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  • Question 1 - A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman with a history of gallstones, presents with right upper quadrant pain and fever. She is diagnosed with acute cholecystitis. Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: Murphy’s sign has a very high specificity

      Correct Answer: The gallbladder fills with pus, which is usually sterile initially

      Explanation:

      Acute cholecystitis occurs when a stone becomes stuck in the outlet of the gallbladder, causing irritation of the wall and resulting in chemical cholecystitis. This leads to the accumulation of pus within the gallbladder, which is typically sterile at first. However, there is a possibility of secondary infection with enteric organisms like Escherichia coli and Klebsiella spp.

      The clinical features of acute cholecystitis include severe pain in the right upper quadrant or epigastrium, which can radiate to the back and lasts for more than 12 hours. Fevers and rigors are often present, along with common symptoms like nausea and vomiting. Murphy’s sign is a useful diagnostic tool, as it has a high sensitivity and positive predictive value for acute cholecystitis. However, its specificity is lower, as it can also be positive in biliary colic and ascending cholangitis.

      In cases of acute cholecystitis, the white cell count and C-reactive protein (CRP) levels are usually elevated. AST, ALT, and ALP may also show elevation, but they can often be within the normal range. Bilirubin levels may be mildly elevated, but they can also be normal. If there is a significant increase in AST, ALT, ALP, and/or bilirubin, it may indicate the presence of other biliary tract conditions such as ascending cholangitis or choledocholithiasis.

      It is important to note that there is some overlap in the presentation of biliary colic, acute cholecystitis, and ascending cholangitis. To differentiate between these diagnoses, the following list can be helpful:

      Biliary colic:
      – Pain duration: Less than 12 hours
      – Fever: Absent
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Normal
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal
      – Bilirubin: Normal

      Acute cholecystitis:
      – Pain duration: More than 12 hours
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Positive
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Normal or mildly elevated
      – Bilirubin: Normal or mildly elevated

      Ascending cholangitis:
      – Pain duration: Variable
      – Fever: Present
      – Murphy’s sign: Negative
      – WCC & CRP: Elevated
      – AST, ALT & ALP: Elevated

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      221.4
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman presents with bleeding gums and easy bruising. She also reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with bleeding gums and easy bruising. She also reports feeling extremely tired lately and has been experiencing recurrent chest infections for the past few months. She had mononucleosis approximately six months ago and believes her symptoms started after that. Her complete blood count today shows the following results:
      Hemoglobin: 5.4 g/dl (11.5-14 g/dl)
      Mean Corpuscular Volume: 89 fl (80-100 fl)
      White Cell Count: 1.1 x 109/l (4-11 x 109/l)
      Platelets: 17 x 109/l (150-450 x 109/l)
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia

      Correct Answer: Aplastic anaemia

      Explanation:

      Aplastic anaemia is a rare and potentially life-threatening condition where the bone marrow fails to produce enough blood cells. This results in a decrease in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the body, a condition known as pancytopenia. The main cause of aplastic anaemia is damage to the bone marrow and the stem cells that reside there. This damage can be caused by various factors such as autoimmune disorders, certain medications like sulphonamide antibiotics and phenytoin, viral infections like EBV and parvovirus, chemotherapy, radiotherapy, or inherited conditions like Fanconi anaemia. Patients with aplastic anaemia typically experience symptoms such as anaemia, recurrent infections due to a low white blood cell count, and an increased tendency to bleed due to low platelet levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a headache....

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old construction worker presents with confusion, vomiting, and complaining of a headache. There is currently a scorching heatwave, and he has been working outdoors in heavy protective gear. His skin is dry and hot, he is hyperventilating, and his core temperature is currently 41.7°C. He is very agitated and shivering severely at present.
      Which of the following is the LEAST suitable treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Dantrolene

      Explanation:

      Heat stroke is a condition characterized by a core temperature higher than 40.6°C, accompanied by changes in mental state and varying levels of organ dysfunction. There are two forms of heat stroke: classic non-exertional heat stroke, which occurs during high environmental temperatures and typically affects elderly patients during heat waves, and exertional heat stroke, which occurs during strenuous physical exercise in hot conditions, such as endurance athletes competing in hot weather.

      The main treatment for heat stroke involves supportive measures. It is important to rapidly reduce the core temperature to around 39.0°C. Patients with severe heat stroke should be managed in a critical care setting. The ABCDE approach should be followed, with a focus on cooling the patient. This includes obtaining a definitive airway if the patient is unresponsive, providing ventilation if necessary, using haemodynamic monitoring to guide fluid therapy, correcting electrolyte imbalances, managing blood glucose levels, removing clothes, eliminating the cause of hyperthermia, and monitoring core and skin temperatures.

      There are various cooling techniques that can be used, although there is limited evidence on which approach is the most effective. Some possible methods include simple measures like cold drinks, fanning, ice water packs, and spraying tepid water. Cold water immersion therapy can be beneficial, but it requires the patient to be stable and cooperative, making it impractical for very sick patients. Advanced cooling techniques, such as cold IV fluids, surface cooling devices, intravascular cooling devices, and extracorporeal circuits, may be used for sicker patients.

      Benzodiazepines, like diazepam, can be helpful in managing agitation and shivering in heat stroke patients. They not only reduce excessive heat production but also help to calm the patient. In severe cases of agitation, paralysis may be necessary. Dantrolene is commonly used, although there is currently limited high-level evidence to support its use. Neuroleptics, such as chlorpromazine, which were once commonly used, should be avoided due to their potential adverse effects, including lowering the seizure threshold, interfering with thermoregulation, causing anticholinergic side effects, hypotension, and hepatotoxicity.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Environmental Emergencies
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee....

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old child experiences an anaphylactic reaction after being stung by a bee. How much IM adrenaline should be administered in this situation?

      Your Answer: 300 mcg

      Explanation:

      The management of anaphylaxis involves several important steps. First and foremost, it is crucial to ensure proper airway management. Additionally, early administration of adrenaline is essential, preferably in the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. Aggressive fluid resuscitation is also necessary. In severe cases, intubation may be required. However, it is important to note that the administration of chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone should only be considered after early resuscitation has taken place.

      Adrenaline is the most vital medication for treating anaphylactic reactions. It acts as an alpha-adrenergic receptor agonist, which helps reverse peripheral vasodilatation and reduce oedema. Furthermore, its beta-adrenergic effects aid in dilating the bronchial airways, increasing the force of myocardial contraction, and suppressing histamine and leukotriene release. Administering adrenaline as the first drug is crucial, and the intramuscular (IM) route is generally the most effective for most individuals.

      The recommended doses of IM adrenaline for different age groups during anaphylaxis are as follows:

      – Children under 6 years: 150 mcg (0.15 mL of 1:1000)
      – Children aged 6-12 years: 300 mcg (0.3 mL of 1:1000)
      – Children older than 12 years: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)
      – Adults: 500 mcg (0.5 mL of 1:1000)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Allergy
      16.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A toddler develops a palsy of his left leg following a fall. On...

    Incorrect

    • A toddler develops a palsy of his left leg following a fall. On examination, there is a loss of hip abduction, external rotation and knee flexion. The leg is noticeably dragging with the knee extended and the foot turned inward.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Klumpke’s palsy

      Correct Answer: Erb’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Erb’s palsy, also known as Erb-Duchenne palsy, is a condition where the arm becomes paralyzed due to an injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus. The primary root affected is usually C5, although C6 may also be involved in some cases. The main cause of Erb’s palsy is when the arm experiences excessive force during a difficult childbirth, but it can also occur in adults as a result of shoulder trauma.

      Clinically, the affected arm will hang by the side with the elbow extended and the forearm turned inward (known as the waiter’s tip sign). Upon examination, there will be a loss of certain movements:

      – Shoulder abduction (involving the deltoid and supraspinatus muscles)
      – Shoulder external rotation (infraspinatus muscle)
      – Elbow flexion (biceps and brachialis muscles)

      It is important to differentiate Erb’s palsy from Klumpke’s palsy, which affects the lower roots of the brachial plexus (C8 and T1). Klumpke’s palsy presents with a claw hand due to paralysis of the intrinsic hand muscles, along with sensory loss along the ulnar side of the forearm and hand. If T1 is affected, there may also be the presence of Horner’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old patient with a history of exhaustion and weariness has a complete blood count scheduled. The complete blood count reveals that she has normocytic anemia.
      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Anaemia can be categorized based on the size of red blood cells. Microcytic anaemia, characterized by a mean corpuscular volume (MCV) of less than 80 fl, can be caused by various factors such as iron deficiency, thalassaemia, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be normocytic), sideroblastic anaemia (which can also be normocytic), lead poisoning, and aluminium toxicity (although this is now rare and mainly affects haemodialysis patients).

      On the other hand, normocytic anaemia, with an MCV ranging from 80 to 100 fl, can be attributed to conditions like haemolysis, acute haemorrhage, bone marrow failure, anaemia of chronic disease (which can also be microcytic), mixed iron and folate deficiency, pregnancy, chronic renal failure, and sickle-cell disease.

      Lastly, macrocytic anaemia, characterized by an MCV greater than 100 fl, can be caused by factors such as B12 deficiency, folate deficiency, hypothyroidism, reticulocytosis, liver disease, alcohol abuse, myeloproliferative disease, myelodysplastic disease, and certain drugs like methotrexate, hydroxyurea, and azathioprine.

      It is important to understand the different causes of anaemia based on red cell size as this knowledge can aid in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      41.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 3-year-old girl comes in with a low-grade fever and rosy cheeks. You...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl comes in with a low-grade fever and rosy cheeks. You suspect a diagnosis of slapped cheek syndrome.
      Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is caused by parvovirus B16

      Correct Answer: It is also known as erythema infectiosum

      Explanation:

      Slapped cheek syndrome, also known as fifth disease or erythema infectiosum, is caused by parvovirus B19. It is most commonly seen in children aged 4-12, but can affect individuals of any age. In the UK, the peak occurrence of this condition is in April and May. Slapped cheek syndrome is contagious, with the period of infectivity occurring before the appearance of the characteristic rash. The rash itself is painless.

      Diagnosing slapped cheek syndrome is typically based on clinical presentation, characterized by the sudden onset of bright red cheeks resembling a slap mark. In some cases, a faint rash may also appear on other parts of the body. The rash usually lasts for a few days, but in rare instances, it may persist for a few weeks. Treatment for this condition is usually focused on managing symptoms. Additional symptoms that may accompany the rash include a mild fever and joint pain.

      While slapped cheek syndrome is generally mild and resolves on its own, certain groups of individuals require extra caution. Pregnant women, for instance, are at an increased risk of miscarriage if exposed to fifth disease. Patients with sickle cell disease or weakened immune systems also need to take extra precautions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 39-weeks pregnant is brought to the Emergency Department due to severe headaches, visual disturbances, and abdominal pain. Shortly after arrival, she experiences a seizure and collapses. Her husband mentions that she has been receiving treatment for hypertension during the pregnancy.

      What is the most suitable initial treatment in this case?

      Your Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia is the most likely diagnosis in this case. It is characterized by the occurrence of one or more convulsions on top of pre-eclampsia. To control seizures in eclampsia, the recommended treatment is magnesium sulphate. The Collaborative Eclampsia Trial regimen should be followed for administering magnesium sulphate. Initially, a loading dose of 4 g should be given intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. This should be followed by a continuous infusion of 1 g per hour for 24 hours. If the woman experiences another eclamptic seizure, the infusion should be continued for an additional 24 hours after the last seizure. In case of recurrent seizures, a further dose of 2-4 g should be administered intravenously over 5 to 15 minutes. It is important to note that the only cure for eclampsia is the delivery of the fetus and placenta. Once the patient is stabilized, she should be prepared for an emergency caesarean section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics & Gynaecology
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old male smoker presents with intense chest discomfort. His electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates an acute myocardial infarction, and he is immediately taken to the catheterization laboratory. Angiography reveals a blockage in the left anterior descending artery.
      Which area of the heart is most likely affected in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Anteroseptal

      Explanation:

      A summary of the vessels involved in different types of myocardial infarction, along with the corresponding ECG leads and the location of the infarction.

      For instance, an anteroseptal infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by ECG leads V1-V3. Similarly, an anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V3-V4.

      In cases of anterolateral infarctions, both the left anterior descending artery and the left circumflex artery are involved, and this is reflected in ECG leads V5-V6. An extensive anterior infarction involving the left anterior descending artery is indicated by leads V1-V6.

      Lateral infarcts involving the left circumflex artery are indicated by leads I, II, aVL, and V6. Inferior infarctions, on the other hand, involve either the right coronary artery (in 80% of cases) or the left circumflex artery (in 20% of cases), and this is shown by leads II, III, and aVF.

      In the case of a right ventricular infarction, the right coronary artery is involved, and this is indicated by leads V1 and V4R. Lastly, a posterior infarction involving the right coronary artery is shown by leads V7-V9.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of central abdominal pain which has now moved to the right-hand side. His appetite is poor, and he is complaining of nausea. He has a history of chronic constipation and recently had an episode of sudden, unexplained rectal bleeding for which he has been referred to the general surgical outpatient clinic by his GP. His observations are as follows: temperature 38.4°C, HR 112, BP 134/78, RR 18. On examination, he is tender in the right iliac fossa, and his PR examination revealed rectal tenderness.
      What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ulcerative colitis

      Correct Answer: Acute diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Acute diverticulitis occurs when a diverticulum becomes inflamed or perforated. This inflammation can either stay localized, forming a pericolic abscess, or spread and cause peritonitis. The typical symptoms of acute diverticulitis include abdominal pain (most commonly felt in the lower left quadrant), fever/sepsis, tenderness in the left iliac fossa, the presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa, and rectal bleeding. About 90% of cases involve the sigmoid colon, which is why left iliac fossa pain and tenderness are commonly seen.

      To diagnose acute diverticulitis, various investigations should be conducted. These include blood tests such as a full blood count, urea and electrolytes, C-reactive protein, and blood cultures. Imaging studies like abdominal X-ray, erect chest X-ray, and possibly an abdominal CT scan may also be necessary.

      Complications that can arise from acute diverticulitis include perforation leading to abscess formation or peritonitis, intestinal obstruction, massive rectal bleeding, fistulae, and strictures.

      In the emergency department, the treatment for diverticulitis should involve providing suitable pain relief, administering intravenous fluids, prescribing broad-spectrum antibiotics (such as intravenous co-amoxiclav), and advising the patient to refrain from eating or drinking. It is also important to refer the patient to the on-call surgical team for further management.

      For more information on diverticular disease, you can refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgical Emergencies
      37.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Surgical Emergencies (0/2) 0%
Haematology (1/2) 50%
Environmental Emergencies (1/1) 100%
Allergy (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Obstetrics & Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Cardiology (1/1) 100%
Passmed