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  • Question 1 - For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to...

    Correct

    • For the treatment of his atrial fibrillation, a 67-year-old man is about to begin taking warfarin. He also takes a number of other medications.Which of the following medications will prevent warfarin from working?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Many medications, including warfarin, require cytochrome P450 enzymes for their metabolism. When co-prescribing cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers and inhibitors with warfarin, it’s critical to be cautious.Inhibitors of the cytochrome p450 enzyme inhibit the effects of warfarin, resulting in a lower INR. To remember the most commonly encountered cytochrome p450 enzyme inducers, use the mnemonic PC BRASS:P– PhenytoinC– CarbamazepineB– BarbituratesR– RifampicinA– Alcohol (chronic ingestion)S– SulphonylureasS– Smoking

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      30.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Co-amoxiclav is used first line for which of the following indications: ...

    Incorrect

    • Co-amoxiclav is used first line for which of the following indications:

      Your Answer: Osteomyelitis

      Correct Answer: Animal bite

      Explanation:

      Co-amoxiclav is used first line for infected and prophylaxis of infection in animal and human bites.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening: ...

    Correct

    • During swallowing, which of the following structures primarily closes the tracheal opening:

      Your Answer: Epiglottis

      Explanation:

      The vocal cords of the larynx are stronglyapproximated, and the larynx is pulled upwardand anteriorly by the neck muscles. These actions,combined with the presence of ligaments thatprevent upward movement of the epiglottis, causethe epiglottis to swing back over the openingof the larynx. All these effects acting togetherprevent the passage of food into the nose andtrachea. Most essential is the tight approximationof the vocal cords, but the epiglottis helps toprevent food from ever getting as far as the vocalcords. Destruction of the vocal cords or of themuscles that approximate them can causestrangulation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle: ...

    Incorrect

    • About what percentage of filtered Na+is reabsorbed in the loop of Henle:

      Your Answer: 18%

      Correct Answer: 25%

      Explanation:

      About 25% of filtered sodium is reabsorbed in the the loop of Henle.

      Water-impermeable ascending loop of Henle plays a central role in maintaining salt-water balance by creating the cortico-medullary osmotic gradient to set up urinary concentrating ability and reabsorbing approximately 25% of the filtered NaCl load.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Renal
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Klebsiella spp? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is correct with regards to Klebsiella spp?

      Your Answer: They are Gram-positive.

      Correct Answer: They are typically associated with nosocomial infection.

      Explanation:

      Klebsiella is a type of bacteria commonly found in nature. In humans, the bacteria are often present in parts of the digestive tract and respiratory flora, where they do not generally cause problems. They are anaerobic Gram-negative rods. They are usually opportunistic pathogens which cause nosocomial infections, the most common ones being pneumonia and UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of...

    Incorrect

    • 1-alpha-hydroxylase is a cytochrome p450 enzyme that is involved in the production of vitamin D's hormonally active metabolite.Which of the following promotes the activity of 1-alpha-hydroxylase?

      Your Answer: 25-hydroxylase

      Correct Answer: Parathyroid hormone

      Explanation:

      1-alpha-hydroxylase converts 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol in the kidney.The key regulatory point in the formation of 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol is 1-alpha-hydroxylase, which is promoted by parathyroid hormone or hypophosphatemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      72.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding dynamic compression of the airways, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: It is brought about by reflex activation of parasympathetic nerves.

      Correct Answer: It occurs during forced expiration.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs because as the expiratory muscles contract during forced expiration, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume). Physiologically this is important as a completely deflated lung with collapsed alveoli requires significantly more energy to inflate. Dynamic compression does not occur in normal expiration because the intrapleural pressure is negative throughout the whole cycle.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      20.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Regarding haemoglobin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding haemoglobin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: The rate limiting step of haem synthesis is the condensation of glycine and succinyl coenzyme A.

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobin synthesis occurs in mature erythrocytes.

      Explanation:

      Haemoglobin is composed of four polypeptide globin chains each with its own iron containing haem molecule. Haem synthesis occurs largely in the mitochondria by a series of biochemical reactions commencing with the condensation of glycine and succinyl coenzyme A under the action of the key rate-limiting enzyme delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthase. The globin chains are synthesised by ribosomes in the cytosol. Haemoglobin synthesis only occurs in immature red blood cells.There are three types of haemoglobin in normal adult blood: haemoglobin A, A2 and F:- Normal adult haemoglobin (HbA) makes up about 96 – 98 % of total adult haemoglobin, and consists of two alpha (α) and two beta (β) globin chains. – Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2), a normal variant of adult haemoglobin, makes up about 1.5 – 3.5 % of total adult haemoglobin and consists of two α and two delta (δ) globin chains.- Foetal haemoglobin is the main Hb in the later two-thirds of foetal life and in the newborn until approximately 12 weeks of age. Foetal haemoglobin has a higher affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin. Red cells are destroyed by macrophages in the liver and spleen after , 120 days. The haem group is split from the haemoglobin and converted to biliverdin and then bilirubin. The iron is conserved and recycled to plasma via transferrin or stored in macrophages as ferritin and haemosiderin. An increased rate of haemoglobin breakdown results in excess bilirubin and jaundice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Cellular
      • Physiology
      21.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics: ...

    Correct

    • What is the mechanism of action of penicillin antibiotics:

      Your Answer: Inhibition of bacterial cell wall synthesis

      Explanation:

      Penicillins and the other ß-lactam antibiotics are bactericidal. They produce their antimicrobial action by preventing cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up the bacterial cell wall. They, therefore, inhibit cell wall synthesis.The integrity of the ß-lactam ring is essential for antimicrobial activity. Many bacteria (including most Staphylococci) are resistant to benzylpenicillin and phenoxymethylpenicillin because they produce enzymes (penicillinases, ß-lactamases) that open the ß-lactam ring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      17.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect associated with warfarin therapy:

      Your Answer: Calciphylaxis

      Correct Answer: Neutropenia

      Explanation:

      Adverse effects of warfarin:The most common adverse effect of warfarin is bleedingOther common adverse effects of warfarin include nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, jaundice, hepatic dysfunction, pancreatitis, pyrexia, alopecia, purpura, and rashSkin necrosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of warfarin; treatment with warfarin should be stopped if warfarin related skin necrosis is suspectedCalciphylaxis is a rare, but a very serious condition that causes vascular calcification and cutaneous necrosis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Naloxone is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:...

    Incorrect

    • Naloxone is a reversal agent for which of the following groups of drugs:

      Your Answer: Benzodiazepines

      Correct Answer: Opioids

      Explanation:

      Naloxone is a specific antagonist of mu(μ)-opioid receptors, the specific antidote for opioid overdose and will reverse respiratory depression and coma if given at sufficient dosage. The initial dose is usually 0.8 mg (2 mL) intravenously (the dose range suggested by BNF is 0.4-2 mg). It can also be given by intramuscular injection if the intravenous route is not feasible.As naloxone has a shorter duration of action than most opioids, close monitoring and repeated injections are necessary according to the respiratory rate and depth of coma. The dose is generally repeated every 2-3 minutes to a maximum of 10 mg. When repeated doses are needed, naloxone may be given by a continuous infusion adjusted according to the vital signs. Initially, the infusion rate can be set at 60% of the initial resuscitative IV dose per hour.In opioid addicts, naloxone administration may precipitate a withdrawal syndrome with abdominal cramps, nausea and diarrhoea, but these usually settle within 2 hours.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthesia
      • Pharmacology
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes: ...

    Correct

    • Hepatitis A is transmitted by which of the following routes:

      Your Answer: Faecal-oral route

      Explanation:

      Hepatitis A transmission is by the faecal-oral route; the virus is excreted in bile and shed in the faeces of infected people.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      • Pathogens
      5.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent: ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following clotting factors is NOT vitamin K-dependent:

      Your Answer: II

      Correct Answer: V

      Explanation:

      Fat-soluble vitamin K is obtained from green vegetables and bacterial synthesis in the gut. Deficiency may present in the newborn (haemorrhagic disease of the newborn) or in later life. Deficiency may be caused by an inadequate diet, malabsorption or inhibition of vitamin K by drugs such as warfarin. The activity of factors II, VII, IX and X are vitamin K dependent as well as that of protein C and protein S. Both PT and APTT are prolonged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
      • Pathology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old presents with acute severe asthma. He takes a drug prescribed by her GP but cannot recall the name and is receiving regular salbutamol nebulisers. His current potassium level is 2.8 mmol/l.Which drug is least likely to have caused his hypokalaemia?

      Your Answer: Uniphyllin continus

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      Serious hypokalaemia can occur in severe asthma and the effect can be potentiated by concomitant treatment with theophyllines like aminophylline, corticosteroids, thiazide and loop diuretics, and hypoxia. Plasma-potassium concentration should be monitored in severe asthma.Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, is not likely to have contributed to patients hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory Pharmacology
      24.5
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old child has been convulsing for 20 minutes. She has received two doses of lorazepam. She takes phenytoin for maintenance therapy, and you draw up a phenobarbitone infusion.What dose of phenobarbitone is advised in the treatment of the convulsing child that reaches that stage of the APLS algorithm? Select ONE answer only.

      Your Answer: 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes

      Explanation:

      If a convulsing child reaches step 3 of the APLS algorithm, then a phenytoin infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 20 minutes. If they are already taken phenytoin as maintenance therapy, then a phenobarbitone infusion should be set up at 20 mg/kg over 30-60 minutes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • CNS Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      22.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding fat digestion, which of the following statements is CORRECT:

      Your Answer: Chylomicrons are exocytosed from enterocytes to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

      Explanation:

      Dietary fat is chiefly composed of triglycerides (esters of free fatty acids and glycerol which may be saturated or unsaturated). The essential fatty acids are linoleic acid and alpha-linoleic acid, which cannot be manufactured in the body. Dietary fat provides 37 kJ (9 kcal) of energy per gram. Fats are digested almost entirely in the small intestine and are only released from the stomach into the duodenum at the rate at which they can be digested.Pancreatic lipase is the most significant enzyme for fat digestion. In the duodenum fat is emulsified by bile acids, a process where larger lipid droplets are broken down into much smaller droplets providing a greater surface area for enzymatic digestion. Micelles are arranged so that hydrophobic lipid molecules lie in the centre, surrounded by bile acids arranged such the outer region is hydrophilic. Dietary and synthesised lipids are incorporated into chylomicrons in the Golgi body, which are exocytosed from the basolateral membrane to enter lacteals and thus the lymphatic system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal
      • Physiology
      18.7
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - Cardiac myocytes are connected to each other by which of the following: ...

    Incorrect

    • Cardiac myocytes are connected to each other by which of the following:

      Your Answer: Sarcolemma

      Correct Answer: Intercalated discs

      Explanation:

      Adjacent cardiac myocytes are connected to each other by intercalated discs. The intercalated discs provide both a structural attachment by ‘glueing’ cells together at desmosomes and an electrical contact made up of proteins called connexons, called a gap junction, which essentially creates a low-resistance pathway between cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Physiology
      9.4
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - ACE inhibitors are indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for: ...

    Incorrect

    • ACE inhibitors are indicated for all of the following EXCEPT for:

      Your Answer: Diabetic nephropathy

      Correct Answer: Angina

      Explanation:

      ACE inhibitors have many uses and are generally well tolerated. They are indicated for:Heart failureHypertensionDiabetic nephropathySecondary prevention of cardiovascular events

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - In a patient with an ongoing seizure, after what time period should treatment...

    Incorrect

    • In a patient with an ongoing seizure, after what time period should treatment be commenced?

      Your Answer: 30 seconds

      Correct Answer: 5 minutes

      Explanation:

      Immediate emergency care and treatment should be given to children, young people and adults who have prolonged or repeated convulsive seizures.Prolonged seizures last 5 minutes or more. Repeated seizures refer to 3 or more seizures in an hour.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Central Nervous System
      • Pharmacology
      9.1
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms...

    Correct

    • Fatigue, dizziness upon standing, muscle weakness, weight loss, nausea, and sweating are all symptoms that a patient may experience in Addison's disease.Which of the following claims about Addison's disease is correct? 

      Your Answer: ACTH levels are elevated in primary insufficiency

      Explanation:

      The adrenal glands produce too little steroid hormones, which causes Addison’s disease. The production of glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, and sex steroids are all altered. The most prevalent cause is autoimmune adrenalitis, which accounts for 70-80 percent of cases.It affects more women than males and occurs most frequently between the ages of 30 and 50.The following are some of the clinical signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease:Weakness and sluggishnessHypotension is a condition in which the blood pressure (notably orthostatic hypotension)Vomiting and nauseaLoss of weightAxillary and pubic hair lossDepressionHyperpigmentation is a condition in which a person’s (palmar creases, buccal mucosa and exposed areas more commonly affected)The following are the classic biochemical hallmarks of Addison’s disease:HyponatraemiaHyperkalaemiaHypercalcaemiaHypoglycaemiaAcidosis metabolicaWhen ACTH levels are combined with cortisol levels, it is possible to distinguish between primary and secondary adrenal insufficiency:In primary insufficiency, levels rise.In secondary insufficiency, levels are low or low normal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine Physiology
      • Physiology
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which of the following best describes digoxin: ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following best describes digoxin:

      Your Answer: A positive inotrope and negative chronotrope

      Explanation:

      Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside used in the treatment of atrial fibrillation and flutter, and congestive cardiac failure. It acts by inhibiting the membrane Na/K ATPase in cardiac myocytes. This raises intracellular sodium concentration and increases intracellular calcium availability indirectly via Na/Ca exchange. The increase in intracellular calcium levels causes an increases the force of myocardial contraction (positive inotrope), and slows the heart rate (negative chronotrope).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      • Pharmacology
      19.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts...

    Incorrect

    • At rest, skeletal muscle accounts for between 15-20% of cardiac output and accounts for around 50% of body weight. This can increase to nearly 80% of cardiac output during exercise. Skeletal muscle circulation is highly controlled and has a number of specialized adaptations as a result of this high degree of disparity during exercise, in combination with the diversity in the size of skeletal muscle around the body.What is the primary mechanism for boosting skeletal muscle blood flow during exercise?

      Your Answer: Hypoxic vasoconstriction

      Correct Answer: Metabolic hyperaemia

      Explanation:

      In skeletal muscle, blood flow is closely related to metabolic rate. Due to the contraction of precapillary sphincters, most capillaries are blocked off from the rest of the circulation at rest and are not perfused. This causes an increase in vascular tone and vessel constriction. As metabolic activity rises, this develops redundancy in the system, allowing it to cope with greater demand. During exercise, metabolic hyperaemia, which is induced by the release of K+, CO2, and adenosine, recruits capillaries. Sympathetic vasoconstriction in the active muscles is overridden by this. Simultaneously, blood flow in non-working muscles is restricted, preserving cardiac output. During exercise, muscle contractions pump blood through the venous system, raising the pressure differential between arterioles and venules and boosting blood flow via capillaries.Capillary angiogenesis is evident when muscles are used repeatedly (e.g. endurance training). It is a long-term effect, not a quick fix for increased blood flow.The local partial pressure of alveolar oxygen is the primary intrinsic control of pulmonary blood flow (pAO2). Low pAO2 promotes arteriole vasoconstriction and vice versa. The hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV) reflex allows blood flow to be diverted away from poorly ventilated alveoli and towards well-ventilated alveoli in order to maximize gaseous exchange.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Physiology
      • Physiology
      60.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Which of the following is NOT an indication for a H1 receptor antihistamine:...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is NOT an indication for a H1 receptor antihistamine:

      Your Answer: Insomnia

      Correct Answer: Gastroesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Antihistamines are competitive inhibitors at the H1-receptor (in contrast to H2 receptor antagonists used to decrease gastric acid secretion in gastroesophageal reflux disease).Indications: Allergic rhinitis and conjunctivitisUrticarial rashes, pruritus, insect bites and stingsAngioedemaAnaphylaxis (second line adjunct to adrenaline)Nausea/vomiting and prevention of motion sicknessInsomnia

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      • Respiratory
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this...

    Correct

    • A lung function test is being performed on a male patient. For this patient, which of the following volumes for functional residual capacity is considered a normal result?

      Your Answer: 2.0 L

      Explanation:

      The volume of air that remains in the lungs after a single breath is known as functional residual capacity (FRC). It is calculated by combining the expiratory reserve volume and residual volume. In a 70 kg, average-sized male, a normal functional residual capacity is approximately 2100 mL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory Physiology
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding relationships between two variables, what does a negative correlation coefficient indicate:

      Your Answer: The two variables are inversely related

      Explanation:

      A negative correlation coefficient means that the two variables are inversely related e.g. socio-economic class and mortality.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Medicine
      • Statistics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Regarding drug interactions with erythromycin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT: ...

    Correct

    • Regarding drug interactions with erythromycin, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: Erythromycin decreases plasma levels of warfarin.

      Explanation:

      Erythromycin and clarithromycin inhibit cytochrome P450-mediated metabolism of warfarin, phenytoin and carbamazepine and may lead to accumulation of these drugs. There is an increased risk of myopathy (due to cytochrome P450 enzyme CYP3A4 inhibition) if erythromycin or clarithromycin is taken with atorvastatin or simvastatin. Erythromycin increases plasma concentrations of theophylline, and theophylline may also reduce absorption of oral erythromycin. All macrolides can prolong the QT-interval and concomitant use of drugs that prolong the QT interval is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infections
      • Pharmacology
      28.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He...

    Incorrect

    • After collapsing at home, a 75-year-old man is transported in an ambulance. He is now awake, but he is experiencing palpitations and chest pain. He is transported to resuscitation and placed on a cardiac monitor, which indicates that he is in VT. An amiodarone infusion is set up.Which of the following statements about amiodarone side effects is correct?

      Your Answer: It causes shortening of the QT interval

      Correct Answer: It can cause jaundice

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone has a lot of potential toxic side effects, so it’s important to get a full clinical evaluation before starting treatment with it.The following are some of the most common amiodarone side effects:ArrhythmiasCorneal microdepositsHepatic disordersHyperthyroidismHypothyroidismHepatic disorders and jaundiceNauseaPeripheral neuropathyRespiratory disorders (including lung fibrosis)Sleep disturbanceSkin reactionsQT prolongationAmiodarone can cause optic neuritis, which is a very rare side effect. If this happens, the amiodarone should be stopped right away because it poses a risk of blindness.Most people who take amiodarone develop corneal microdeposits, which go away once the medication is stopped and rarely cause vision problems.Amiodarone has a chemical structure that is similar to that of thyroxine and can bind to the nuclear thyroid receptor. It can cause both hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism, though hypothyroidism is far more common, with 5-10% of patients suffering from it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Pharmacology
      • Pharmacology
      23.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened...

    Correct

    • A 77 year old lady presents to ED with her left leg shortened and externally rotated following slipping and falling on a wet bathroom floor. There is an intracapsular fracture of the neck of femur seen on imaging studies. She is at risk of avascular necrosis of the head of femur. This is caused by lack of blood supply from which of these arteries?

      Your Answer: Medial circumflex artery

      Explanation:

      The primary blood supply to the head of the femur is from branches of the medial femoral circumflex artery. The superior and inferior gluteal arteries supply the hip joint but not the head of femur.The lateral circumflex artery anastomoses with the medial femoral circumflex artery and assists in supplying the head of femur. The obturator artery is an important source of blood supply in children up to about 8 years. It gives rise to the artery of the head of femur which runs in the ligamentum teres and is insufficient to supply the head of femur in adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Lower Limb
      27.4
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • Regarding pressures and airflow during the normal breathing cycle, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:

      Your Answer: During expiration both intrapleural pressure and alveolar pressure rise.

      Correct Answer: Negative intrapleural pressure causes dynamic compression of the airways.

      Explanation:

      Dynamic compression occurs during forced expiration, when as the expiratory muscles contract, all the structures within the lungs, including the airways, are compressed by the positive intrapleural pressure. Consequently the smaller airways collapse before the alveoli empty completely and some air remains within the lungs (the residual volume).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Physiology
      • Respiratory
      20.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense,...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with right-sided hemiplegia and loss of joint position sense, vibratory sense, and discriminatory touch. Upon further physical examination, it was observed that her tongue deviates to the left-hand side. An MRI and CT scan was ordered and results showed that he was suffering a left-sided stroke. Which of the following is considered the best diagnosis for the case presented above?

      Your Answer: Lateral pontine syndrome

      Correct Answer: Medial medullary syndrome

      Explanation:

      Medial medullary syndrome is a form of stroke that affects the medial medulla of the brain. It is caused by a lesion in the medial part of the medulla, which is due to an infraction of vertebral arteries and/or paramedian branches of the anterior spinal artery.It is characterized by contralateral paralysis of the upper and lower limb of the body, a contralateral decrease in proprioception, vibration, and/or fine touch sensation, paresthesias or less commonly dysesthesias in the contralateral trunk and lower limb, and loss of position and vibration sense with proprioceptive dysfunction. Ipsilateral deviation of the tongue due to ipsilateral hypoglossal nerve damage can also be seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      • Central Nervous System
      23.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Pharmacology (5/13) 38%
Infections (2/3) 67%
Gastrointestinal (2/2) 100%
Physiology (4/11) 36%
Renal (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (1/2) 50%
Pathogens (1/2) 50%
Endocrine Physiology (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/3) 0%
Basic Cellular (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/4) 25%
Anaesthesia (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
Pathology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
CNS Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Central Nervous System (0/2) 0%
Cardiovascular Physiology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Physiology (1/1) 100%
Evidence Based Medicine (1/1) 100%
Statistics (1/1) 100%
Anatomy (1/2) 50%
Lower Limb (1/1) 100%
Passmed