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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old primigravida 1+0 arrives at 35 weeks gestation with a blood pressure...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida 1+0 arrives at 35 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 165/120 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria on dipstick testing. She had a stable blood pressure of approximately 115/75mmHg before becoming pregnant, and her only medical history is well-managed asthma. Which of the following statements is correct regarding her treatment?

      Your Answer: In induced labour, epidural anaesthesia should help reduce blood pressure

      Explanation:

      1. The only effective treatment for pre-eclampsia is delivery, while IV magnesium sulphate is administered to prevent seizures in eclampsia.
      2. Delivery on the same day is a viable option after 34 weeks.
      3. Nifedipine is considered safe for breastfeeding mothers. (However, labetalol is the preferred antihypertensive medication, as beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma.)
      4. Epidural anaesthesia can help lower blood pressure.
      5. It is important to continue hypertension treatment during labour to manage blood pressure levels. Please refer to the NICE guideline on the diagnosis and management of hypertension in pregnancy for further information.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      137.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance following a...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man is brought to the emergency department via ambulance following a high-speed head-on collision while driving. Despite wearing his seatbelt, he has developed confusion, pulsatile swelling, and bruising on the right side of his neck, and eventually becomes unresponsive. Additionally, he has sustained a fractured nose and multiple lacerations on his face, including his lips. What is the probable cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Clavicle fracture

      Correct Answer: Carotid artery laceration

      Explanation:

      When passengers wear seatbelts incorrectly during high-speed road traffic accidents, they may suffer from poly-trauma. The injuries sustained depend on the type and speed of the vehicle involved. One potential injury is damage to the carotid artery in the neck, which can cause a pulsatile mass and swelling. While a cervical spine fracture could also occur, it would not explain the expanding mass in the neck. A clavicle fracture is also unlikely to cause the same symptoms. Although it is technically possible for an embolism to rupture due to trauma, this is not a likely explanation for the observed symptoms.

      Trauma management follows the principles of ATLS and involves an ABCDE approach. Thoracic injuries include simple pneumothorax, mediastinal traversing wounds, tracheobronchial tree injury, haemothorax, blunt cardiac injury, diaphragmatic injury, and traumatic aortic disruption. Abdominal trauma may involve deceleration injuries and injuries to the spleen, liver, or small bowel. Diagnostic tools include diagnostic peritoneal lavage, abdominal CT scan, and ultrasound. Urethrography may be necessary for suspected urethral injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      48.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female presents with worsening dyspnoea and the need to sit down frequently. She has had no other health issues. The patient works in an office.
      During the physical examination, the patient is found to have clubbing and fine end-inspiratory crackles upon auscultation. A chest X-ray reveals diffuse reticulonodular shadows, particularly in the lower lobes.
      What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Radiotherapy

      Correct Answer: Oxygen therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Pulmonary fibrosis is a condition that can be diagnosed through a patient’s medical history. When it comes to treatment options, oxygen therapy is the most appropriate as it can prevent the development of pulmonary hypertension. However, there are other treatments available such as steroids and immune modulators like azathioprine, cyclophosphamide methotrexate, and cyclosporin. In some cases, anticoagulation may also be used to reduce the risk of pulmonary embolism. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 28-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of excessive nausea and...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to your GP clinic complaining of excessive nausea and vomiting. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant. She reports that she is able to keep down fluids and food and has not experienced any weight loss. However, she is finding that these symptoms are interfering with her daily activities. She has not attempted any medications to manage these symptoms.
      What course of treatment would you suggest?

      Your Answer: Ondansetron

      Correct Answer: Promethazine

      Explanation:

      The primary treatment for nausea and vomiting during pregnancy, including hyperemesis gravidarum, is antihistamines.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      45.2
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - Which of the following combinations of age and percentage of hearing loss is...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following combinations of age and percentage of hearing loss is incorrect for the overall population?

      Your Answer: Aged 50-59: approximately 10% affected

      Correct Answer: Aged 80-89: approximately 50% affected

      Explanation:

      Age and Hearing Loss

      As people age, the likelihood of experiencing hearing loss increases. In fact, the percentage of the population with a significant hearing loss rises with each passing decade. For those in the 80-89-year-old age group, it is estimated that between 70-80% of them will have a degree of hearing loss greater than 25 dB. This means that the majority of individuals in this age range will have difficulty hearing and may require hearing aids or other assistive devices to communicate effectively. It is important for individuals of all ages to take steps to protect their hearing, such as avoiding loud noises and wearing ear protection when necessary, in order to minimize the risk of hearing loss as they age.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      198.2
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman presents with galactorrhoea. She has a history of schizophrenia and depression and takes various medications. She also reports not having a menstrual period for the past four months. During examination, a small amount of galactorrhoea is expressed from both breasts, but no other abnormalities are found. The following investigations are conducted: Prolactin levels are at 820 mU/L (50-550), 17β-oestradiol levels are at 110 pmol/L (130-550), LH levels are at 2.8 mU/L (3-10), FSH levels are at 2.7 mU/L (3-15), T4 levels are at 14.1 pmol/L (10-22), and TSH levels are at 0.65 mU/L (0.4-5). What is the probable cause of her galactorrhoea?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine (Prozac)

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol

      Explanation:

      Hyperprolactinaemia and Hypogonadism in a Female with Schizophrenia

      This female patient is experiencing galactorrhoea and has an elevated prolactin concentration, along with a low oestradiol concentration and a low-normal luteinising hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH). Pregnancy can be ruled out due to the low oestradiol concentration. The cause of hyperprolactinaemia and subsequent hypogonadism is likely drug-induced, as the patient is a chronic schizophrenic and is likely taking antipsychotic medication such as haloperidol or newer atypicals like olanzapine. These drugs act as dopamine antagonists and can cause hyperprolactinaemia.

      It is important to note that hyperprolactinaemia can cause hypogonadism, and in this case, it is likely due to the patient’s medication. Other side effects of these drugs include extrapyramidal, Parkinson-like effects, and dystonias. It is crucial for healthcare providers to consider the potential side effects of medications when treating patients with chronic conditions such as schizophrenia. Proper monitoring and management of these side effects can improve the patient’s quality of life and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      115.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 29-year-old patient involved in a car accident is being treated in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old patient involved in a car accident is being treated in the ICU. The patient has a challenging airway and has undergone multiple traumatic intubations during their stay, resulting in a persistent air leak in the ventilator circuit. They are now experiencing recurrent hospital-acquired pneumonia. Upon examination, crackles and dullness to percussion are heard at the lung bases, but breath sounds are present throughout the lung fields. The patient's Hb level is 137 g/L (normal range for males: 135-180; females: 115-160), platelet count is 356 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), and WBC count is 12.9 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0). What is the most likely cause of the patient's recurring pneumonia?

      Your Answer: Lung cancer

      Correct Answer: Tracheo-oesophageal fistula

      Explanation:

      The formation of tracheo-oesophageal fistula can be a consequence of prolonged mechanical ventilation in trauma patients.

      Airway Management Devices and Techniques

      Airway management is a crucial aspect of medical care, especially in emergency situations. In addition to airway adjuncts, there are simple positional manoeuvres that can be used to open the airway, such as head tilt/chin lift and jaw thrust. There are also several devices that can be used for airway management, each with its own advantages and limitations.

      The oropharyngeal airway is easy to insert and use, making it ideal for short procedures. It is often used as a temporary measure until a more definitive airway can be established. The laryngeal mask is widely used and very easy to insert. It sits in the pharynx and aligns to cover the airway, but it does not provide good control against reflux of gastric contents. The tracheostomy reduces the work of breathing and may be useful in slow weaning, but it requires humidified air and may dry secretions. The endotracheal tube provides optimal control of the airway once the cuff is inflated and can be used for long or short-term ventilation, but errors in insertion may result in oesophageal intubation.

      It is important to note that paralysis is often required for some of these devices, and higher ventilation pressures can be used with the endotracheal tube. Capnography should be monitored to ensure proper placement and ventilation. Each device has its own unique benefits and drawbacks, and the choice of device will depend on the specific needs of the patient and the situation at hand.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      109.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Ms. Johnson, a 26-year-old marketing executive, was diagnosed with a left tubal ectopic...

    Correct

    • Ms. Johnson, a 26-year-old marketing executive, was diagnosed with a left tubal ectopic pregnancy 3 weeks ago. Despite being treated with methotrexate, her hCG levels did not improve. As a result, surgical intervention was deemed necessary. Ms. Johnson has no notable medical history and is in good health. What type of surgery is the surgeon most likely to perform?

      Your Answer: Salpingectomy

      Explanation:

      The patient did not respond to methotrexate treatment for ectopic pregnancy, as indicated by the βhCG levels. Additionally, there is no history of increased infertility risk. According to NICE guidelines, salpingectomy is recommended for women with tubal ectopic unless they have other infertility risk factors, such as damage to the contralateral tube. Alternatively, salpingostomy may be offered. Women who undergo salpingostomy should be informed that up to 20% may require further treatment, which could include methotrexate and/or salpingectomy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except: ...

    Incorrect

    • Each one of the following statements regarding ADHD is correct, except:

      Your Answer: There is a global impairment of language and communication

      Correct Answer: The majority of children have normal or increased intelligence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Autism Spectrum Disorder

      Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) is a neurodevelopmental condition that affects social interaction, communication, and behaviour. It is usually diagnosed during early childhood, but symptoms may manifest later. ASD can occur in individuals with any level of intellectual ability, and its manifestations range from subtle problems to severe disabilities. The prevalence of ASD has increased over time due to changes in definitions and increased awareness, with recent estimates suggesting a prevalence of 1-2%. Boys are three to four times more likely to be diagnosed with ASD than girls, and around 50% of children with ASD have an intellectual disability.

      Individuals with ASD may exhibit a broad range of clinical manifestations, including impaired social communication and interaction, repetitive behaviours, interests, and activities, and associated conditions such as attention deficit hyperactivity disorder and epilepsy. Although there is no cure for ASD, early diagnosis and intensive educational and behavioural management can improve outcomes. Treatment involves a comprehensive approach that includes non-pharmacological therapies such as early educational and behavioural interventions, pharmacological interventions for associated conditions, and family support and counselling. The goal of treatment is to increase functional independence and quality of life for individuals with ASD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough....

    Incorrect

    • A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough. Clinical findings, and a chest X-ray suggest a diagnosis of both pulmonary oedema and pneumonia. He is put on high flow oxygen and treated with furosemide, GTN spray and morphine, and started on antibiotics.
      His breathlessness improves, and a repeat chest X-ray shows decreased pulmonary oedema. An ABG shows the following:
      pH: 7.01 (normal 7.35–7.45)
      p(CO2): 8 kPa (normal 4.5–6.0 kPa)
      p(O2): 11 kPa (normal 10–14 kPa)
      HCO3–: 18 mmol (normal 24–30 mmol/l)
      base excess: 1.2 mmol/l (normal −2 to +2.0 mmol/l)
      sodium: 142 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
      potassium: 5.9 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      glucose: 7.5 mmol/l (normal 5–5.5 mmol/l)
      lactate: 3.1 mmol/l (normal 2.2–5 mmol/l).
      Based on the patient, which of the following does he have that is an indication for acute dialysis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis

      Explanation:

      Indications for Acute Dialysis: Assessing the Patient’s Condition

      When considering whether a patient requires acute dialysis, several factors must be taken into account. Severe metabolic acidosis with a pH below 7.2 is a clear indication for dialysis. Similarly, severe refractory hyperkalaemia with levels above 7 mmol/l may require dialysis, although standard measures to correct potassium levels should be attempted first. However, if the patient’s potassium levels are only mildly elevated, dialysis may not be necessary.

      A raised lactate level is not an indication for acute dialysis. Refractory pulmonary oedema, which has not responded to initial treatment with diuretics, may require dialysis. However, if the patient’s pulmonary oedema has responded to treatment, dialysis may not be necessary.

      In summary, the decision to initiate acute dialysis depends on a careful assessment of the patient’s condition, taking into account factors such as metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, lactate levels, and pulmonary oedema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (1/2) 50%
Respiratory (0/1) 0%
Surgery (1/2) 50%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Endocrinology (0/1) 0%
Gynaecology (1/1) 100%
Paediatrics (0/1) 0%
Passmed