-
Question 1
Correct
-
What is a medication that acts as a partial agonist for 5HT1A receptors?
Your Answer: Buspirone
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
In which group is the prevalence of dystonias caused by antipsychotic treatment the highest?
Your Answer: Young men
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
Which option is considered to have the lowest risk of causing damage to the heart?
Your Answer: Lofepramine
Explanation:Among the tricyclic antidepressants, Lofepramine has the lowest potential for causing cardiotoxicity.
Antidepressants and Their Cardiac Effects
SSRIs are generally recommended for patients with cardiac disease as they may protect against myocardial infarction (MI). Untreated depression worsens prognosis in cardiovascular disease. Post MI, SSRIs and mirtazapine have either a neutral of beneficial effect on mortality. Sertraline is recommended post MI, but other SSRIs and mirtazapine are also likely to be safe. However, citalopram is associated with Torsades de pointes (mainly in overdose). Bupropion, citalopram, escitalopram, moclobemide, lofepramine, and venlafaxine should be used with caution of avoided in those at risk of serious arrhythmia (those with heart failure, left ventricular hypertrophy, previous arrhythmia, of MI).
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) have established arrhythmogenic activity which arises as a result of potent blockade of cardiac sodium channels and variable activity at potassium channels. ECG changes produced include PR, QRS, and QT prolongation and the Brugada syndrome. Lofepramine is less cardiotoxic than other TCAs and seems to lack the overdose arrhythmogenicity of other TCAs. QT changes are not usually seen at normal clinical doses of antidepressants (but can occur, particularly with citalopram/escitalopram). The arrhythmogenic potential of TCAs and other antidepressants is dose-related.
Overall, SSRIs are recommended for patients with cardiac disease, while caution should be exercised when prescribing TCAs and other antidepressants, especially in those at risk of serious arrhythmia. It is important to monitor patients closely for any cardiac effects when prescribing antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about antihistamines?
Your Answer: Ranitidine is a H1 antihistamine
Correct Answer: First generation antihistamines should be avoided in people at risk of angle closure glaucoma
Explanation:First generation antihistamines should be avoided in individuals who are at risk of angle closure glaucoma due to their tendency to cause anticholinergic side effects. Pupil dilation (mydriasis) caused by these medications can increase the risk of angle closure glaucoma in individuals with narrow anterior chamber angles, but this is not a concern for those with open angle glaucoma.
Antihistamines: Types and Uses
Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.
There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 68 year old woman with heart disease has recently been started on fluoxetine for a moderate depressive illness. She visits her GP complaining of tiredness and muscle cramps. The GP contacts you for advice, which of the following is most likely to reveal an abnormality?
Your Answer: U & E
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for the women’s medical history is SIADH, which is believed to be caused by the antidepressant she recently began taking. This condition would be reflected in her U & E results, which would indicate a low level of sodium.
Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
Who is responsible for introducing chlorpromazine into clinical practice?
Your Answer: Charpentier
Correct Answer: Delay and Deniker
Explanation:Chlorpromazine, also known as Thorazine, is a medication used to treat various mental health conditions such as schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and severe anxiety. It was first synthesized by Paul Charpentier in 1950 and quickly became a popular antipsychotic medication due to its effectiveness in reducing symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. Chlorpromazine works by blocking certain neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to a calming effect on the patient. Despite its success, chlorpromazine can cause side effects such as drowsiness, dry mouth, and blurred vision. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before taking this medication.
A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
Which of the following is excluded from the field of pharmacodynamics?
Your Answer: Drug metabolism
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics includes the study of drug metabolism.
Receptor Binding
Receptor binding is a crucial aspect of pharmacodynamics, which involves the study of how drugs affect the body. Receptors are specialized proteins located on the surface of inside cells that interact with specific molecules, such as neurotransmitters, hormones, of drugs. When a drug binds to a receptor, it can either activate or inhibit its function, leading to various biological effects. The affinity and efficacy of a drug for a receptor depend on its chemical structure, concentration, and the properties of the receptor. Understanding receptor binding is essential for developing safe and effective drugs, as well as for predicting drug interactions and side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification?
Your Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Mirtazapine and Mianserin are significant NaSSA’s (Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants) that function by blocking adrenergic and serotonergic receptors. In contrast to the majority of antidepressants, they do not impact the reuptake of serotonin.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 9
Correct
-
When is the highest risk period for agranulocytosis caused by clozapine?
Your Answer: 4-18 weeks
Explanation:Agranulocytosis, a potentially life-threatening condition, is a rare side effect of clozapine occurring in approximately 1% of patients. The period of maximum risk for developing agranulocytosis is between 4-18 weeks after starting treatment. It is important for patients taking clozapine to have regular blood tests and be registered with the Clozaril Patient Monitoring Service to monitor for this side effect. It is worth noting that the risk of agranulocytosis is not related to the dose of clozapine. For more information on the treatment of schizophrenia, the book Contemporary Issues in the Treatment of Schizophrenia edited by Shriqui CL and Nasrallah HA may be of interest.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
How does atomoxetine work in the body?
Your Answer: Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 45-year-old female with long-standing epilepsy experiences severe hyponatremia. What medication is the probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Carbamazepine is an anticonvulsant drug that is used to treat seizures and nerve pain. However, it can also cause some major systemic side effects. These include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, which can be quite severe in some cases. Another potential side effect is hyponatremia, which is a condition where the blood sodium levels become too low. This can cause symptoms such as confusion, seizures, and even coma in severe cases.
Carbamazepine can also cause skin reactions such as rash and pruritus (itching). These can range from mild to severe and may require medical attention. Finally, fluid retention is another potential side effect of carbamazepine. This can cause swelling in the legs, ankles, and feet, and may also lead to weight gain.
It is important to note that not everyone who takes carbamazepine will experience these side effects. However, if you do experience any of these symptoms, it is important to speak with your doctor right away. They may be able to adjust your dosage of switch you to a different medication to help alleviate these side effects.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about agomelatine?
Your Answer: It should only be used where there is a significant sleep pattern dysfunction
Correct Answer: It is not associated with sexual side effects
Explanation:Agomelatine is a medication used to treat depression. It works by activating melatonin receptors (MT1 and MT2) and blocking serotonin 5-HT2C receptors.
Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
All of the following contribute to the sleep enhancing properties of mirtazapine except:
Your Answer: 5HT3 antagonist
Correct Answer: Alpha 2 antagonist
Explanation:Mirtazapine is known to enhance sleep through its effects on various receptors, including 5HT2, 5HT3, and H1, as well as alpha 1 antagonist. However, its alpha 2 antagonist may actually inhibit the release of norepinephrine and potentially diminish the sleep-enhancing effects of the drug at higher dosages. Therefore, doses of 30mg of less are typically used to treat insomnia. (Source: Foundations of Psychiatric Sleep Medicine, Cambridge University Press, 2011, p.224)
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
If a researcher is studying a new drug for schizophrenia that follows first order kinetics for elimination at a rate of 10% per minute, and 100 mg of the drug is initially present in the plasma, what is the amount of the drug that will be eliminated after three minutes?
Your Answer: 72.9 mg
Correct Answer: 27.1 mg
Explanation:The given scenario follows first order kinetics, where the elimination rate of a drug depends on its concentration. A 100 mg dose of the drug is administered, with a 10% elimination rate per minute. After 1 minute, 10 mg of the drug is eliminated, leaving 90 mg. After 2 minutes, 9 mg is eliminated, leaving 81 mg. After 3 minutes, 8.1 mg is eliminated, resulting in a total of 27.1 mg eliminated.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 15
Incorrect
-
Which SSRI can be administered intravenously to treat depression?
Your Answer: Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Alternative Routes of Administration for Antidepressants
While most antidepressants are taken orally, there are a few alternative routes of administration available. However, it is important to note that these non-oral preparations should only be used when absolutely necessary, as they may not have a UK licence.
One effective alternative route is sublingual administration of fluoxetine liquid. Buccal administration of selegiline is also available. Crushed amitriptyline has been shown to be effective when administered via this route.
Intravenous administration is another option, with several antidepressants available in IV preparations, including citalopram, escitalopram, mirtazapine, amitriptyline, clomipramine, and allopregnanolone (which is licensed in the US for postpartum depression). Ketamine has also been shown to be effective when administered intravenously.
Intramuscular administration of flupentixol has been shown to have a mood elevating effect, but amitriptyline was discontinued as an IM preparation due to the high volumes required.
Transdermal administration of selegiline is available, and suppositories containing amitriptyline, clomipramine, imipramine, and trazodone have been manufactured by pharmacies, although there is no clear data on their effectiveness. Sertraline tablets and doxepin capsules have also been given rectally.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
Which statement about EPSEs is incorrect?
Your Answer: Anticholinergics are indicated in the treatment of tardive dyskinesia
Explanation:Patients who develop TD who are prescribed an anticholinergic drug should not have this discontinued if possible.
Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 17
Correct
-
How can one distinguish between serotonin syndrome and NMS?
Your Answer: Speed of onset following initiation of medication
Explanation:Serotonin syndrome may sometimes result in increased levels of CPK.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 18
Correct
-
What is a true statement about serotonin syndrome?
Your Answer: Hypertonia is a characteristic finding
Explanation:Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
Acamprosate provides a benefit to individuals with alcohol dependence by acting as an allosteric modulator at a specific receptor.
Your Answer: NMDA
Correct Answer: GABA-A
Explanation:Allosteric modulators are substances that bind to a receptor and alter the way the receptor responds to stimuli.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 20
Correct
-
What factor is most likely to worsen a patient's psoriasis?
Your Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
An older adult on haloperidol for a psychotic disorder has an extended QTc interval on a routine ECG. What antipsychotic medication is thought to have the least impact on the QTc interval and could be a viable substitute?
Your Answer: Aripiprazole
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
A client visiting your practice informs you that they have been informed that grapefruit juice may have an impact on their SSRI antidepressant. What is the most suitable guidance you can provide?
Your Answer: Grapefruit juice and also some other citrus juices should be avoided
Explanation:The cytochrome P450 enzyme system, responsible for metabolizing SSRIs and certain cholesterol-lowering medications, can be inhibited by consuming grapefruit juice and other juices like lime juice. Therefore, patients taking SSRI antidepressants should avoid these juices.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 23
Correct
-
What is the preferred antidepressant for individuals experiencing depression after a heart attack?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Sertraline is the preferred medication for treating post-MI depression as it has minimal impact on heart rate, blood pressure, and the QTc interval. Tricyclics are not recommended due to their potential to cause postural hypotension, increased heart rate, and QTc interval prolongation. Fluoxetine may be used with caution as it has a slight effect on heart rate but does not significantly affect blood pressure of the QTc interval. Trazodone should be used with care as it can cause significant postural hypotension and QTc interval prolongation in post-MI patients. Venlafaxine should be avoided in these patients as it can increase blood pressure, particularly at higher doses.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
What is the opposite effect of a full agonist?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inverse agonist
Explanation:Agonists and Antagonists in Pharmacology
In pharmacology, an agonist is a substance that binds to a receptor and triggers a biological response. On the other hand, an antagonist is a substance that blocks the effects of an agonist. A partial agonist produces a response but cannot produce the maximum response even at high doses.
Competitive antagonists bind to the receptor in a reversible way without affecting the biological response. They make the agonist appear less potent. Inverse agonists, on the other hand, have opposite effects from those of full agonists. They are not the same as antagonists, which block the effect of both agonists and inverse agonists.
Full agonists display full efficacy at a receptor. Some substances can act as an agonist at certain receptors and as an antagonist at others. Such a substance is called an agonist-antagonist. Understanding the differences between agonists and antagonists is crucial in drug development and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 25
Incorrect
-
What factors contribute to an increased likelihood of developing pseudo-parkinsonism when taking typical antipsychotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Previous stroke
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
Can you identify an antidepressant that also acts as a melatonin receptor agonist?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Agomelatine
Explanation:Agomelatine is an antidepressant that targets 5HT2C, melatonin-1, and melatonin-2 receptors and is approved for treating major depression. Bupropion is not licensed as an antidepressant in the UK but is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. It has dopaminergic and noradrenergic effects but does not affect melatonin receptors. Escitalopram is an SSRI antidepressant that does not impact melatonin receptors. Melatonin, on the other hand, acts on melatonin receptors but is not an antidepressant; it is used to treat primary insomnia. Vortioxetine is a multimodal antidepressant that enhances serotonin and other neurotransmitter levels in the brain by targeting 5HT3, 7, 1A, and 1B receptors. It is not known to affect melatonin receptors and is not currently licensed for use in the UK.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A newly admitted elderly patient with dementia has an ECG which shows a prolonged QT interval. You request some routine bloods, which of the following would best explain his ECG finding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypocalcemia
Explanation:The Maudsley Guidelines 10th Edition state that there are several independent risk factors for QT prolongation, including being female, having hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia, hypocalcemia, and having anorexia nervosa.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 28
Incorrect
-
An elevated risk of Ebstein's anomaly has previously been linked to which of the following medications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The previously assumed higher risk is now uncertain and may not actually exist. We include this question to ensure that you are aware of the past association, as it may still be present in exam materials that have not been revised.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
Which drug was discovered by Nathan Kline and how is it utilized in treating depression?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iproniazid
Explanation:Initially used to treat tuberculosis, iproniazid was found to have a positive impact on patients’ moods. Kline’s publication provided the first evidence supporting its effectiveness in treating depression.
A Historical Note on the Development of Zimelidine, the First Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor
In 1960s, evidence began to emerge suggesting a significant role of serotonin in depression. This led to the development of zimelidine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). Zimelidine was derived from pheniramine and was marketed in Europe in 1982. However, it was removed from the market in 1983 due to severe side effects such as hypersensitivity reactions and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Despite its short-lived availability, zimelidine paved the way for the development of other SSRIs such as fluoxetine, which was approved by the FDA in 1987 and launched in the US market in 1988 under the trade name Prozac. The development of SSRIs revolutionized the treatment of depression and other mood disorders, providing a safer and more effective alternative to earlier antidepressants such as the tricyclics and MAO inhibitors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 70-year-old man, who is being treated for psychotic depression, arrives at the emergency department in a state of confusion. He has a fever and is tachycardic. During the examination, it is observed that he has generalised muscular rigidity in his extremities, which is present throughout all ranges of movement. Additionally, he displays signs of tremors. What medication is the most probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haloperidol
Explanation:This is a case of neuroleptic malignant syndrome, which is primarily associated with the use of antipsychotic medications. The key features of NMS include mental status changes, muscular rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability, typically presenting as tachycardia. Mental state changes are often the first symptom to appear.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 31
Incorrect
-
What is a significant byproduct of clozapine metabolism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: N-desmethylclozapine
Explanation:Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 32
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. What class of medication would be the most suitable for her treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Benzodiazepine
Explanation:The preferred initial treatment for alcohol withdrawal syndrome is benzodiazepines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 33
Incorrect
-
Which phenothiazine contains an aliphatic side chain?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Antipsychotics can be classified in different ways, with the most common being typical (first generation) and atypical (second generation) types. Typical antipsychotics block dopamine (D2) receptors and have varying degrees of M1, Alpha-1, and H1 receptor blockade. Atypical antipsychotics have a lower propensity for extrapyramidal side-effects and are attributed to the combination of relatively lower D2 antagonism with 5HT2A antagonism. They are also classified by structure, with examples including phenothiazines, butyrophenones, thioxanthenes, diphenylbutylpiperidine, dibenzodiazepines, benzoxazoles, thienobenzodiazepine, substituted benzamides, and arylpiperidylindole (quinolone). Studies have found little evidence to support the superiority of atypicals over typicals in terms of efficacy, discontinuation rates, of adherence, with the main difference being the side-effect profile. The Royal College also favors classification by structure.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 34
Incorrect
-
What is the enzyme that is inhibited by disulfiram and responsible for its effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldehyde dehydrogenase
Explanation:Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 35
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old woman with a history of depression is exhibiting symptoms consistent with serotonin syndrome after a recent adjustment to her medication regimen. She has been taking 20 mg of sertraline daily for the past six months. What modification to her medication is most likely responsible for the onset of the syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Commencement of sumatriptan
Explanation:Fluoxetine can cause a serotonin syndrome when combined with sumatriptan due to their structural similarity and shared 5HT agonist properties. Agomelatine does not affect serotonin levels. Reboxetine works by inhibiting the reuptake of noradrenaline. To decrease the risk of serotonin syndrome, the dosage of fluoxetine can be reduced by 20 mg. Changing the form of fluoxetine to a liquid form would not significantly alter its bioavailability.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 36
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is the least anticipated outcome of using lithium over an extended period of time?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diabetes mellitus
Explanation:The use of lithium is linked to diabetes insipidus, rather than diabetes mellitus.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 37
Incorrect
-
Which drug experiences the most substantial first-pass metabolism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Imipramine
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 38
Incorrect
-
What is a suitable alternative for a patient who has lithium-induced diabetes insipidus and cannot be switched to a different medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amiloride
Explanation:It is not advisable to limit fluid intake in cases of lithium-induced DI as it can result in severe hypernatremia.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 39
Incorrect
-
Zopiclone is thought to exert its effects by targeting which type of receptor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA
Explanation:Benzodiazepines and Z-drugs (such as zopiclone and zolpidem) have a common mechanism of action on the GABA receptor. It is noteworthy that alcohol also affects this receptor, which explains the similar effects observed in alcohol and benzodiazepine use. Additionally, benzodiazepines play a role in managing alcohol withdrawal symptoms.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 40
Incorrect
-
Which antidepressant is known for having a lower occurrence of sexual dysfunction as a side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reboxetine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 41
Incorrect
-
What is a frequently observed side effect of varenicline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abnormal dreams
Explanation:While varenicline may cause uncommon of rare side effects, abnormal dreams are a frequently reported one.
Varenicline for Smoking Cessation: Safety and Efficacy
Varenicline is a medication used to aid smoking cessation by reducing cravings and pleasurable effects of tobacco products. It has a high affinity for the alpha 4 beta 2 nicotinic receptor and is recommended by NICE for smoking cessation. Varenicline is safe to use in cases of liver dysfunction as it undergoes very little hepatic metabolism. It has been found to be nearly 80% more effective than bupropion and more effective than 24-hour nicotine replacement therapy in two large randomized controlled trials. The initial course of treatment could last 12 weeks, with an additional 12 weeks offered to those who have successfully quit smoking. However, varenicline has been observed to exacerbate underlying psychiatric illness, including depression, and is associated with changes in behavior of thinking, anxiety, psychosis, mood swings, aggressive behavior, suicidal ideation, and behavior. Patients with a psychiatric history should be closely monitored while taking varenicline. One randomized controlled trial has challenged this concern. The FDA has issued a safety announcement that varenicline may be associated with a small, increased risk of certain cardiovascular adverse events in patients with cardiovascular disease. The very common side effects of varenicline include nasopharyngitis, abnormal dreams, insomnia, headache, and nausea.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 42
Incorrect
-
What factor is most likely to induce sedation and potentially impair a person's driving ability?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlorpheniramine
Explanation:It is recommended to avoid using first generation H1 antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine in individuals who drive of operate heavy machinery due to their ability to easily penetrate the blood brain barrier and cause sedation.
Antihistamines: Types and Uses
Antihistamines are drugs that block the effects of histamine, a neurotransmitter that regulates physiological function in the gut and potentiates the inflammatory and immune responses of the body. There are two types of antihistamines: H1 receptor blockers and H2 receptor blockers. H1 blockers are mainly used for allergic conditions and sedation, while H2 blockers are used for excess stomach acid.
There are also first and second generation antihistamines. First generation antihistamines, such as diphenhydramine and promethazine, have uses in psychiatry due to their ability to cross the blood brain barrier and their anticholinergic properties. They tend to be sedating and are useful for managing extrapyramidal side effects. Second generation antihistamines, such as loratadine and cetirizine, show limited penetration of the blood brain barrier and are less sedating.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to first-generation antihistamines, including benign prostatic hyperplasia, angle-closure glaucoma, and pyloric stenosis in infants. These do not apply to second-generation antihistamines.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 43
Incorrect
-
What is the enzyme that shows increased levels in Neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CPK
Explanation:Elevated levels of creatine phosphokinase (CPK) are observed in NMS.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 44
Incorrect
-
What category of adverse drug reaction does respiratory depression caused by opioids fall under?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type A
Explanation:The MHRA categorizes adverse drug reactions into five types. Type A reactions occur when a drug’s usual pharmacological actions are amplified at the normal therapeutic dose, and are typically dose-dependent. Type B reactions are unexpected and not related to the drug’s known pharmacological actions. Type C reactions persist for a prolonged period of time, while Type D reactions become apparent after a delay. Type E reactions are associated with the withdrawal of a medication.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 45
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about flumazenil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flumazenil is not currently licensed for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose in the UK
Explanation:Flumazenil is not authorized for treating benzodiazepine overdose in the UK, despite its widespread use. It works by competitively inhibiting the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABAA receptor, reversing the effects of benzodiazepines. Due to its short half-life of 60 minutes, it is important to note that multiple doses may be necessary in cases of benzodiazepine overdose.
Flumazenil: A Selective GABAA Receptor Antagonist
Flumazenil is a medication that selectively blocks the effects of benzodiazepines on the GABAA receptor. It is used to reverse the sedative effects caused by benzodiazepines, either partially or completely. Flumazenil works by competitively interacting with benzodiazepine receptors, which can reverse the binding of benzodiazepines to these receptors. It is administered intravenously and has a short half-life of about 60 minutes. The effects of flumazenil are usually shorter than those of benzodiazepines, and sedation may recur. Flumazenil also blocks non-benzodiazepine-agonists like zopiclone. However, it has no effect on other drugs such as barbiturates, ethanol, of other GABA-mimetic agents unless they act on the benzodiazepine receptor site. The hypnosedative effects of benzodiazepines are rapidly blocked within 1-2 minutes after intravenous administration, and the duration of action ranges from 20 to 50 minutes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 46
Incorrect
-
Which of the options has the lowest degree of first pass effect association?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 47
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the drugs prescribed for individuals with dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil is metabolised by CYP2D6, and CYP3A4
Explanation:The metabolism of donepezil can be inhibited by CYP3A4 inhibitors like erythromycin and CYP2D6 inhibitors like fluoxetine. Conversely, enzyme inducers of these can decrease donepezil levels.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 48
Incorrect
-
You are asked to evaluate a woman on a general medical ward who has been admitted for a chest infection. The medical team suspects that she may be experiencing depression and has initiated treatment. You notice that her QTc interval measures at 490 msec and are concerned about the medications she is taking. If she were to be prescribed any of the following medications, which one would be the most likely culprit for her prolonged QTc?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 49
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a contraindication for the use of zopiclone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Memory impairment
Explanation:Hypnotic Drugs and Their Side Effects
Hypnotic drugs are medications that act on GABA receptors, specifically the BZ1, BZ2, and BZ3 receptors. The BZ1 receptor is responsible for sedative effects, while the BZ2 receptor is responsible for myorelaxant and anticonvulsant effects. The BZ3 receptor is responsible for anxiolytic effects.
Older benzodiazepines bind to all three types of receptors, while newer drugs like Z-drugs primarily bind to the BZ1 receptor. Zopiclone is a cyclopyrrolone drug that was marketed as a non-benzodiazepine sleep aid, but it can produce hangover effects and dependence. It is contraindicated in patients with marked neuromuscular respiratory weakness, respiratory failure, and severe sleep apnea syndrome. Zopiclone can cause alterations in EEG readings and sleep architecture similar to benzodiazepines. It should not be used by breastfeeding women as it passes through to the milk in high quantities. Side effects of zopiclone include metallic taste, heartburn, and lightening of sleep on withdrawal.
Zolpidem is another hypnotic drug that acts on the BZ1 receptor. Side effects of zolpidem include drowsiness, fatigue, depression, falls, and amnesia. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of hypnotic drugs and to use them only as directed by a healthcare provider.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 50
Incorrect
-
What is the cause of diabetes insipidus induced by lithium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Impaired action of ADH on principal cells
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 51
Incorrect
-
A woman with schizophrenia in her 30s has recently changed some of her medication. She attends clinic and appears restless and states she is feeling agitated. What do you suspect could be the reason for her restlessness and agitation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Akathisia
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 52
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not considered a known factor that increases the risk of lithium toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic impairment
Explanation:Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 53
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is an NaRI?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reboxetine
Explanation:Some important noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors (NaRIs) include Reboxetine and Atomoxetine.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 54
Incorrect
-
What is the most probable cause of electroencephalographic alterations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Their Effects on EEG
The use of antipsychotics has been found to have an impact on the EEG of patients taking them. A study conducted on the subject found that clozapine had the highest percentage of EEG changes at 47.1%, followed by olanzapine at 38.5%, risperidone at 28.0%, and typical antipsychotics at 14.5%. Interestingly, quetiapine did not show any EEG changes in the study. However, another study found that 5% of quetiapine users did experience EEG changes. These findings suggest that antipsychotics can have varying effects on EEG and should be monitored closely in patients taking them.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 55
Incorrect
-
Which substance has the greatest amount of time required for half of its atoms to decay?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are a class of drugs commonly used to treat anxiety and sleep disorders. It is important to have a working knowledge of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life. Half-life refers to the amount of time it takes for half of the drug to be eliminated from the body.
Some of the more common benzodiazepines and their half-life include diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours, clonazepam with a half-life of 18-50 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours, nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, alprazolam with a half-life of 10-15 hours, oxazepam with a half-life of 6-10 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 5-6 hours, zolpidem with a half-life of 2 hours, and zaleplon with a half-life of 2 hours. Understanding the half-life of these drugs is important for determining dosages and timing of administration.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 56
Incorrect
-
Which statement about neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is incorrect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is usually caused by benzodiazepine use
Explanation:When apomorphine is withdrawn, it results in a decrease in dopamine activity in the brain, similar to the effect of starting an antipsychotic medication that blocks dopamine receptors.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyperreflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 57
Incorrect
-
In comparison to conventional antipsychotics, which side-effect is more frequently observed with atypical antipsychotics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight gain
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 58
Incorrect
-
What is the truth about hyperprolactinemia that is linked to the use of antipsychotic medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is often asymptomatic
Explanation:Hyperprolactinemia is frequently without symptoms, and determining whether treatment is necessary involves weighing the present symptoms, potential long-term risks, and perceived advantages of maintaining the antipsychotic. It is frequently discovered by chance and does not typically necessitate altering the medication regimen.
Hyperprolactinemia is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medication, but it is rare with antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, so dopamine antagonists, such as antipsychotics, can increase prolactin levels. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related, and some antipsychotics cause more significant increases than others. Hyperprolactinemia can cause symptoms such as galactorrhea, menstrual difficulties, gynecomastia, hypogonadism, and sexual dysfunction. Long-standing hyperprolactinemia in psychiatric patients can increase the risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer, although there is no conclusive evidence that antipsychotic medication increases the risk of breast malignancy and mortality. Some antipsychotics, such as clozapine and aripiprazole, have a low risk of causing hyperprolactinemia, while typical antipsychotics and risperidone have a high risk. Monitoring of prolactin levels is recommended before starting antipsychotic therapy and at three months and annually thereafter. Antidepressants rarely cause hyperprolactinemia, and routine monitoring is not recommended. Symptomatic hyperprolactinemia has been reported with most antidepressants, except for a few, such as mirtazapine, agomelatine, bupropion, and vortioxetine.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 59
Incorrect
-
A junior researcher in the field of psychiatry is currently undertaking a six-month research placement as part of their training program. They are collaborating with a team of psychopharmacologists who are studying the mechanism of action of a novel antidepressant medication.
What is the primary group of molecules that most known antidepressants target?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transmembrane transporters
Explanation:Most antidepressants and stimulants target monoamine transporters, which are crucial molecular targets. These transporters are also targeted by 30% of all psychotropic drugs. Another 30% of psychotropic drugs target G-protein-linked receptors, while enzymes are targeted by about 10% of these drugs. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of antidepressant that targets the enzyme monoamine oxidase. Ligand-gated and voltage-gated ion channels are targeted by 20% and 10% of all psychotropic drugs, respectively.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 60
Incorrect
-
What physiological factor is the QTc, calculated using Bazett's formula, corrected for?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: RR interval
Explanation:The Bazett formula adjusts the QT interval for heart rate by taking the square root of the R-R interval and dividing the QT interval by it.
QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification
The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.
Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 61
Incorrect
-
Which statement about modafinil is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It does not tend to lead to dependence
Explanation:Modafinil shares similarities in its mechanism of action with amphetamine, and its effects are relatively brief with a half-life of approximately 8-12 hours. Additionally, the side effects of modafinil are comparable to those of amphetamine.
Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement
Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 62
Incorrect
-
What is the most effective approach to managing narcolepsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Modafinil
Explanation:Modafinil: A Psychostimulant for Wakefulness and Attention Enhancement
Modafinil is a type of psychostimulant that is known to improve wakefulness, attention, and vigilance. Although it is similar to amphetamines, it does not produce the same euphoric effects and is not associated with dependence of tolerance. Additionally, it does not seem to cause psychosis. Modafinil is approved for the treatment of narcolepsy, obstructive sleep apnea, and chronic shift work. It is also suggested as an adjunctive treatment for depression by the Maudsley. Recently, it has gained popularity as a smart drug due to its potential to enhance cognitive functioning in healthy individuals.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 63
Incorrect
-
Which route of administration is known to have the highest degree of first pass effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral
Explanation:The First Pass Effect in Psychiatric Drugs
The first-pass effect is a process in drug metabolism that significantly reduces the concentration of a drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. This phenomenon is related to the liver and gut wall, which absorb and metabolize the drug before it can enter the bloodstream. Psychiatric drugs are not exempt from this effect, and some undergo a significant reduction in concentration before reaching their target site. Examples of psychiatric drugs that undergo a significant first-pass effect include imipramine, fluphenazine, morphine, diazepam, and buprenorphine. On the other hand, some drugs undergo little to no first-pass effect, such as lithium and pregabalin.
Orally administered drugs are the most affected by the first-pass effect. However, there are other routes of administration that can avoid of partly avoid this effect. These include sublingual, rectal (partly avoids first pass), intravenous, intramuscular, transdermal, and inhalation. Understanding the first-pass effect is crucial in drug development and administration, especially in psychiatric drugs, where the concentration of the drug can significantly affect its efficacy and safety.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 64
Incorrect
-
Which antipsychotic is most strongly linked to sudden death?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thioridazine
Explanation:Antipsychotics and Sudden Death: Thioridazine and QTc Prolongation
Antipsychotic medications are known to carry a risk of sudden death, particularly due to their effects on cardiac function. Thioridazine, in particular, has been found to have pronounced effects on potassium channels and significantly prolongs the QTc interval, which is a measure of the time it takes for the heart to repolarize after each beat. This prolongation can lead to a potentially fatal arrhythmia known as torsades de pointes. As a result, thioridazine is most strongly associated with sudden death among antipsychotics.
However, all antipsychotics carry some degree of risk for QTc prolongation and should be closely monitored for changes in this interval. This is especially important for patients with preexisting cardiac conditions of other risk factors for arrhythmias. Regular electrocardiogram (ECG) monitoring may be necessary to detect any changes in QTc interval and adjust medication accordingly. By carefully monitoring patients and taking appropriate precautions, healthcare providers can help minimize the risk of sudden death associated with antipsychotic use.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 65
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about the QTc interval?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Bazett formula over corrects the QTc at heart rates > 100 bpm
Explanation:To obtain an accurate measurement of the QT interval, it is recommended to measure it in lead II of leads V5-6. The Bazett formula may not provide accurate corrections for heart rates above 100 bpm of below 60 bpm, but it can be used to estimate the QT interval at a standard heart rate of 60 bpm through the corrected QT interval (QTc).
QTc Prolongation: Risks and Identification
The QT interval is a measure of the time it takes for the ventricles to repolarize and is calculated from the beginning of the QRS complex to the end of the T wave. However, the QT interval varies with the heart rate, making it difficult to use a single number as a cut-off for a prolonged QT. Instead, a corrected QT interval (QTc) is calculated for each heart rate using various formulas. A QTc over the 99th percentile is considered abnormally prolonged, with approximate values of 470 ms for males and 480 ms for females.
Prolonged QT intervals can lead to torsade de pointes (TdP), a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia that can be fatal if it degenerates into ventricular fibrillation. TdP is characterized by a twisting of the QRS complexes around an isoelectric line and is often asymptomatic but can also be associated with syncope and death. An accurate diagnosis requires an ECG to be recorded during the event. It is important to note that an increase in the QT interval due to a new conduction block should not be considered indicative of acquired LQTS and risk for TdP.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 66
Incorrect
-
What is the characteristic of drugs that are hydrophilic?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They pass poorly through cell membranes
Explanation:Pharmacokinetics is the study of how drugs are affected by the body. This includes how drugs are absorbed into the bloodstream, distributed throughout the body, metabolized into different forms, and eliminated from the body. The acronym ADME is often used to remember these processes. Absorption refers to the transportation of the drug from the site of administration to the bloodstream. Hydrophobic drugs are absorbed better than hydrophilic ones. Distribution refers to the movement of the drug from the bloodstream to other areas of the body. Metabolism involves the conversion of the drug into different forms, often to make it more easily excreted by the kidneys. This process occurs in two phases, involving reduction of hydrolysis in phase 1 and conjugation in phase 2. Excretion refers to the elimination of the drug from the body, which mainly occurs through the kidneys and biliary system.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 67
Incorrect
-
What is a known complication associated with the use of valproate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:The use of valproate can lead to pancreatitis, which is a known and potentially fatal complication.
Valproate: Forms, Doses, and Adverse Effects
Valproate comes in three forms: semi-sodium valproate, valproic acid, and sodium valproate. Semi-sodium valproate is a mix of sodium valproate and valproic acid and is licensed for acute mania associated with bipolar disorder. Valproic acid is also licensed for acute mania, but this is not consistent with the Maudsley Guidelines. Sodium valproate is licensed for epilepsy. It is important to note that doses of sodium valproate and semi-sodium valproate are not the same, with a slightly higher dose required for sodium valproate.
Valproate is associated with many adverse effects, including nausea, tremor, liver injury, vomiting/diarrhea, gingival hyperplasia, memory impairment/confusional state, somnolence, weight gain, anaemia/thrombocytopenia, alopecia (with curly regrowth), severe liver damage, and pancreatitis. Increased liver enzymes are common, particularly at the beginning of therapy, and tend to be transient. Vomiting and diarrhea tend to occur at the start of treatment and remit after a few days. Severe liver damage is most likely to occur in the first six months of therapy, with the maximum risk being between two and twelve weeks. The risk also declines with advancing age.
Valproate is a teratogen and should not be initiated in women of childbearing potential. Approximately 10% of children exposed to valproate monotherapy during pregnancy suffer from congenital malformations, with the risk being dose-dependent. The most common malformations are neural tube defects, facial dysmorphism, cleft lip and palate, craniostenosis, cardiac, renal and urogenital defects, and limb defects. There is also a dose-dependent relationship between valproate and developmental delay, with approximately 30-40% of children exposed in utero experiencing delay in their early development, such as talking and walking later, lower intellectual abilities, poor language skills, and memory problems. There is also a thought to be a 3-fold increase of autism in children exposed in utero.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 68
Incorrect
-
What medication prescribed for depression is most likely to result in decreased sexual drive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause sexual dysfunction as a side-effect, although the rates vary. The impact on sexual desire, arousal, and orgasm can differ depending on the type of antidepressant. It is important to rule out other causes and consider non-pharmacological strategies such as reducing the dosage of taking drug holidays. If necessary, switching to a lower risk antidepressant of using pharmacological options such as phosphodiesterase inhibitors of mirtazapine augmentation can be considered. The Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition provides a helpful table outlining the risk of sexual dysfunction for different antidepressants.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 69
Incorrect
-
What option has the least likelihood of causing extrapyramidal side effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 70
Incorrect
-
Which receptor antagonism is most likely to result in Priapism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha 1
Explanation:Priapism is a rare condition where the penis remains erect for more than four hours without any stimulation, and it can occur as a side effect of antipsychotic and antidepressant medications.
Receptors and Side-Effects
Histamine H1 Blockade:
– Weight gain
– SedationAlpha 1 Blockade:
– Orthostatic hypotension
– Sedation
– Sexual dysfunction
– PriapismMuscarinic Central M1 Blockade:
– Agitation
– Delirium
– Memory impairment
– Confusion
– SeizuresMuscarinic Peripheral M1 Blockade:
– Dry mouth
– Ataxia
– Blurred vision
– Narrow angle glaucoma
– Constipation
– Urinary retention
– TachycardiaEach receptor has specific effects on the body, but they can also have side-effects. Histamine H1 blockade can cause weight gain and sedation. Alpha 1 blockade can lead to orthostatic hypotension, sedation, sexual dysfunction, and priapism. Muscarinic central M1 blockade can cause agitation, delirium, memory impairment, confusion, and seizures. Muscarinic peripheral M1 blockade can result in dry mouth, ataxia, blurred vision, narrow angle glaucoma, constipation, urinary retention, and tachycardia. It is important to be aware of these potential side-effects when using medications that affect these receptors.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 71
Incorrect
-
Which statement regarding the volume of distribution is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is calculated by dividing the drug concentration in the plasma by the amount in the body
Explanation:Which of the following is NOT true regarding the equation Vd = amount in body / plasma concentration?
Understanding the Volume of Distribution in Pharmacology
The volume of distribution (Vd) is a crucial concept in pharmacology that helps determine how a drug distributes in the body. It is also known as the apparent volume of distribution, as it is an abstract volume. The Vd indicates whether a drug concentrates in the plasma of spreads out in the body. Drugs that are highly polar tend to stay in central compartments such as the plasma, resulting in a low Vd. Conversely, drugs that are more lipid-soluble are distributed widely, such as in fat, resulting in a high Vd.
The Vd is calculated by dividing the amount of drug in the body by the concentration in the plasma. Clinically, the Vd is used to determine the loading dose of a drug required for a desired blood concentration and to estimate blood concentration in the treatment of overdose. The units of Vd are in volume.
The apparent volume of distribution is dependent on the drug’s lipid of water solubility, plasma protein binding, and tissue binding. Plasma protein binding affects the Vd, as drugs that bind to plasma proteins like albumin have a smaller apparent volume of distribution. This is because they are extracted from plasma and included in drug concentration measurements, which can give a misleading impression of their volume of distribution. Understanding the Vd is essential in pharmacology to ensure the safe and effective use of drugs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 72
Incorrect
-
A female client at your clinic has mentioned that she is using various herbal and dietary supplements to manage her depression. Which of these supplements is most likely to interact with her SSRI antidepressant medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: St John's wort
Explanation:Omega 3 fatty acids, which are found in high amounts in oily fish, have been shown in some studies to improve depressive symptoms and can be safely combined with SSRIs. However, St John’s wort, which inhibits serotonin reuptake at nerve terminals, should not be taken with drugs that have a predominantly serotonergic action. Brewer’s yeast may cause a tyramine reaction with an MAOI, while evening primrose oil and ginkgo biloba have no interaction with SSRIs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 73
Incorrect
-
What is the mechanism of action of sildenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of phosphodiesterase
Explanation:Nitrous oxide functions as a vasodilator during penile erection by diffusing through the muscle cell membrane and binding to guanylyl cyclase. This enzyme catalyzes the conversion of GTP to cyclic GMP, which activates a cGMP-dependent protein kinase. This kinase stimulates the uptake of calcium by the endoplasmic reticulum of the muscle cell, leading to muscle relaxation and vasodilation, resulting in an erection.
To end the erection, cGMP is converted into GMP by a specific phosphodiesterase (PDE). There are ten families of PDEs, with PDE5 being the primary PDE found in vascular smooth muscle. Sildenafil (Viagra) is a specific inhibitor of PDE5, blocking the breakdown of cGMP and prolonging the effects of cGMP, thereby prolonging the erection.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 74
Incorrect
-
What medication acts as both a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Explanation:SNRIs include duloxetine and venlafaxine.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 75
Incorrect
-
How can a dosette box help the elderly gentleman remember to take his medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:Drug Stability
The stability of drugs can vary greatly, with some medications being unable to be included in compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors. Certain drugs have a tendency to absorb moisture from the air, rendering them ineffective, with light known to accelerate this process. Examples of drugs that are unsuitable for compliance aids due to their susceptibility to environmental factors include Sodium valproate, Zopiclone, Venlafaxine, Topiramate, Methylphenidate, Mirtazapine, Olanzapine, Amisulpride, and Aripiprazole.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 76
Incorrect
-
You are contemplating prescribing a tricyclic antidepressant for an elderly patient who has not shown improvement with two different selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Among the following tricyclic antidepressants, which one is the most hazardous in case of overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dosulepin
Explanation:The TCAs that are considered the most hazardous in overdose are amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin).
Tricyclic Antidepressants: Uses, Types, and Side-Effects
Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) are a type of medication used for depression and neuropathic pain. However, due to their side-effects and toxicity in overdose, they are not commonly used for depression anymore. TCAs can be divided into two types: first generation (tertiary amines) and second generation (secondary amines). The secondary amines have a lower side effect profile and act primarily on noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines boost serotonin and noradrenaline.
Some examples of secondary amines include desipramine, nortriptyline, protriptyline, and amoxapine. Examples of tertiary amines include amitriptyline, lofepramine, imipramine, clomipramine, dosulepin (dothiepin), doxepin, trimipramine, and butriptyline. Common side-effects of TCAs include drowsiness, dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, and urinary retention.
Low-dose amitriptyline is commonly used for neuropathic pain and prophylaxis of headache. Lofepramine has a lower incidence of toxicity in overdose. However, amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are considered the most dangerous in overdose. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider before taking any medication and to follow their instructions carefully.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 77
Incorrect
-
What medication would be most strongly recommended for a patient with schizophrenia and olanzapine induced weight gain who did not respond well to aripiprazole and continues to experience distressing auditory hallucinations?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lurasidone
Explanation:Antipsychotic drugs are known to cause weight gain, but some more than others. The reason for this is not due to a direct metabolic effect, but rather an increase in appetite and a decrease in activity levels. The risk of weight gain appears to be linked to clinical response. There are several suggested mechanisms for this, including antagonism of certain receptors and hormones that stimulate appetite. The risk of weight gain varies among different antipsychotics, with clozapine and olanzapine having the highest risk. Management strategies for antipsychotic-induced weight gain include calorie restriction, low glycemic index diet, exercise, and switching to an alternative antipsychotic. Aripiprazole, ziprasidone, and lurasidone are recommended as alternative options. Other options include aripiprazole augmentation, metformin, orlistat, liraglutide, and topiramate.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 78
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not an inhibitor of the Cytochrome P450 system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Certain substances can either induce or inhibit the activity of enzymes responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Inducers include smoking, alcohol, barbiturates, carbamazepine, Phenytoin, and St John’s Wort, while inhibitors include chlorpromazine, SSRIs, and grapefruit juice.
The Cytochrome P450 system is a group of enzymes that metabolize drugs by altering their functional groups. The system is located in the liver and small intestine and is involved in drug interactions through enzyme induction of inhibition. Notable inducers include smoking, alcohol, and St John’s Wort, while notable inhibitors include grapefruit juice and some SSRIs. CYP2D6 is important due to genetic polymorphism, and CYP3A4 is the most abundant subfamily and is commonly involved in interactions. Grapefruit juice inhibits both CYP1A2 and CYP3A4, while tobacco smoking induces CYP1A2. The table summarizes the main substrates, inhibitors, and inducers for each CYP enzyme.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 79
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a way in which galantamine works?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibits butyrylcholinesterase
Explanation:In the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors such as galantamine are utilized to enhance central acetylcholine levels. Although they share this common mechanism of action, there are variations in how they function. Unlike galantamine, rivastigmine has the ability to inhibit butyrylcholinesterase.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 80
Incorrect
-
Which antidepressant would be the best option for a patient who has been diagnosed with depression and has also experienced a heart attack in the recent past?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Antidepressant Medications and Ischaemic Heart Disease
The SADHART investigation has shown that sertraline is a safe and effective antidepressant for patients with ischaemic heart disease. However, other medications have not yet been proven safe for this population.
Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, is not recommended for patients with comorbid coronary heart disease due to its high relative risk of myocardial infarction and direct cardiac effects. It may also induce weight gain and increase the risk of diabetes, both of which are known risk factors for cardiovascular disease.
Mirtazapine has been studied as a safe second line/alternative treatment to SSRIs in post MI depression, but it can also cause weight gain. Further research is needed to determine the safety and efficacy of other antidepressant medications in patients with ischaemic heart disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 81
Incorrect
-
A 55 year old man with schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine for persistent psychosis symptoms. He has a past medical history of hypertension. His ECG shows a QTc interval of 470ms with no abnormal T wave morphology. What would be the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Continue with the clozapine at the same dose
Explanation:If there are no T wave abnormalities on the ECG, the Maudsley guidelines deem a QTc of 460 ms acceptable for women.
Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 82
Incorrect
-
What precautions should be taken for a patient with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid potential complications?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Donepezil
Explanation:Pseudocholinesterase Deficiency
Pseudocholinesterase deficiency, also known as butyrylcholinesterase deficiency, is a medical condition that can lead to increased sensitivity to certain drugs. This condition affects approximately 1 in 3200 to 1 in 5000 people, with higher prevalence in certain populations such as the Persian Jewish community and Alaska Natives. Interestingly, this condition does not cause any noticeable symptoms until an abnormal drug reaction occurs.
It is important for individuals with pseudocholinesterase deficiency to avoid certain drugs, including donepezil, galantamine, procaine, succinylcholine, and pilocarpine. By avoiding these drugs, individuals with this condition can reduce their risk of experiencing adverse reactions.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 83
Incorrect
-
What drug acts as an alpha 2 antagonist?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Explanation:The pharmacodynamics of Mirtazapine are complex and have received conflicting feedback. However, according to the manufacturer’s leaflet and preclinical studies, Mirtazapine is a potent antagonist of 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors, with no significant affinity for the 5-HT1A and 5-HT1B receptors. It is also a potent antagonist of histamine (H1) receptors, which may explain its sedative effects, and a moderate peripheral a1 adrenergic antagonist, which may cause occasional orthostatic hypotension. Additionally, it is a moderate antagonist at muscarinic receptors, which may explain the low incidence of anticholinergic side effects. Although not stated by the manufacturer, there is considerable evidence that Mirtazapine is also an alpha 2 antagonist, which was likely discovered after the preclinical studies.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 84
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sensations in her head that she describes as similar to 'electric shocks'. She has a history of anxiety and depression and has been taking venlafaxine for the past two months, but has a track record of not taking her medication regularly. Apart from that, she is in good health. Her vital signs show a slightly elevated blood pressure, and her routine blood tests and 12-lead ECG are normal. What is the probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Discontinuation symptoms
Explanation:Discontinuation symptoms are frequently observed in patients taking antidepressants with a shorter half-life, especially venlafaxine of paroxetine. These symptoms can be unsettling, and even patients who are aware of the cause may experience them for several days of longer if they do not resume taking the medication. Malignant hypertension is improbable since the blood pressure is not significantly elevated. Venlafaxine is not typically linked to neuroleptic malignant syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 85
Incorrect
-
What is a true statement about drugs utilized for treating dementia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Memantine is an NMDA antagonist
Explanation:Due to its extended half-life, Donepezil is administered once daily and functions as an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor.
Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 86
Incorrect
-
A geriatric patient in a nursing home becomes confused and agitated within 1 hour of starting a new medication. On examination you note dilated pupils, a temperature of 39 ºC, myoclonus, and hyperreflexia. Which of the following medications would be least likely to cause this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diazepam
Explanation:The symptoms observed in the presentation are indicative of serotonin syndrome, which can be caused by various medications such as antidepressants, lithium, opioids, olanzapine, and risperidone. However, benzodiazepines are not associated with serotonin syndrome and are actually used as part of the treatment.
Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome are two conditions that can be difficult to differentiate. Serotonin Syndrome is caused by excess serotonergic activity in the CNS and is characterized by neuromuscular abnormalities, altered mental state, and autonomic dysfunction. On the other hand, Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is a rare acute disorder of thermoregulation and neuromotor control that is almost exclusively caused by antipsychotics. The symptoms of both syndromes can overlap, but there are some distinguishing clinical features. Hyper-reflexia, ocular clonus, and tremors are more prominent in Serotonin Syndrome, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome is characterized by uniform ‘lead-pipe’ rigidity and hyporeflexia. Symptoms of Serotonin Syndrome usually resolve within a few days of stopping the medication, while Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome can take up to 14 days to remit with appropriate treatment. The following table provides a useful guide to the main differentials of Serotonin Syndrome and Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 87
Incorrect
-
When discussing the advantages and disadvantages of donepezil with a patient during a regular clinic visit, what would you inform him is the most prevalent adverse effect of the medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nausea
Explanation:Pharmacological management of dementia involves the use of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (AChE inhibitors) and memantine. AChE inhibitors prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine, which is deficient in Alzheimer’s due to the loss of cholinergic neurons. Donepezil, galantamine, and rivastigmine are commonly used AChE inhibitors in the management of Alzheimer’s. However, gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and vomiting are common with these drugs.
Memantine, on the other hand, is an NMDA receptor antagonist that blocks the effects of pathologically elevated levels of glutamate that may lead to neuronal dysfunction. It has a half-life of 60-100 hours and is primarily renally eliminated. Common adverse effects of memantine include somnolence, dizziness, hypertension, dyspnea, constipation, headache, and elevated liver function tests.
Overall, pharmacological management of dementia aims to improve cognitive function and slow down the progression of the disease. However, it is important to note that these drugs do not cure dementia and may only provide temporary relief of symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 88
Incorrect
-
Identify the option that represents a secondary amine.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Desipramine
Explanation:Tricyclic Antidepressants: First and Second Generation
Tricyclic antidepressants are classified into two generations: first generation of tertiary amines, and second generation of secondary amines. The secondary amines are known to have fewer side effects and primarily affect noradrenaline, while the tertiary amines are believed to enhance both serotonin and noradrenaline.
Secondary amines include Desipramine, Nortriptyline, Protriptyline, and Amoxapine. On the other hand, tertiary amines include Amitriptyline, Lofepramine, Imipramine, Clomipramine, Dosulepin (Dothiepin), Doxepin, Trimipramine, and Butriptyline.
By understanding the differences between the two generations of tricyclic antidepressants, healthcare professionals can better tailor their treatment plans to their patients’ needs.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 89
Incorrect
-
If lithium is taken in combination with one of the following medications used to treat high blood pressure, which one is most likely to cause lithium toxicity?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Captopril
Explanation:ACE inhibitors, which typically have names ending in -pril such as perindopril and ramipril, as well as ACE II receptor antagonists like losartan and candesartan, have been found to elevate lithium levels.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 90
Incorrect
-
What is the truth about polyuria and polydipsia caused by lithium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is improved by once daily versus twice daily dosing of lithium
Explanation:Daily administration results in increased maximum concentration but more importantly decreased minimum concentration, which is believed to facilitate renal restoration.
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 91
Incorrect
-
The Maudsley Guidelines recommend certain approaches for managing akathisia.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSE’s) are a group of side effects that affect voluntary motor control, commonly seen in patients taking antipsychotic drugs. EPSE’s include dystonias, parkinsonism, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. They can be frightening and uncomfortable, leading to problems with non-compliance and can even be life-threatening in the case of laryngeal dystonia. EPSE’s are thought to be due to antagonism of dopaminergic D2 receptors in the basal ganglia. Symptoms generally occur within the first few days of treatment, with dystonias appearing quickly, within a few hours of administration of the first dose. Newer antipsychotics tend to produce less EPSE’s, with clozapine carrying the lowest risk and haloperidol carrying the highest risk. Akathisia is the most resistant EPSE to treat. EPSE’s can also occur when antipsychotics are discontinued (withdrawal dystonia).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 92
Incorrect
-
A middle-aged patient with a lengthy mental health history and multiple medications presents at the clinic with complaints of deteriorating physical health in the past six months. They report experiencing constipation, lethargy, and heightened depression. Additionally, they disclose being hospitalized two weeks ago and diagnosed with kidney stones. Which of their prescribed medications is the probable culprit for their symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Lithium is known to cause hypercalcemia and hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms may include constipation (groans), kidney stones (stones), bone pain (bones), and mental health issues such as depression, lethargy, and confusion (psychic moans).
Lithium – Pharmacology
Pharmacokinetics:
Lithium salts are rapidly absorbed following oral administration and are almost exclusively excreted by the kidneys unchanged. Blood samples for lithium should be taken 12 hours post-dose.Ebstein’s:
Ebstein’s anomaly is a congenital malformation consisting of a prolapse of the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. It occurs in 1:20,000 of the general population. Initial data suggested it was more common in those using lithium but this had not held to be true.Contraindications:
Addison’s disease, Brugada syndrome, cardiac disease associated with rhythm disorders, clinically significant renal impairment, untreated of untreatable hypothyroidism, low sodium levels.Side-effects:
Common side effects include nausea, tremor, polyuria/polydipsia, rash/dermatitis, blurred vision, dizziness, decreased appetite, drowsiness, metallic taste, and diarrhea. Side-effects are often dose-related.Long-term use is associated with hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism, hypercalcemia/hyperparathyroidism, irreversible nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, and reduced GFR.
Lithium-induced diabetes insipidus:
Treatment options include stopping lithium (if feasible), keeping levels within 0.4-0.8 mmol/L, once-daily dose of the drug taken at bedtime, amiloride, thiazide diuretics, indomethacin, and desmopressin.Toxicity:
Lithium salts have a narrow therapeutic/toxic ratio. Risk factors for lithium toxicity include drugs altering renal function, decreased circulating volume, infections, fever, decreased oral intake of water, renal insufficiency, and nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. Features of lithium toxicity include GI symptoms and neuro symptoms.Pre-prescribing:
Before prescribing lithium, renal function, cardiac function, thyroid function, FBC, and BMI should be checked. Women of childbearing age should be advised regarding contraception, and information about toxicity should be provided.Monitoring:
Lithium blood levels should be checked weekly until stable, and then every 3-6 months once stable. Thyroid and renal function should be checked every 6 months. Patients should be issued with an information booklet, alert card, and record book. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 93
Incorrect
-
Which of the following is not a recognized symptom associated with hyponatremia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest pain
Explanation:Hyponatremia in Psychiatric Patients
Hyponatremia, of low serum sodium, can occur in psychiatric patients due to the disorder itself, its treatment, of other medical conditions. Symptoms include nausea, confusion, seizures, and muscular cramps. Drug-induced hyponatremia is known as the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone hypersecretion (SIADH), which results from excessive secretion of ADH and fluid overload. Diagnosis is based on clinically euvolaemic state with low serum sodium and osmolality, raised urine sodium and osmolality. SSRIs, SNRIs, and tricyclics are the most common drugs that can cause SIADH. Risk factors for SIADH include starting a new drug, and treatment usually involves fluid restriction and sometimes demeclocycline.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 94
Incorrect
-
Which antidepressant has the highest risk of causing QTc prolongation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Amantadine and QTc Prolongation
Amantadine is a medication used to treat Parkinson’s disease and influenza. It has been associated with QTc prolongation, which can increase the risk of Torsades de points. Therefore, caution should be exercised when prescribing amantadine to patients with risk factors for QT prolongation. If a patient is already taking amantadine and develops a prolonged QTc interval, the medication should be discontinued and an alternative treatment considered. It is important to monitor the QTc interval in patients taking amantadine, especially those with risk factors for QT prolongation.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 95
Incorrect
-
A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. What symptom is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Shock-like sensations
Explanation:Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 96
Incorrect
-
You diagnose a mild depressive episode in a male patient undergoing lithium treatment for bipolar disorder.
Which of the following mood stabilizers should be avoided?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:Tamoxifen metabolism to its active metabolite may be inhibited by the use of fluoxetine and paroxetine, therefore, these medications should be avoided in patients receiving tamoxifen. Venlafaxine is considered the safest choice of antidepressant as it has little to no effect on tamoxifen metabolism. Mirtazapine has been found to have minimal effect on CYP2D6, while the other commonly prescribed antidepressants have mild to moderate degrees of CYP2D6 inhibition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 97
Incorrect
-
A client complains of feeling ill after abruptly discontinuing paroxetine. What symptom is most indicative of discontinuation syndrome associated with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diarrhoea
Explanation:Discontinuation syndrome of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors may manifest with diverse symptoms such as abdominal pain, vomiting, and diarrhea.
Antidepressants can cause discontinuation symptoms when patients stop taking them, regardless of the type of antidepressant. These symptoms usually occur within 5 days of stopping the medication and can last up to 3 weeks. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, dizziness, insomnia, vivid dreams, irritability, crying spells, and sensory symptoms. SSRIs and related drugs with short half-lives, such as paroxetine and venlafaxine, are particularly associated with discontinuation symptoms. Tapering antidepressants at the end of treatment is recommended to prevent these symptoms. TCAs and MAOIs are also associated with discontinuation symptoms, with amitriptyline and imipramine being the most common TCAs and all MAOIs being associated with prominent discontinuation symptoms. Patients at highest risk for discontinuation symptoms include those on antidepressants with shorter half-lives, those who have been taking antidepressants for 8 weeks of longer, those using higher doses, younger people, and those who have experienced discontinuation symptoms before. Agomelatine is not associated with any discontinuation syndrome. If a discontinuation reaction occurs, restarting the antidepressant of switching to an alternative with a longer half-life and tapering more slowly may be necessary. Explanation and reassurance are often sufficient for mild symptoms. These guidelines are based on the Maudsley Guidelines 14th Edition and a study by Tint (2008).
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 98
Incorrect
-
Regarding clozapine, which class of receptors does not experience any impact?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glutamatergic
Explanation:Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic drug that acts as an antagonist at various receptors, including dopamine, histamine, serotonin, adrenergic, and cholinergic receptors. It is mainly metabolized by CYP1A2, and its plasma levels can be affected by inducers and inhibitors of this enzyme. Clozapine is associated with several side effects, including drowsiness, constipation, weight gain, and hypersalivation. Hypersalivation is a paradoxical side effect, and its mechanism is not fully understood, but it may involve clozapine agonist activity at the muscarinic M4 receptor and antagonist activity at the alpha-2 adrenoceptor. Clozapine is also associated with several potentially dangerous adverse events, including agranulocytosis, myocarditis, seizures, severe orthostatic hypotension, increased mortality in elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis, colitis, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, thromboembolism, and insulin resistance and diabetes mellitus. The BNF advises caution in using clozapine in patients with prostatic hypertrophy, susceptibility to angle-closure glaucoma, and adults over 60 years. Valproate should be considered when using high doses of clozapine, plasma levels > 0.5 mg/l, of when the patient experiences seizures. Myocarditis is a rare but potentially fatal adverse event associated with clozapine use, and its diagnosis is based on biomarkers and clinical features. The mortality rate of clozapine-induced myocarditis is high, and subsequent use of clozapine in such cases leads to recurrence of myocarditis in most cases.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 99
Incorrect
-
Which drug is accurately paired with its corresponding half-life?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lorazepam - 10-20 hours
Explanation:It is important to be aware of the half-lives of certain benzodiazepines, including diazepam with a half-life of 20-100 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), lorazepam with a half-life of 10-20 hours, chlordiazepoxide with a half-life of 5-30 hours (36-200 hours for active metabolite), nitrazepam with a half-life of 15-38 hours, temazepam with a half-life of 8-22 hours, zopiclone with a half-life of 4-6 hours, and zolpidem with a half-life of 2-6 hours.
The half-life of a drug is the time taken for its concentration to fall to one half of its value. Drugs with long half-lives may require a loading dose to achieve therapeutic plasma concentrations rapidly. It takes about 4.5 half-lives to reach steady state plasma levels. Most drugs follow first order kinetics, where a constant fraction of the drug in the body is eliminated per unit time. However, some drugs may follow zero order kinetics, where the plasma concentration of the drug decreases at a constant rate, despite the concentration of the drug. For drugs with nonlinear kinetics of dose-dependent kinetics, the relationship between the AUC of CSS and dose is not linear, and the kinetic parameters may vary depending on the administered dose.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
-
Question 100
Incorrect
-
What antidepressant belongs to the NaSSA classification?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mianserin
Explanation:Mirtazapine and Mianserin are significant NaSSA’s (Noradrenergic and specific serotonergic antidepressants) that function by blocking adrenergic and serotonergic receptors. In contrast to the majority of antidepressants, they do not impact the reuptake of serotonin.
Mechanisms of Action of Different Drugs
Understanding the mechanisms of action of different drugs is crucial for medical professionals. It is a common topic in exams and can earn easy marks if studied well. This article provides a list of drugs and their mechanisms of action in different categories such as antidepressants, anti dementia drugs, mood stabilizers, anxiolytic/hypnotic drugs, antipsychotics, drugs of abuse, and other drugs. For example, mirtazapine is a noradrenaline and serotonin specific antidepressant that works as a 5HT2 antagonist, 5HT3 antagonist, H1 antagonist, alpha 1 and alpha 2 antagonist, and moderate muscarinic antagonist. Similarly, donepezil is a reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used as an anti dementia drug, while valproate is a GABA agonist and NMDA antagonist used as a mood stabilizer. The article also explains the mechanisms of action of drugs such as ketamine, phencyclidine, buprenorphine, naloxone, atomoxetine, varenicline, disulfiram, acamprosate, and sildenafil.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychopharmacology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)