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Question 1
Correct
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A 72-year-old diabetic man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of poor vision, particularly while driving at night. He reports that his vision has been progressively worsening and he struggles with glare from oncoming vehicles. He also finds watching TV difficult and struggles to recognise his neighbour waving at him from across the street. He has had to have his glasses prescription changed three times in the past 18 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cataracts
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Cataracts: Gradual, painless reduced visual acuity, blurred vision, difficulty seeing at night-time, sensitivity to light due to glare and halos around light, inability to watch TV or recognise faces. Risk factors include increasing age, steroid use, alcohol excess, myotonic dystrophy, and diabetes. Treatment is with surgical replacement of the lens.
Open Angle Glaucoma: Increased intraocular pressure resulting in visual field defects, loss of peripheral vision, seeing halos around lights, and tunnel vision. Patients may report bumping into things or not seeing cars in their periphery.
Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma: Ophthalmological emergency presenting as a painful red eye, vomiting, headache, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, patients have a tender, hard eye with a semi-dilated, fixed pupil.
Presbyopia: Age-related condition causing trouble focusing on close-up vision, often requiring reading glasses.
Retinal Detachment: New-onset floaters and flashes, sudden-onset, painless visual field loss that may progress over hours to days, and a dark curtain or shadow over the field of vision in one eye only.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic floor exercises
Explanation:Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options
Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.
Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.
Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.
Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.
Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.
Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the Neurology Clinic. He has been recently diagnosed with idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) and wants to know what lifestyle changes and medical treatments he needs to adopt to help reduce symptoms, and which to avoid.
Which of the following should be avoided in patients with IIH?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Maintaining a high-sodium diet
Explanation:Managing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension: Strategies and Interventions
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition characterized by increased pressure within the skull, which can lead to vision loss and other neurological symptoms. Effective management of IIH involves a combination of lifestyle modifications, medication, and, in some cases, surgery. Here are some key strategies and interventions for managing IIH:
Low-sodium diet with acetazolamide: A low-sodium diet with acetazolamide has been shown to improve vision in patients with IIH. A high-sodium diet should be avoided as it can increase fluid retention and decrease the effectiveness of acetazolamide.
Weight loss: Weight loss can induce remission of papilledema in patients with IIH. A strict diet and pharmacological therapy may be necessary to achieve weight loss and prevent vision loss.
Surgical treatment: If patients are losing their vision despite maximal medical therapy, surgical treatment by optic-nerve-sheath fenestration or CSF shunting should be considered.
Discontinuing excessive vitamin A intake: Excessive vitamin A intake can increase CSF volume and pressure, so it is important to eliminate this risk factor in patients with IIH.
Discontinuing retinoid treatment: Retinoid, a metabolite of vitamin A, has been linked to the development of IIH. Therefore, discontinuing retinoid treatment is crucial when suspecting IIH.
Starting acetazolamide: Acetazolamide is a medication that decreases CSF production in humans and is often used in the initial management of IIH.
By implementing these strategies and interventions, patients with IIH can effectively manage their condition and prevent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he thought it was just a common cold but his symptoms have worsened over the past week. He also reports feeling nauseous and having decreased urine output. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.2ºC, pulse is 102 / min and his chest is clear. There are subconjunctival haemorrhages present but no signs of jaundice. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leptospirosis
Explanation:Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Flu-Like Symptoms
Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the spirochaete Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in sewage, farming, veterinary, or abattoir settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.
Leptospirosis is a tropical disease that presents with flu-like symptoms and is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in certain settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents with vomiting and diarrhoea. Blood tests reveal an AKI with the following results, which were normal during her last check-up with her GP 3 weeks ago. She is given intravenous fluids and a renal ultrasound scan is scheduled.
Creatinine 180 umol/l
Urea 10 mmol/l
eGFR 25 ml/min
Which medication should be discontinued until her renal function returns to normal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:This woman is experiencing an acute kidney injury, most likely caused by dehydration leading to pre-renal failure. The function of the kidneys is determined by the glomerulus’ ability to filter blood, which is dependent on the perfusion pressure of the glomerulus. This pressure is influenced by two factors: the overall blood flow to the kidney (which is reduced in cases of dehydration and hypovolemia) and the auto-regulation of the afferent and efferent arterioles, which fine-tunes the pressure.
Prostaglandin E2 mediates the dilation of the afferent arteriole to increase blood flow, while angiotensin II mediates the constriction of the efferent arteriole to increase pressure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can disrupt this auto-regulation by blocking prostaglandin E2, contributing to acute kidney injury. However, oral aspirin is an exception and does not harm the kidneys. Drugs that block angiotensin II, such as ACE inhibitors like Ramipril and angiotensin receptor blockers, should be avoided during an AKI as they also disrupt auto-regulation.
In contrast, ACE inhibitors and ARBs are beneficial in chronic kidney disease due to their antihypertensive and anti-inflammatory effects. In CKD, glomerular perfusion pressures are elevated, and reducing this pressure can help prevent glomerular damage and a decline in GFR.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The mother is concerned about potential complications besides fluid loss.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heat loss
Explanation:Exposed bowel in babies with gastroschisis leads to a considerable loss of fluid and heat, which can pose a serious risk to their lives. Unlike exomphalos, gastroschisis is not associated with cardiac and renal issues. Additionally, there is no correlation between gastroschisis and microcephaly or macrocephaly.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected his legs, arm and face, worsening over the last three weeks. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained: Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l), Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l), Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l), Urea 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 7–20 mmol/l), Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l (normal range: 29–33 IU/l), Bilirubin 16 μmol/l (normal range: < 20.5 μmol/l), Albumin 19 g/l (normal range: 35–50 g/l), Total Cholesterol 9.2 mmol/l (normal range: < 5.2 mmol/l), Prothrombin time (PT) 10 s. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Generalized Edema, Low Albumin, Renal Impairment, and Elevated Cholesterol
The patient presents with generalized edema, low albumin, renal impairment, and elevated cholesterol. The most likely diagnosis is nephrotic syndrome. Anorexia nervosa is unlikely to cause such a low albumin level. Cirrhosis of the liver is less likely due to normal liver function tests and PT. Cystic fibrosis typically presents with bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption, or diabetes. Nephritic syndrome causes hypertension, haematuria, and oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At what age do most children attain urinary incontinence during the day and at night?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 3-4 years old
Explanation:Reassurance and advice can be provided to manage nocturnal enuresis in children under the age of 5 years.
Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.
When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.
The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old teacher presents with ongoing fatigue. During a routine blood test, abnormal liver function tests are detected, prompting a hepatitis screen. The results are as follows:
Negative for Anti-HAV IgG
Negative for HBsAg
Positive for Anti-HBs
Negative for Anti-HBc
Positive for Anti-HCV
What is the most likely interpretation of these results?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis C infection with previous hepatitis B vaccination
Explanation:To determine if a patient still has the hepatitis C virus, a HCV PCR test is necessary as only a small percentage of patients naturally clear the infection. Unfortunately, there is currently no vaccine available for hepatitis C.
When interpreting hepatitis B serology, the presence of surface antigen (HBsAg) typically indicates acute disease and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it suggests chronic disease and is infectious. Anti-HBs indicates immunity from either exposure or vaccination, while anti-HBc suggests previous or current infection. The appearance of IgM anti-HBc during acute or recent hepatitis B infection lasts for about six months. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity as it results from the breakdown of core antigen from infected liver cells.
Understanding Hepatitis C: Transmission, Complications, and Management
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that is expected to become a significant public health concern in the UK in the coming years. It is estimated that around 200,000 people in the country are chronically infected with the virus, with intravenous drug users and those who received blood transfusions prior to 1991 being at higher risk. The virus is an RNA flavivirus with an incubation period of 6-9 weeks.
Transmission of the virus can occur through needle stick injuries, vertical transmission from mother to child (especially if coexistent with HIV), and sexual intercourse (although the risk is low). There is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C. Symptoms of acute infection include a transient rise in serum aminotransferases, jaundice, fatigue, and arthralgia.
Around 15-45% of patients will clear the virus after an acute infection, while the majority (55-85%) will develop chronic hepatitis C. This can lead to complications such as rheumatological problems, cirrhosis, hepatocellular cancer, and cryoglobulinemia. Treatment for chronic infection depends on the viral genotype and aims for sustained virological response (SVR), defined as undetectable serum HCV RNA six months after the end of therapy. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended, with protease inhibitors such as daclatasvir and sofosbuvir or sofosbuvir and simeprevir being used instead. However, these treatments can have side effects such as haemolytic anaemia, cough, flu-like symptoms, depression, and fatigue.
In conclusion, understanding the transmission, complications, and management of hepatitis C is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Treatment options for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a bacterium that causes atypical pneumonia and is transmitted through respiratory droplets. The symptoms vary but can include fever, malaise, myalgia, headache, and a rash. Diagnosis is usually confirmed with serology, and treatment typically involves a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin for at least 10-14 days. Penicillin and other beta-lactam antibiotics are ineffective as Mycoplasma pneumoniae lacks a cell wall. Tetracycline can be used but macrolides are preferred due to a better side-effect profile. Rifampicin is mostly limited to the treatment of tuberculosis and leprosy, while co-trimoxazole is not indicated for Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection. Extrapulmonary involvement is possible and may suggest the diagnosis in a patient presenting with pneumonia. A chest radiograph is non-specific and typically shows a reticulonodular or patchy consolidation pattern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of pain and swelling in his right testicle that has been gradually developing over the past two days. He rates the pain as 5/10 on the pain scale. Although he recently returned from a trip to Spain four weeks ago, he denies experiencing any dysuria or urethral discharge. Upon examination, the right testicle is tender and swollen. The patient's heart rate is 84/min and his temperature is 36.8ºC. Based on these symptoms, what is the most probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Epididymo-orchitis
Explanation:The symptoms and pain caused by testicular torsion are usually more severe and acute, while a patient with mumps would experience prodromal symptoms and parotitis.
Epididymo-orchitis is a condition where the epididymis and/or testes become infected, leading to pain and swelling. It is commonly caused by infections spreading from the genital tract or bladder, with Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae being the usual culprits in sexually active younger adults, while E. coli is more commonly seen in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Symptoms include unilateral testicular pain and swelling, with urethral discharge sometimes present. Testicular torsion, which can cause ischaemia of the testicle, is an important differential diagnosis and needs to be excluded urgently, especially in younger patients with severe pain and an acute onset.
Investigations are guided by the patient’s age, with sexually transmitted infections being assessed in younger adults and a mid-stream urine (MSU) being sent for microscopy and culture in older adults with a low-risk sexual history. Management guidelines from the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) recommend ceftriaxone 500mg intramuscularly as a single dose, plus doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily for 10-14 days if the organism causing the infection is unknown. Further investigations are recommended after treatment to rule out any underlying structural abnormalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone
Explanation:Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection followed by neck pain and swelling for the past 2 weeks. During examination, she appears anxious, her heart rate is 98/min, and her thyroid gland is tender and diffusely swollen.
Her blood tests reveal the following results:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.4 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 42 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
ESR 65 mm/h (1-20)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely diagnosis for this woman who presents with hyperthyroidism and a tender goitre following an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition is characterized by high ESR and painful thyroid gland. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and thyroid cancer are less likely causes as they do not present with these specific symptoms.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man comes to the clinic with complaints of painful urination and left knee pain. He had experienced a severe episode of diarrhea three weeks ago. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis
Explanation:Reactive arthritis is characterized by the presence of urethritis, arthritis, and conjunctivitis, and this patient exhibits two of these classic symptoms.
Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features
Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).
Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.
Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of sudden breathlessness and pain on the left side of her chest for the past 24 hours. She is generally healthy and takes the combined oral contraceptive pill.
What is the highest scoring factor in the Wells' scoring system for suspected pulmonary embolism (PE)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT)
Explanation:Understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score: Clinical Signs and Symptoms of DVT
The Two-Level PE Wells Score is a tool used to assess the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE). One of the key factors in this score is the presence of clinical signs and symptoms of a deep-vein thrombosis (DVT), which includes leg swelling and pain on palpation of the deep veins. This carries three points in the score, and is a crucial factor in determining the likelihood of a PE.
Other factors in the score include an alternative diagnosis being less likely than a PE, heart rate over 100 beats/min, immobilization or recent surgery, previous DVT/PE, haemoptysis, and malignancy. Each of these factors carries a certain number of points, and a score of over 4 points indicates a high likelihood of a PE, while a score of 4 points or less indicates a lower likelihood.
Overall, understanding the Two-Level PE Wells Score and the clinical signs and symptoms of DVT is important in accurately assessing the likelihood of a patient having a PE and determining the appropriate course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about saxagliptin is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is a DPP-4 inhibitor
Explanation:Saxagliptin: A DPP-4 Inhibitor for Type 2 Diabetes Treatment
Saxagliptin is an oral hypoglycaemic drug that belongs to the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor class. Its mechanism of action involves slowing down the breakdown of incretin hormones, which stimulates insulin production and reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver. Compared to sitagliptin, saxagliptin has a shorter half-life. It is safe to use in patients with mild to moderate renal impairment, but should be avoided in severe cases. Saxagliptin is recommended as first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in combination with other drugs or as initial monotherapy if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. However, its use during pregnancy and breastfeeding should be avoided due to potential toxicity. Regular monitoring of renal function is necessary before and during saxagliptin treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old man with a history of recurrent otitis media, two bouts of pneumonia, and a recent Giardia infection suffered a severe allergic reaction to a blood transfusion after a road traffic accident. His investigations showed slightly decreased immunoglobulins, a mild obstructive pattern on spirometry, and normal values for haemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency
Explanation:Understanding Immunoglobulin Deficiencies and Their Symptoms
Immunoglobulin deficiencies are a group of disorders that affect the body’s ability to produce specific types of antibodies, leading to an increased risk of infections and autoimmune diseases. Here, we will discuss the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms.
IgA Deficiency:
This deficiency is characterized by a decrease in immunoglobulin A, which can lead to an increased incidence of mucosal infections, particularly gastrointestinal infections with Giardia. Patients may also experience recurrent ear infections, sinusitis, bronchitis, pneumonia, and urinary tract infections. Additionally, IgA deficiency increases the risk of autoimmune diseases, such as rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus.IgE Deficiency:
IgE is responsible for fighting parasitic and helminthic infections, so patients with IgE deficiency are more likely to develop these types of infections. They are also at an increased risk of autoimmune disease and non-allergic reactive airways disease.IgG Deficiency:
Patients with IgG deficiency are prone to developing infections from encapsulated bacteria, such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Neisseria meningitidis. This deficiency can lead to upper and lower respiratory tract infections and meningitis.IgM Deficiency:
Primary selective IgM deficiency results in increased infections by bacteria, fungi, and viruses, as well as increased autoimmune diseases. However, this deficiency does not have the selectivity for mucosal membrane infections seen in IgA deficiency.Severe Combined Immunoglobulin Deficiency (SCID):
SCID is a rare disorder that results from abnormal T- and B-cell development due to inherited genetic mutations. Patients with SCID are affected early in life with multiple severe bacterial, viral, and fungal infections, as well as failure to thrive, interstitial lung disease, and chronic diarrhea.In conclusion, understanding the different types of immunoglobulin deficiencies and their associated symptoms is crucial for prompt recognition and treatment of opportunistic bacterial infections and autoimmune diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female presents to the emergency department with lower abdominal pain. A pregnancy test and ultrasound confirms a tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring 32mm and associated with a foetal heartbeat. The patient has no past medical history of note. Her observations show:
Respiratory rate of 15 breaths/min
Pulse of 93 beats/min
Temperature of 36.7ºC
Blood pressure of 126/78 mmHg
Oxygen saturations of 96% on room air
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salpingectomy
Explanation:If a foetal heartbeat is detected on ultrasound in the case of an ectopic pregnancy, surgical management is necessary, and the appropriate procedure is a salpingectomy. This is the recommended course of action for a patient with no significant medical history and both fallopian tubes. Expectant management is not suitable in this scenario, as the foetal heartbeat is visible on ultrasound. Medical management with methotrexate is also not an option due to the foetal heartbeat, and mifepristone is not used for ectopic pregnancies.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you examine a two hour old baby delivered via cesarean section. The baby presents with intercostal recession and a respiratory rate of 55/min. However, they have good tone and color and are apyrexial. You suspect transient tachypnoea of the newborn and order a chest x-ray as part of your assessment. What is the probable result of the chest x-ray?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure
Explanation:Transient tachypnoea of the newborn may be indicated by hyperinflation and fluid in the horizontal fissure on a chest x-ray. However, it is important to note that even if this condition is suspected, the baby should still be screened and treated for sepsis. This is because transient tachypnoea of the newborn is the most common cause of respiratory distress in neonates, but it typically resolves within 24-48 hours. Other conditions may present with different x-ray findings, such as ground glass appearance and low volume lungs in respiratory distress syndrome, or asymmetric patchy opacities in meconium aspiration syndrome. Additionally, a pneumothorax may be associated with mechanical ventilation but should be carefully evaluated in all chest x-rays.
Understanding Transient Tachypnoea of the Newborn
Transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN) is a common respiratory condition that affects newborns. It is caused by the delayed resorption of fluid in the lungs, which can lead to breathing difficulties. TTN is more common in babies born via caesarean section, as the fluid in their lungs may not be squeezed out during the birth process. A chest x-ray may show hyperinflation of the lungs and fluid in the horizontal fissure.
The management of TTN involves observation and supportive care. In some cases, supplementary oxygen may be required to maintain oxygen saturation levels. However, TTN usually resolves within 1-2 days. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor newborns with TTN closely and provide appropriate care to ensure a full recovery. By understanding TTN and its management, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for newborns with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man with a history of epilepsy and ischaemic heart disease presents to the clinic with a complaint of feeling lethargic for the past 3 months. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained: Hb 9.6 g/dl, MCV 123 fl, Plt 164 * 109/l, WCC 4.6 *109/l. Which medication is the most likely cause of his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male carpenter visits the GP clinic complaining of right foot drop. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. During the examination, the doctor observed weakness in the right foot dorsiflexion and eversion. The patient also reported sensory loss on the dorsum of the right foot and lower lateral part of the right leg. No other neurological deficits were detected. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from common peroneal nerve palsy, which may be caused by diabetes. This condition can result in weakness of foot dorsiflexion and foot eversion. L5 nerve root compression is a possible cause of foot drop, but it does not lead to weakness of foot eversion, so it is not the correct option. Sciatic nerve palsy can also cause foot drop, but it can also affect other nerves, resulting in weakness of foot plantar flexion and sensory loss of the sole of the foot, which is not present in this case. Stroke is a central cause of foot drop, but the absence of upper motor neuron signs suggests common peroneal nerve pathology is more likely. Polyneuropathy involves multiple nerves, so it is not the correct option.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve, which divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. The most notable symptom of this type of nerve damage is foot drop, which is characterized by weakness or paralysis of the muscles that lift the foot.
In addition to foot drop, other symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion may include weakness in foot dorsiflexion and eversion, as well as the extensor hallucis longus muscle. Sensory loss may also occur over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and there may be wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
Overall, understanding the symptoms of a common peroneal nerve lesion can help individuals recognize and seek treatment for this type of nerve injury. With proper care and management, it may be possible to improve symptoms and prevent further damage to the affected nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about routine prenatal care is false?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan should not be done at the same time
Explanation:Nowadays, numerous facilities combine the early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan into a single procedure.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old man with haemophilia A has just become a great-grandfather. He is curious about the likelihood of his great-grandson inheriting haemophilia. His granddaughter's partner is healthy and has no medical history.
What is the probability of his great-grandson having haemophilia A?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her GP with tearfulness and a low mood for the past few weeks. The GP notes from her medical history that she has a history of renal stones.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones
Primary Hyperparathyroidism:
This condition can cause hypercalcemia, which may present as renal stones, osteoporosis, arthritis, nausea and vomiting, peptic ulcer disease, constipation, polyuria, depression, memory loss, and delirium.Hyperthyroidism:
Hyperthyroidism may present with restlessness, irritability, insomnia, tremor, palpitations, weight loss, sweating, heat intolerance, diarrhea, oligomenorrhea, hair thinning, and muscle weakness. Graves’ disease may also cause a goiter and thyroid eye disease, presenting as proptosis, dry eyes, periorbital edema, and lagophthalmos.Hypothyroidism:
Typical features of hypothyroidism include dry skin, brittle and diminished hair, lethargy, cold intolerance, dull or blank expression, puffy eyelids, and weight gain. Patients may also experience cerebellar ataxia, ascites, non-pitting edema of the hands and feet, and congestive cardiac failure.Pseudopseudohypoparathyroidism:
This condition may present with short fourth and fifth metacarpals, round face, short stature, basal ganglia calcification, and decreased IQ.Secondary Hyperparathyroidism:
This condition may present with signs and symptoms of hypocalcemia, including perioral paresthesia, seizures, spasms, anxiety, increased smooth muscle tone, disorientation, dermatitis, impetigo herpetiformis, cataracts, Chvostek’s sign, and long Q–T interval.Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Low Mood and Renal Stones
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a history of chlamydia, low-grade fever, and worsening abdominal pain over the past 6 hours. She reports that the pain is most severe on the right side and radiates into her shoulder. The patient is a smoker with no known medical conditions and is currently taking Microgynon for contraception. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and on palpation of the abdomen, she experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound scan, urine dip, and beta-hCG test all come back normal. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Explanation:Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a condition that arises as a result of pelvic inflammatory disease. It causes inflammation of the liver capsule, leading to pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. Scar tissue formation and peri-hepatic adhesions may also occur. This condition is more common in women who have contracted chlamydia or gonorrhoea. Treatment involves eliminating the responsible organism, and in some cases, laparoscopy may be necessary to remove adhesions that have formed.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old female presents to the emergency department with left-sided pelvic pain and vaginal bleeding. She reports her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago and has had a positive urinary pregnancy test. The patient is stable hemodynamically, and bloods have been taken for full blood count, renal and liver function, and C-reactive protein. What is the most suitable diagnostic test to determine the underlying cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transvaginal ultrasound scan
Explanation:To confirm or rule out ectopic pregnancy, the recommended investigation is transvaginal ultrasound. This is because it provides clearer images of the uterus, ovaries, and endometrium, making it more effective in detecting ectopic pregnancies compared to transabdominal scans. While serum Beta-HCG levels are helpful in managing ectopic pregnancies, a single test cannot completely rule out the possibility. Pregnant women are generally advised against undergoing CT scans and abdominal X-rays.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with type II diabetes mellitus and a history of hypertension, on maximum-dose metformin, was started on gliclazide three weeks ago. Since then she has had recurrent hypoglycaemic events requiring Accident and Emergency (A&E) attendance.
Investigation Result Normal values
HbA1c 72 mmol/mol (8.7%) 20-42 mmol/mol (4.2-6.2%)
Which of the following is the best action to take?
Select the SINGLE action from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop gliclazide and start sitagliptin
Explanation:Choosing the Right Treatment for Hypoglycaemic Episodes in Type 2 Diabetes
When metformin alone is not enough to control HbA1c in type 2 diabetes, NICE recommends adding a sulfonylurea, pioglitazone, or a DPP-4 inhibitor. However, if the patient experiences hypoglycaemic episodes, it is important to reassess the treatment plan.
Stopping gliclazide, a sulfonylurea, is necessary as it is likely causing the hypoglycaemic episodes. Pioglitazone is contraindicated in patients with heart failure, so a DPP-4 inhibitor like sitagliptin is the appropriate next step.
Initiating insulin is not recommended as it can be dangerous, and should only be considered after other options have failed. Reducing metformin is unlikely to prevent hypoglycaemic episodes as it does not typically cause them on its own.
In summary, choosing the right treatment for hypoglycaemic episodes in type 2 diabetes involves careful consideration of the patient’s medical history and NICE guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a characteristic of essential tremor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal recessive inheritance
Explanation:When arms are extended, essential tremor worsens, but it improves with the use of alcohol and propranolol. This is an autosomal dominant condition.
Understanding Essential Tremor
Essential tremor, also known as benign essential tremor, is a genetic condition that typically affects both upper limbs. The most common symptom is a postural tremor, which worsens when the arms are outstretched. However, the tremor can be improved by rest and alcohol consumption. Essential tremor is also the leading cause of head tremors, known as titubation.
When it comes to managing essential tremor, the first-line treatment is propranolol. This medication can help reduce the severity of the tremors. In some cases, primidone may also be used to manage the condition. It’s important to note that essential tremor is a lifelong condition, but with proper management, individuals can lead a normal life. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options, those with essential tremor can take control of their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female is 24 weeks pregnant and visits the midwife for a check-up. The foetal heart rate is detected on the Doppler scan and growth rates are appropriate for the gestational age. The mother reports to the midwife that she has been experiencing faster breathing than usual in the recent weeks. The midwife reassures her that an increase in ventilation is a typical occurrence during pregnancy. What other physiological changes are considered normal during pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Red blood cell volume increases
Explanation:During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum.
If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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