms to a pediatrician for management. Understanding CMPI/CMPA and its management can help parents and healthcare providers provide appropriate care for affected children.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 4 - A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the paediatric emergency department. She has a fever and he has noticed raised nodes on her neck. Despite giving her paracetamol and ibuprofen, her temperature is not decreasing. Her lips have become extremely dry and cracked, and her tongue is red and slightly swollen. The father has also noticed that her feet are now red and puffy, and she is developing a widespread fine rash. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hand, foot and mouth disease

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki's disease

      Explanation:

      An eruption characterized by tender papules and vesicles can develop on the hands and feet. Measles typically presents with a fever and symptoms of a cold. Koplik’s spots, which are bright red with a bluish white center, may appear on the oral mucosa. A maculopapular rash usually appears 3-5 days later. Parvovirus B19 is commonly referred to as slapped cheek syndrome. Scarlet fever may also cause an inflamed tongue, but it would not account for the red and swollen feet that later peel.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old daughter to surgery. For the past three weeks, she has been complaining of an itchy bottom. She is otherwise well and clinical examination including that of the perianal area is unremarkable. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole repeated after 2 weeks for all the family

      Correct Answer: Hygiene measures + single dose mebendazole for all the family

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to treat household contacts of patients with threadworms, even if they do not show any symptoms. Referral to the child protection officer is not necessary for an itchy bottom, as it is a common symptom of threadworms.

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 6 - A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby...

    Correct

    • A 32-week neonate is brought to the neonatal intensive care unit. The baby was delivered via emergency Caesarean section to a 17-year-old mother who had not received adequate antenatal care. The mother had a history of significant tobacco and alcohol use. During examination, it was observed that the baby had intestinal loops protruding through a hole on the left side of the umbilicus. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastroschisis

      Explanation:

      Socioeconomic deprivation, maternal alcohol/tobacco use, and maternal age under 20 are all associated with gastroschisis.

      While gastroschisis and omphalocele have similar presentations, gastroschisis refers to a defect located to the side of the umbilicus, while omphalocele refers to a defect in the umbilicus itself.

      Foetal alcohol syndrome is characterized by a small head, flattened philtrum, and thin upper lip.

      Anencephaly is a neural tube defect that results in the absence of the brain, skull, and scalp.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 7 - A 2-year-old boy is found to have a continuous murmur, with the loudest...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-year-old boy is found to have a continuous murmur, with the loudest point at the left sternal edge. No cyanosis is observed, and a diagnosis of patent ductus arteriosus is suspected. What pulse abnormality is commonly linked with this condition?

      Your Answer: Pulsus paradoxus

      Correct Answer: Collapsing pulse

      Explanation:

      The pulse in patent ductus arteriosus is characterized by being large in volume, bounding, and collapsing.

      Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.

      The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 8 - When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United...

    Incorrect

    • When is the infant blood spot screening test typically performed in the United Kingdom?

      Your Answer: On first day of life

      Correct Answer: Between fifth and ninth day of life

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Blood Spot Screening: Identifying Potential Health Risks in Newborns

      Neonatal blood spot screening, also known as the Guthrie test or heel-prick test, is a routine procedure performed on newborns between 5-9 days of life. The test involves collecting a small sample of blood from the baby’s heel and analyzing it for potential health risks. Currently, there are nine conditions that are screened for, including congenital hypothyroidism, cystic fibrosis, sickle cell disease, phenylketonuria, medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency (MCADD), maple syrup urine disease (MSUD), isovaleric acidaemia (IVA), glutaric aciduria type 1 (GA1), and homocystinuria (pyridoxine unresponsive) (HCU).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 9 - Liam, a 13-year-old with learning difficulties, visits his GP clinic. Following a practice...

    Correct

    • Liam, a 13-year-old with learning difficulties, visits his GP clinic. Following a practice meeting, it is concluded that Liam does not possess the capacity to make decisions regarding his medical treatment. What principles should be prioritized when making decisions for Liam?

      Your Answer: Consent may be given by one parent for the treatment that is in her best interests

      Explanation:

      The GMC provides comprehensive guidance on obtaining consent from children. In cases where a child is incapable of giving consent, the agreement of one parent is adequate for treatment to be administered, provided it is in the child’s best interests. It is also crucial to involve Dawn in the decision-making process, despite her incapacity.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 10 - A 6-year-old girl comes to the GP with a pink spotted rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to the GP with a pink spotted rash on her torso that has spread to all her limbs. Her mother reports that she had a high fever for three days before the rash appeared, and that she seemed to be improving before that. The girl is now without a fever.

      During the examination, the GP observes a maculopapular red rash on the girl's trunk and limbs. All other aspects of the examination are normal, and her vital signs are stable.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Erythema multiforme

      Correct Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      Roseola infantum begins with a high fever that disappears before the rash appears. The rash starts suddenly after the temperature drops and usually starts on the trunk before spreading to the limbs. It is a non-itchy maculopapular rash.

      Measles rash occurs with other systemic symptoms and usually starts on the face before spreading to other parts of the body. The characteristic ‘koplik spots’ are a classic sign of this illness.

      Chickenpox starts as a red, itchy papular rash that becomes vesicular and can appear anywhere on the body.

      Erythema multiforme is not caused by a virus but is a hypersensitivity reaction to herpes 7 virus. The macules are typically larger than other rashes and can progress to plaque-like lesions.

      Hand, foot, and mouth disease is caused by the Coxsackie A6 virus and is characterized by painful vesicular lesions on the palms, soles, and buccal mucosa.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 11 - A 5 month old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department by...

    Incorrect

    • A 5 month old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department by his parents after they found him unresponsive. The baby was healthy prior to this incident. Despite advanced life support efforts, the baby could not be revived. His temperature upon arrival was 37.2ºC. The child had received all of his vaccinations and was up-to-date. During the post-mortem examination, bilateral retinal hemorrhages were discovered. What is the most probable cause of the baby's death?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Aggressive shaking of the baby

      Explanation:

      Understanding Shaken Baby Syndrome

      Shaken baby syndrome is a condition that involves a combination of retinal haemorrhages, subdural haematoma, and encephalopathy. It occurs when a child between the ages of 0-5 years old is intentionally shaken. However, there is controversy among physicians regarding the mechanism of injury, making it difficult for courts to convict suspects of causing shaken baby syndrome to a child. This condition has made headlines due to the ongoing debate among medical professionals.

      Shaken baby syndrome is a serious condition that can cause long-term damage to a child’s health. It is important to understand the signs and symptoms of this condition to ensure that children are protected from harm. While the controversy surrounding the diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome continues, it is crucial to prioritize the safety and well-being of children. By raising awareness and educating the public about this condition, we can work towards preventing it from occurring in the future.

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      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 12 - A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze,...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-month-old infant is experiencing feeding difficulties accompanied by a cough and wheeze, leading to a diagnosis of bronchiolitis. What is a triggering factor that can cause a more severe episode of bronchiolitis, rather than just an increased likelihood of developing the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Underlying congenital heart disease

      Explanation:

      Bronchiolitis can be more severe in individuals with congenital heart disease, particularly those with a ventricular septal defect. Fragile X is not associated with increased severity, but Down’s syndrome has been linked to worse episodes. Formula milk feeding is a risk factor for bronchiolitis, but does not affect the severity of the disease once contracted. While bronchiolitis is most common in infants aged 3-6 months, this age range is not indicative of a more severe episode. However, infants younger than 12 weeks are at higher risk. Being born at term is not a risk factor, but premature birth is associated with more severe episodes.

      Bronchiolitis is a condition where the bronchioles become inflamed, and it is most commonly caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). This virus is responsible for 75-80% of cases, with other causes including mycoplasma and adenoviruses. Bronchiolitis is most prevalent in infants under one year old, with 90% of cases occurring in those aged 1-9 months. The condition is more serious in premature babies, those with congenital heart disease or cystic fibrosis. Symptoms include coryzal symptoms, dry cough, increasing breathlessness, and wheezing. Hospital admission is often necessary due to feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea.

      Immediate referral is recommended if the child has apnoea, looks seriously unwell, has severe respiratory distress, central cyanosis, or persistent oxygen saturation of less than 92% when breathing air. Clinicians should consider referral if the child has a respiratory rate of over 60 breaths/minute, difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake, or clinical dehydration. Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV, and management is largely supportive. Humidified oxygen is given via a head box if oxygen saturations are persistently low, and nasogastric feeding may be necessary if children cannot take enough fluid/feed by mouth. Suction may also be used for excessive upper airway secretions. NICE released guidelines on bronchiolitis in 2015 for more information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 13 - A 4-year-old girl is under your review for idiopathic constipation treatment with Movicol...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old girl is under your review for idiopathic constipation treatment with Movicol Paediatric Plain. Despite her mother increasing the dose, there has been no improvement. The child is in good health and abdominal examination is unremarkable. What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add senna

      Explanation:

      Understanding and Managing Constipation in Children

      Constipation is a common problem in children, with the frequency of bowel movements decreasing as they age. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the diagnosis and management of constipation in children. A diagnosis of constipation is suggested by two or more symptoms, including infrequent bowel movements, hard stools, and associated distress or pain. Most cases of constipation in children are idiopathic, but other causes such as dehydration, low-fiber diet, and medication use should be considered and excluded.

      If a diagnosis of constipation is made, NICE recommends assessing for faecal impaction before starting treatment. Treatment for faecal impaction involves using polyethylene glycol 3350 + electrolytes (Movicol Paediatric Plain) as the first-line treatment, with the addition of a stimulant laxative if necessary. Maintenance therapy involves a similar regime, with adjustments to the starting dose and the addition of other laxatives if necessary.

      It is important to note that dietary interventions alone are not recommended as first-line treatment, although ensuring adequate fluid and fiber intake is important. Regular toileting and non-punitive behavioral interventions should also be considered. For infants, extra water, gentle abdominal massage, and bicycling the legs can be helpful for constipation. If these measures are not effective, lactulose can be added.

      In summary, constipation in children can be managed effectively with a combination of medication, dietary adjustments, and behavioral interventions. It is important to follow NICE guidelines and consider the individual needs of each child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 14 - At what age is precocious puberty in males defined as the development of...

    Incorrect

    • At what age is precocious puberty in males defined as the development of secondary sexual characteristics occurring before?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9 years of age

      Explanation:

      Understanding Precocious Puberty

      Precocious puberty is a condition where secondary sexual characteristics develop earlier than expected, before the age of 8 in females and 9 in males. It is more common in females and can be classified into two types: gonadotrophin dependent and gonadotrophin independent. The former is caused by premature activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, resulting in raised levels of FSH and LH. The latter is caused by excess sex hormones, with low levels of FSH and LH. In males, precocious puberty is uncommon and usually has an organic cause, such as gonadotrophin release from an intracranial lesion, gonadal tumour, or adrenal cause. In females, it is usually idiopathic or familial and follows the normal sequence of puberty. Organic causes are rare and associated with rapid onset, neurological symptoms and signs, and dissonance, such as in McCune Albright syndrome. Understanding precocious puberty is important for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 15 - A 17 month old girl comes to your GP clinic with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 17 month old girl comes to your GP clinic with symptoms of a viral URTI. While examining her, you notice some developmental concerns. What would be the most worrying sign?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Unable to say 6 individual words with meaning

      Explanation:

      1. At 23-24 months, children typically have a vocabulary of 20-50 words and can form 2-word phrases with meaning.
      2. Toilet training usually occurs at or after 3 years of age.
      3. By 3 years of age, most children can stand briefly on one leg and hop by age 4.
      4. Walking is typically achieved by 18 months, although most children will walk before 17 months.
      5. It is common for 23-month-old children to engage in solitary play.

      Developmental milestones for speech and hearing are important indicators of a child’s growth and development. These milestones can help parents and caregivers track a child’s progress and identify any potential issues early on. At three months, a baby should be able to quieten to their parents’ voice and turn towards sound. They may also start to squeal. By six months, they should be able to produce double syllables like adah and erleh. At nine months, they may say mama and dada and understand the word no. By 12 months, they should know and respond to their own name and understand simple commands like give it to mummy.

      Between 12 and 15 months, a child may know about 2-6 words and understand more complex commands. By two years old, they should be able to combine two words and point to parts of their body. Their vocabulary should be around 200 words by 2 1/2 years old. At three years old, they should be able to talk in short sentences and ask what and who questions. They may also be able to identify colors and count to 10. By four years old, they may start asking why, when, and how questions. These milestones are important to keep in mind as a child grows and develops their speech and hearing abilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 16 - A 5-year-old patient is referred to the Paediatric Unit after having presented to...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old patient is referred to the Paediatric Unit after having presented to her General Practitioner (GP) twice over the course of the week with fever and a red tongue and throat. A course of penicillin V has so far been ineffective. She is fully immunised and has not been in contact with any other children with notifiable infectious diseases. Her parents report that she has not been well for around 7 days with a high fever, which they have been unable to bring down with paracetamol and ibuprofen. She has had a cough with coryzal symptoms and has now developed conjunctivitis.
      On examination, she looks unwell. Temperature is 38 °C, heart rate 124 bpm and respiratory rate 28. Capillary refill time is 2 s centrally. She has bilateral conjunctivitis. She has a red oropharynx and a red tongue. There is cervical lymphadenopathy and a widespread maculopapular rash. Her hands and feet are red and there is some peeling of the skin around the toes.
      Which of the following diagnoses should be made?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      The child in question is suffering from Kawasaki disease, a febrile vasculitis that affects small to medium-sized arteries and primarily affects children under the age of 5, with males being more commonly affected. Symptoms include sudden-onset fever lasting at least 5 days, nonexudative conjunctivitis, polymorphous rash, lymphadenopathy, mucositis, and cardiovascular manifestations such as coronary artery aneurysms. Diagnosis is based on the presence of fever lasting for >5 days and at least four or five of the following: bilateral conjunctivitis, changes in the lips and oral mucosal cavities, lymphadenopathy, polymorphous rash, and changes in the extremities. Treatment involves inpatient care, intravenous immunoglobulins (IVIG), aspirin, and monitoring of cardiovascular function. If left untreated, Kawasaki disease can lead to arterial aneurysms and congestive heart disease. Other potential causes of the child’s symptoms, such as Coxsackie infection, measles, viral upper respiratory tract infection with exanthema, and scarlet fever, have been ruled out based on the child’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 17 - A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old neonate born at term is presenting with tachypnoea, grunting, and cyanosis. The baby is unable to feed and has an oxygen saturation of 70% on room air. On auscultation, a loud S2 and systolic murmur are heard, which is loudest at the left sternal border. The doctors suspect transposition of the great arteries and have started the baby on intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and scheduled surgery. What additional medication should be given in the meantime?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin E1

      Explanation:

      To maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in cyanotic congenital heart diseases, prostaglandin E1 should be administered. It is helpful to recall the 5 T’s for cyanotic CHD, which include Tetralogy of Fallot, Transposition of Great Vessels (TGA), Tricuspid Atresia, Total Anomalous Pulmonary Venous Return, and Truncus Arteriosus. Based on the timing of onset and heart murmur, the patient in this case likely has TGA with a concurrent VSD. TGA typically presents shortly after birth. Prostaglandin E1 is given in ductal dependent cyanotic heart diseases to prevent closure of the patent ductus arteriosus until surgical correction can be performed. This allows for mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood to ensure adequate systemic circulation. Antibiotics should also be administered as prophylaxis for bacterial endocarditis. It is important to note that nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as indomethacin and ibuprofen will actually close the ductus arteriosus and should not be used in this situation.

      Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.

      If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.

      Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.

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  • Question 18 - A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-week-old baby has been brought in by his mother after she is concerned about his movement. He is diagnosed as having developmental dysplasia of the hip on ultrasound.
      Which statement is correct regarding the management of developmental dysplasia of the hip?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting

      Explanation:

      Understanding Treatment Options and Complications for Developmental Dysplasia of the Hip

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects the hip joint in infants and young children. Treatment options for DDH include splinting with a Pavlik harness or surgical correction. However, both options come with potential complications.

      Avascular necrosis and temporary femoral nerve palsy are potential complications of splinting. While Pavlik harness splinting can be less invasive than surgical correction, it may not be effective for all children. If the child is under six months, the splint is usually tried first, and if there is no response, then surgery may be necessary.

      The age at diagnosis does not affect the prognosis, but the greater the age of the child at diagnosis, the more likely they will need a more extensive corrective procedure. It is important to note that a Pavlik harness is contraindicated in children over six months old or with an irreducible hip. In these cases, surgery is the only treatment option available.

      Recovery following closed reduction surgery is usually complete after four weeks. However, children may need a plaster cast or a reduction brace for three to four months following the procedure. Surgical reduction is always indicated for children in whom a Pavlik harness is not indicated or has not worked. It may also be indicated for children who were too old at presentation to try a harness or have an irreducible hip.

      In summary, understanding the treatment options and potential complications for DDH is crucial for parents and healthcare providers to make informed decisions about the best course of action for each individual child.

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  • Question 19 - A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents...

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    • A 14-month-old boy is brought to the children's emergency department by his parents who report loss of consciousness and seizure activity. Paramedics state that he was not seizing when they arrived. He has a temperature of 38.5ºC and has been unwell recently. His other observations are normal. He has no known past medical history.

      After investigations, the child is diagnosed with a febrile convulsion. What advice should you give his parents regarding this new diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call an ambulance only when a febrile convulsion lasts longer than 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Febrile convulsions are a common occurrence in young children, with up to 5% of children experiencing them. However, only a small percentage of these children will develop epilepsy. Risk factors for febrile convulsions include a family history of the condition and a background of neurodevelopmental disorder. The use of regular antipyretics has not been proven to decrease the likelihood of febrile convulsions.

      Febrile convulsions are seizures caused by fever in children aged 6 months to 5 years. They typically last less than 5 minutes and are most commonly tonic-clonic. There are three types: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Children who have had a first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to pediatrics. Regular antipyretics do not reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. The overall risk of further febrile convulsion is 1 in 3, with risk factors including age of onset, fever duration, family history, and link to epilepsy. Children without risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three features have a much higher risk.

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  • Question 20 - You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform...

    Incorrect

    • You are working in a district general hospital and are asked to perform a routine check on a 6-month-old infant. You're part of the paediatric team and haven't had any access to the previous medical records.
      On examination, the infant appears healthy with appropriate weight for age and has a strong cry. There are no signs of respiratory distress and no abnormal heart sounds on auscultation. However, you notice a cleft palate. What is the most likely association with this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal anti-epileptic use in pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The use of anti-epileptic medication by expectant mothers can lead to the development of orofacial clefts in their babies. Orofacial clefts are a common birth defect that can be caused by various factors, including smoking, benzodiazepine use, anti-epileptic medication, and rubella infection during pregnancy. Treatment for orofacial clefts requires a team of specialists, including plastic and orthodontic surgeons, paediatricians, and speech therapists. It is important to note that congenital heart disease does not increase the risk of orofacial clefts.

      Understanding Cleft Lip and Palate

      Cleft lip and palate are common congenital deformities that affect approximately 1 in every 1,000 babies. These conditions can occur as isolated developmental malformations or as a component of over 200 birth defects. The most common variants of cleft lip and palate are isolated cleft lip, isolated cleft palate, and combined cleft lip and palate.

      The pathophysiology of cleft lip and palate involves polygenic inheritance and an increased risk for babies whose mothers use antiepileptic medication. Cleft lip occurs when the fronto-nasal and maxillary processes fail to fuse, while cleft palate results from the failure of the palatine processes and nasal septum to fuse.

      Children with cleft lip and palate may experience problems with feeding and speech. Orthodontic devices can be helpful for feeding, while speech therapy can help 75% of children develop normal speech. Babies with cleft palate are at an increased risk of developing otitis media.

      Management of cleft lip and palate involves repairing the cleft lip earlier than the cleft palate. The timing of repair varies, with some practices repairing the cleft lip in the first week of life and others waiting up to three months. Cleft palates are typically repaired between 6-12 months of age.

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  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her parents due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss. She has been experiencing abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and a poor appetite. She denies having polyuria and her urinalysis results are normal. Upon examination, she is found to be below the 0.4th centile for both height and weight, having previously been on the 9th centile. What series of investigations would be most helpful in confirming a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoantibodies and CRP

      Explanation:

      Investigating Short Stature in a Child with GI Symptoms

      When a child presents with short stature and symptoms suggestive of gastrointestinal (GI) pathology, it is important to consider chronic disease as a possible cause. In this case, the child has fallen across two height and weight centiles, indicating a potential secondary cause. Autoantibodies such as anti-endomysial and anti-tissue transglutaminase may be present in coeliac disease, while a significantly raised CRP would be consistent with inflammatory bowel disease. Further investigation, such as a full blood count and U&E, should also be conducted to exclude chronic kidney disease and anaemia.

      While a glucose tolerance test may be used to diagnose diabetes, it is unlikely to be associated with abdominal pain in the absence of glycosuria or ketonuria. Similarly, an insulin stress test may be used for confirmation of growth hormone deficiency, but this condition would not account for the child’s GI symptoms or weight loss. A TSH test may suggest hyper- or hypo-thyroidism, but it is unlikely to support the diagnosis in this case.

      It is important to consider all possible causes of short stature in children, especially when accompanied by other symptoms. In this case, measuring autoantibodies and CRP can be useful in making a diagnosis, but further investigation may be necessary for confirmation.

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  • Question 22 - A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-day old infant comes in with progressive abdominal swelling and one instance of vomiting bile. The baby has not yet had a bowel movement. What aspect of the medical history would suggest the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Family history of cystic fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Meconium ileus is a condition that affects newborns and can cause blockage in the intestines due to thick, sticky meconium. It is commonly associated with cystic fibrosis, a genetic disorder that affects the production of mucous in the body. Other conditions that may be mistaken for meconium ileus include Hirschsprung’s disease and meconium plug syndrome. The likelihood of a baby developing meconium ileus is not influenced by factors such as conception through IVF, family history of inflammatory bowel disease or coeliac, or delivery by caesarian section.

      Cystic Fibrosis: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects various organs in the body, particularly the lungs and digestive system. The symptoms of cystic fibrosis can vary from person to person, but there are some common features that are often present. In the neonatal period, around 20% of infants with cystic fibrosis may experience meconium ileus, which is a blockage in the intestine caused by thick, sticky mucous. Prolonged jaundice may also occur, but less commonly. Recurrent chest infections are a common symptom, affecting around 40% of patients. Malabsorption is another common feature, with around 30% of patients experiencing steatorrhoea (excessive fat in the stool) and failure to thrive. Liver disease may also occur in around 10% of patients.

      It is important to note that while many patients are diagnosed with cystic fibrosis during newborn screening or early childhood, around 5% of patients are not diagnosed until after the age of 18. Other features of cystic fibrosis may include short stature, diabetes mellitus, delayed puberty, rectal prolapse (due to bulky stools), nasal polyps, male infertility, and female subfertility. Overall, the symptoms and characteristics of cystic fibrosis can vary widely, but early diagnosis and treatment can help manage the condition and improve quality of life.

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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days which initially started with a few days of cold symptoms. He describes it as ‘the worst cough I've ever had’. He has bouts of coughing followed by an inspiratory gasp. This is usually worse at night and can be so severe that he sometimes vomits. He is otherwise fit and well and confirms he completed all his childhood immunisations. Examination of his chest is unremarkable.
      What is the most suitable initial management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start a course of oral clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If the onset of cough is within the previous 21 days, the recommended first-line treatment for whooping cough is a course of oral clarithromycin or azithromycin. In this case, the correct answer is to start a course of oral clarithromycin as the patient’s history is consistent with whooping cough. Starting treatment within 21 days of onset of the cough can help to reduce the risk of spread. It is incorrect to not start any treatment as the patient has presented within the appropriate timeframe. Offering an immediate booster vaccination is also not indicated in the initial management of the index case, and starting a course of oral doxycycline is not the first-line treatment for whooping cough.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

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  • Question 24 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the attention of a psychiatrist by her father with complaints of difficulty concentrating at home and at school. She is reported by the teachers to be easily distracted which is adversely affecting her learning. She also shows repeated outbursts of anger and her father thinks she has 'too much energy'. The psychiatrist diagnoses her with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and starts her on methylphenidate (Ritalin).

      What parameter must be monitored every 6 months in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Weight and height

      Explanation:

      Regular monitoring of weight and height is recommended every 6 months for patients taking methylphenidate, a stimulant medication. This is important as the drug may cause appetite suppression and growth impairment in children. Additionally, blood pressure and pulse should also be monitored regularly.

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

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  • Question 25 - A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy is presented to the General Practitioner by his mother who reports that he has been having difficulties at school for the past year. The patient has a medical history of recurrent otitis media. The mother mentions that her nephew and niece have both required extra assistance at school, and the latter has been diagnosed with Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). The patient had a normal birth history and early childhood development. On examination, he has an elongated face and protruding ears. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fragile X syndrome

      Explanation:

      Fragile X Syndrome: A Genetic Disorder

      Fragile X syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by a trinucleotide repeat. It affects both males and females, but males are more severely affected. Common features in males include learning difficulties, large low set ears, long thin face, high arched palate, macroorchidism, hypotonia, and a higher likelihood of autism. Mitral valve prolapse is also a common feature. Females, who have one fragile chromosome and one normal X chromosome, may have a range of symptoms from normal to mild.

      Diagnosis of Fragile X syndrome can be made antenatally by chorionic villus sampling or amniocentesis. The number of CGG repeats can be analyzed using restriction endonuclease digestion and Southern blot analysis. Early diagnosis and intervention can help manage the symptoms of Fragile X syndrome and improve the quality of life for those affected.

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  • Question 26 - A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean...

    Incorrect

    • A female infant is born prematurely at 32 weeks gestation by emergency cesarean section. She initially appears to be stable. However, over the ensuing 48 hours she develops worsening neurological function. What is the most probable cause of this deterioration?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intraventricular haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Understanding Intraventricular Haemorrhage

      Intraventricular haemorrhage is a rare condition that involves bleeding into the ventricular system of the brain. While it is typically associated with severe head injuries in adults, it can occur spontaneously in premature neonates. In fact, the majority of cases occur within the first 72 hours after birth. The exact cause of this condition is not well understood, but it is believed to be a result of birth trauma and cellular hypoxia in the delicate neonatal central nervous system.

      Treatment for intraventricular haemorrhage is largely supportive, as therapies such as intraventricular thrombolysis and prophylactic cerebrospinal fluid drainage have not been shown to be effective. However, if hydrocephalus and rising intracranial pressure occur, shunting may be necessary. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of this condition and its potential complications in order to provide appropriate care for affected patients.

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  • Question 27 - A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-week-old baby to the GP clinic for their routine 7-week check-up. The baby appears happy and responsive during the assessment. During the examination, you observe weak femoral pulses on both sides. The rest of the examination is normal.

      What is the most suitable course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Same day discussion with paediatrics

      Explanation:

      If a baby’s femoral pulses are absent or weak during their 6-8 week check, it is important to discuss this immediately with paediatrics. Any signs of a critical or major congenital heart abnormality should also be seen urgently by a specialist. Advising the mother that these findings are normal would be inappropriate, as they are abnormal. While safety netting is important, the child should still be seen urgently by the appropriate specialist. Taking the child to the emergency department is not the best option, as they may not be equipped to deal with this issue and will likely refer to the paediatrics team themselves. Referring routinely to paediatrics or making an appointment in 2 weeks would waste valuable time in a potentially unwell child who needs urgent referral.

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

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  • Question 28 - A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born...

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    • A 4-week old baby is seen by the GP. The baby was born in breech position at 38+4 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. However, two days after birth, the baby developed jaundice and was treated with phototherapy. The newborn physical examination was normal. The mother has a medical history of anaemia, asthma, and coeliac disease. The baby is currently thriving and is on the 45th centile. What investigations should the GP consider referring the baby for based on their medical history?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasounds of pelvis

      Explanation:

      Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.

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  • Question 29 - A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy has been experiencing progressive gait disturbance and falls. He was initially evaluated by a paediatric neurologist at the age of 5 years due to unsteady gait and toe walking. His gait unsteadiness began around the age of 4 years with frequent falls, and he had also developed hand tremors prior to this visit. Upon further examination, he was found to have pes cavus, mild scoliosis, and no cardiac murmur. What is the mode of inheritance for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive

      Explanation:

      Friedreich’s ataxia is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. This is the most common type of hereditary ataxia and typically presents with symptoms before the age of 25, including ataxia, cardiomyopathy, motor weakness, pes cavus foot deformity, and scoliosis. It should be noted that Friedreich’s ataxia is not inherited in an autosomal dominant or X-linked recessive manner, nor is it caused by mitochondrial dysfunction.

      Autosomal Recessive Conditions

      Autosomal recessive conditions are genetic disorders that occur when an individual inherits two copies of a mutated gene, one from each parent. These conditions are often referred to as ‘metabolic’ as they affect the body’s metabolic processes. However, there are notable exceptions, such as X-linked recessive conditions like Hunter’s and G6PD, and autosomal dominant conditions like hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.

      Some ‘structural’ conditions, like ataxia telangiectasia and Friedreich’s ataxia, are also autosomal recessive. The following conditions are examples of autosomal recessive disorders: albinism, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, cystic fibrosis, cystinuria, familial Mediterranean fever, Fanconi anemia, glycogen storage disease, haemochromatosis, homocystinuria, lipid storage disease (Tay-Sach’s, Gaucher, Niemann-Pick), mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler’s), PKU, sickle cell anemia, thalassemias, and Wilson’s disease.

      It is worth noting that Gilbert’s syndrome is still a matter of debate, and many textbooks list it as autosomal dominant. Nonetheless, understanding the inheritance patterns of these conditions is crucial for genetic counseling and management.

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  • Question 30 - A 3-year-old child is brought by her mother to the general practice surgery...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old child is brought by her mother to the general practice surgery with a 3-day history of fever, irritability and right ear pain, which suddenly became more severe 12 hours ago and then resolved with the onset of a discharge from the right ear. On examination, you find a tympanic membrane with a central perforation.
      What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Commence oral antibiotics and review after 6 weeks to ensure the perforation is healing

      Explanation:

      Acute otitis media with perforation is an inflammation of the middle ear that lasts less than 3 weeks and is commonly seen in children under 10 years old. It can be caused by viruses or bacteria, with Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and respiratory syncytial virus being the most common culprits. Symptoms include earache, fever, and irritability, and examination reveals a red, cloudy tympanic membrane that may be bulging or perforated. Complications can include temporary hearing loss, mastoiditis, and meningitis. Treatment involves pain relief and a course of oral antibiotics, with routine referral to ENT only necessary for recurrent symptoms or those that fail to resolve with antibiotics. Gentamicin is contraindicated in the presence of a tympanic perforation due to its ototoxicity, and amoxicillin is the first-line antibiotic treatment.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (3/10) 30%
Passmed