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Question 1
Correct
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A 6 month-old girl was seen 3 days earlier with a fever of 39 oC but no localising symptoms and signs. The fever responded well to ibuprofen and paracetamol and has resolved. The mother was warned to watch out for a rash and returns anxious because small pink spots have appeared on her body, arms and legs. The spots blanch on pressure.
Select from the list the single most likely diagnosis.Your Answer: Roseola infantum
Explanation:Understanding Roseola Infantum: Symptoms, Causes, and Diagnosis
Roseola infantum is a common viral infection that primarily affects children between the ages of 6 months and 1 year. Caused by the herpesvirus 6 (HHV-6), this highly contagious illness is characterized by a sudden onset of high fever, which can reach up to 40°C and last for 3-4 days. Once the fever subsides, a rash of small pink spots typically appears on the body, arms, and legs, but not on the face. The rash usually lasts for about 12-14 hours and may be accompanied by a sore throat and swollen lymph nodes in the neck.
While the initial fever may cause concern for parents and healthcare providers, the sudden drop in temperature and the appearance of the characteristic rash are reassuring signs of roseola. However, it is important to rule out more serious conditions before making a diagnosis. With proper understanding of the symptoms, causes, and diagnostic process, parents and healthcare providers can effectively manage and treat roseola infantum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old teacher presents with joint pains. Over the past few months, she has been experiencing intermittent pain, stiffness, and swelling in the joints of her hands and feet. The stiffness tends to improve during the day, but the pain tends to worsen. She has also noticed stiffness in her back but cannot recall any injury that may have caused it. During an acute attack, blood tests were taken and the results are as follows:
Rheumatoid factor: Negative
Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody: Positive
Uric acid: 0.3 mmol/l (0.18 - 0.48)
ESR: 41 mm/hr
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis
Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is strongly linked to the presence of anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies, which are highly specific to this condition.
Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that requires initial investigations to determine the presence of antibodies. One such antibody is rheumatoid factor (RF), which is usually an IgM antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. The Rose-Waaler test or latex agglutination test can detect RF, with the former being more specific. RF is positive in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population. Anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody is another antibody that may be detectable up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis. It has a sensitivity similar to RF but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends testing for anti-CCP antibodies in patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative. Additionally, x-rays of the hands and feet are recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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Question 3
Incorrect
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To assess a new diagnostic test, 300 patients aged 50 and above are evaluated using both the new test and the current gold-standard test for diagnosis.
The new test is observed to have a sensitivity of 80%, specificity of 60%, a positive predictive value of 66.7% and a negative predictive value of 75%.
What is the positive likelihood ratio of the test?Your Answer: 1.3
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:To calculate the positive likelihood ratio, divide the sensitivity by 1 minus the specificity. For this scenario, the positive likelihood ratio is 2, which is obtained by dividing 0.8 by 0.4 (1 minus 0.6).
Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner as the previous night he experienced sudden onset of numbness and weakness of the right arm and leg. The symptoms fully resolved after approximately eight hours. Since the last episode, he has had no further symptoms and is usually well. Neurological examination is normal and his blood pressure is 158/92 mmHg. It is found that he has atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 96 bpm.
What is the single most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Calculate the ABCD2 score to guide the urgency of referral
Correct Answer: Administer aspirin 300 mg immediately
Explanation:Importance of Immediate Actions for Suspected TIA Patients
When a patient presents with symptoms of a suspected transient ischaemic attack (TIA), immediate actions are crucial to reduce the risk of stroke. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines recommend administering aspirin 300 mg immediately, even in cases of unconfirmed TIA. Referral for specialist assessment should also be made immediately, with the patient seen within 24 hours. The ABCD2 score is no longer recommended for risk stratification, as all suspected cases of TIA should be regarded as potentially high risk of stroke. While antihypertensives may be necessary, initiating aspirin is a higher priority. Additionally, patients should be advised not to drive for at least one month after a TIA. Taking these immediate actions can greatly improve outcomes for patients with suspected TIA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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The district nurses request your presence for a home visit to assess a 42-year-old woman with a fungating squamous cell skin carcinoma. She is receiving palliative care due to widespread metastatic disease.
The nurses have been attending to the wound dressing multiple times a week, but have observed that the tumour has become malodorous. What topical medications could be beneficial in this situation?Your Answer: Povidine-iodine
Correct Answer: Aciclovir
Explanation:Managing Malodorous Fungating Tumours with Metronidazole
Fungating tumours require meticulous nursing care, including regular dressings and frequent monitoring. However, in cases where the tumour emits a foul odour, additional measures may be necessary. Metronidazole is a medication that can be used to reduce malodour in these instances. It can be administered both systemically and topically, with the latter being the preferred method.
Topical metronidazole is typically applied to the wound once or twice a day. This medication has been found to have good activity against anaerobic bacteria, which are often responsible for the unpleasant odour associated with fungating tumours. Other treatment options are unlikely to be effective in managing malodour in these cases.
In summary, managing malodorous fungating tumours requires a comprehensive approach that includes good nursing care and the use of appropriate medications such as metronidazole. By following these guidelines, patients can experience improved quality of life and greater comfort during their palliative care journey.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old man with psoriasis is seeking a review of his skin and topical treatments. He has recently been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and prescribed warfarin. Which of the following topical treatments, as per the British National Formulary, is most likely to interfere with his anticoagulation and should be excluded?
Your Answer: Dovonex (calcipotriol)
Correct Answer: Eumovate (clobetasone butyrate)
Explanation:Resources for Further Reading on Miconazole and Warfarin Interaction
The following links offer valuable resources for those seeking more information on the interaction between miconazole and warfarin. It is important to note that even non-oral preparations of miconazole can greatly affect the International Normalized Ratio (INR) in individuals taking warfarin. Therefore, caution should be exercised when using these medications together. To learn more about this topic, please refer to the following resources.
– Link 1: [insert link]
– Link 2: [insert link]
– Link 3: [insert link] -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 67-year-old man comes in for his yearly vaccinations.
Which pathogen is he most likely to receive immunisation against on an annual basis?Your Answer: influenza virus
Explanation:Vaccinations for Elderly Patients: A Review of influenza, Varicella Zoster, Legionella Pneumophila, Streptococcus Pneumoniae, and Neisseria Meningitidis
As individuals age, their immune systems weaken, making them more susceptible to certain diseases. Vaccinations are an important tool in preventing these diseases, particularly in the elderly population. influenza vaccination is recommended annually for all individuals over the age of 65, with those with underlying chronic diseases at highest risk. While the vaccine’s efficacy is reduced in the elderly population, it still significantly reduces hospital admission and mortality rates. Varicella zoster virus vaccination is recommended for patients aged between 70 to 79 to prevent shingles. There is currently no vaccine available for Legionella pneumophila. Streptococcus pneumoniae vaccination is recommended for individuals over 65 years of age, with one dose providing lifelong immunity. Neisseria meningitidis vaccination is not routinely recommended for the over-65s but is given to infants, children, and adults with certain medical conditions. Overall, vaccinations are an important preventative measure for elderly patients to reduce the risk of disease and improve health outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 8
Correct
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A 25-year-old transgender man comes to your clinic for a follow-up on his testosterone treatment. He discloses that he had unprotected vaginal sex three days ago and doesn't want to conceive.
What is the best course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe emergency contraception and advise the patient that testosterone therapy is contraindicated in pregnancy
Explanation:Transgender males who are on testosterone therapy should be aware that this treatment doesn’t prevent pregnancy. In the event that a patient becomes pregnant, testosterone therapy is not recommended as it can have harmful effects on the developing fetus. Instead, emergency contraception should be prescribed and the patient should be advised against continuing testosterone therapy during pregnancy. It is important to note that emergency contraception is still safe for patients on testosterone therapy. While discussing the risk of sexually transmitted infections is important, it is not a substitute for effective contraception. While a future pregnancy test may be necessary, the immediate priority is to provide emergency contraception. It is also important to note that testosterone therapy is not a form of emergency contraception and that other options, such as a copper intrauterine device or specific medications, should be considered.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies. For those engaging in vaginal sex, condoms and dental dams are recommended to prevent sexually transmitted infections. Cervical screening and HPV vaccinations should also be offered. Those at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis.
For individuals assigned female at birth with a uterus, testosterone therapy doesn’t provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimens are not recommended as they can antagonize the effect of testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and non-hormonal intrauterine devices may also suspend menstruation. Emergency contraception may be required following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either oral formulation or the non-hormonal intrauterine device may be considered.
In patients assigned male at birth, hormone therapy may reduce or cease sperm production, but the variability of its effects means it cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms are recommended for those engaging in vaginal sex to avoid the risk of pregnancy. The guidance stresses the importance of offering individuals options that take into account their personal circumstances and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Sexual Health
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Question 9
Incorrect
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At what age is ulcerative colitis commonly diagnosed?
Your Answer: Bimodal: 25-35 years + 55-65 years
Correct Answer: Bimodal: 15-25 years + 55-65 years
Explanation:Understanding Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease that causes inflammation in the rectum and spreads continuously without going beyond the ileocaecal valve. It is most commonly seen in people aged 15-25 years and 55-65 years. The symptoms of ulcerative colitis are insidious and intermittent, including bloody diarrhea, urgency, tenesmus, abdominal pain, and extra-intestinal features. Diagnosis is done through colonoscopy and biopsy, but in severe cases, a flexible sigmoidoscopy is preferred to avoid the risk of perforation. The typical findings include red, raw mucosa that bleeds easily, widespread ulceration with preservation of adjacent mucosa, and inflammatory cell infiltrate in lamina propria. Extra-intestinal features of inflammatory bowel disease include arthritis, erythema nodosum, episcleritis, osteoporosis, uveitis, pyoderma gangrenosum, clubbing, and primary sclerosing cholangitis. Ulcerative colitis is linked with sacroiliitis, and a barium enema can show the whole colon affected by an irregular mucosa with loss of normal haustral markings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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What is the main diagnostic core symptom of depression?
Your Answer: Persistent sadness or low mood most of the time
Correct Answer: Fatigue or loss of energy
Explanation:Core Symptoms of Depression
Depression is a mental health condition that affects millions of people worldwide. One of the defining characteristics of depression is the presence of core symptoms that are present for more than two weeks. These core symptoms include persistent feelings of sadness or hopelessness, as well as a marked loss of interest or pleasure in activities that were once enjoyable.
It’s important to note that while there are other symptoms of depression, such as changes in appetite or sleep patterns, these are classified as other symptoms and are not considered core symptoms. This means that someone may experience these symptoms without necessarily meeting the criteria for a diagnosis of depression.
If you or someone you know is experiencing persistent feelings of sadness or loss of interest in activities, it’s important to seek help from a mental health professional. Depression is a treatable condition, and with the right support, individuals can learn to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a 2-month history of fatigue and nocturia. On further questioning she also admits to increased thirst. She doesn't have dysuria or urgency, denies the possibility of pregnancy and has otherwise been well. Her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes, although she is not sure which type. She has looked at the symptoms online and is worried about a possible diabetes diagnosis; she wants to know how she can distinguish between the types of diabetes.
Her body mass index (BMI) is 29 kg/m².
Which of the following tests would be best in differentiating these diagnoses?Your Answer: HbA1c (glycosylated haemoglobin)
Correct Answer: Antibodies to glutamic acid decarboxylase (anti-GAD)
Explanation:The diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus (T1DM) is typically made based on symptoms and signs of diabetic ketoacidosis, such as abdominal pain, polyuria, dehydration, and Kussmaul respiration. Diagnostic criteria include fasting glucose greater than or equal to 7.0 mmol/l or random glucose greater than or equal to 11.1 mmol/l. Antibody tests, such as anti-GAD and islet cell antibodies, can help distinguish between type 1 and type 2 diabetes. Further investigation with C-peptide levels and diabetes-specific autoantibodies may be necessary in patients with atypical features or intermediate age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visits your clinic. He has been suffering from chronic bronchitis for several years and was diagnosed with mesothelioma two months ago. He worked as an electrician for a long time and also worked as a dockworker. He expresses his dissatisfaction with the care he has received from you and the local hospital and wants to file a complaint. He also wants to review his medical records. You assure him that you will take care of it, but he insists on seeing the records right away. What is the legal timeframe for you to comply with his request?
Your Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 28 days
Correct Answer: You must give him a copy of the records within 10 days
Explanation:Accessing Medical Records
Patients have the right to access their medical records, but it is important to obtain their consent before releasing any information to others, including their relatives. However, parents of young children are entitled to view their children’s records. For children over 16 and those under 16 who understand the significance of allowing others to see their records, their consent must be obtained before releasing any information.
The NHS Choices website provides guidance on how to request access to health records, and it is important to note that GDPR regulations require access to be granted within one calendar month. NHS England advises that access should be granted within 28 days. The British Medical Association also provides a helpful PDF guide on accessing medical records. By following these guidelines, patients can ensure that their medical information is kept confidential and that they have control over who can access their records.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 72-year old woman with a recent diagnosis of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is seen.
Her spirometry shows an FEV1 of 42% predicted with an FEV1: FVC ratio of 64%. Her current treatment consists of a short-acting beta agonist (SABA) used as required which was started when a clinical diagnosis was made following the spirometry.
On reviewing her symptoms she needs to use the SABA at least four times a day and despite this still feels persistently breathless. In addition, she tells you that over the last few years she gets attacks of 'bronchitis' requiring antibiotics two to three times a year.
According to NICE guidance, which of the following is the next most appropriate step in her pharmacological management?Your Answer: Add in a regular ICS
Correct Answer: Prescribe an emergency oral steroid prescription to keep at home and use at the first signs of an exacerbation
Explanation:A patient with COPD who is persistently breathless despite regular SABA use needs inhaled treatment added to improve symptom control and prevent exacerbations. The options for add-on inhaled treatment are a LABA+ICS combination inhaler or a LAMA. Adding a regular ICS on its own has no role in the COPD treatment ladder. A regular SAMA can be used instead of a SABA but is not an option for add-in treatment. Adding a LABA can be used in some patients with COPD but is not the priority here. A LABA is usually indicated in patients with an FEV1 of ≥ to 50%. NICE CKS COPD guidelines recommend inhaled bronchodilators as the first-line drugs for the treatment of COPD.
For reference:
SABA – short acting beta agonist
LABA – long acting beta agonist
SAMA – short acting muscarinic antagonist
LAMA – long acting muscarinic antagonist
ICS – inhaled corticosteroid. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old lady visited the GP for the treatment of her haemorrhoids and was prescribed a topical treatment containing corticosteroids and local anesthetic. She was not given any instructions on how long to use this treatment for and has now come to seek advice on the duration of treatment.
What is the SINGLE MOST suitable advice to give her?Your Answer: Corticosteroid preparations can only be used for 7 days and local anaesthetic use can continue for 2 weeks
Correct Answer: Corticosteroid preparations can only be used for 2 days, but local anaesthetic use can continue for 2 weeks
Explanation:Initial Management of Anal Fissures
Corticosteroid-containing preparations should not be used for more than 7 days as prolonged use can result in skin atrophy, contact dermatitis, and skin sensitisation. Similarly, anaesthetic-containing preparations should only be used for a few days as they can lead to sensitisation of anal skin.
Aside from topical treatments, there are other crucial initial management steps that should be taken. These include ensuring that stools are soft and easy to pass, optimising anal hygiene and toileting practices, such as avoiding straining during bowel movements.
If conservative treatment fails or if symptoms recur, referral to secondary care should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A healthy 60-year-old male has a clinic blood pressure of 120/75 mmHg.
When should you offer him another blood pressure test?Your Answer: 1 year
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Hypertension Testing
The NICE guidelines recommend testing normotensive individuals every five years, with more frequent testing for those with blood pressure approaching 140/90 mmHg. For this particular patient, five years is sufficient. It is important for general practitioners to have a thorough understanding of hypertension management, as it may be tested on in various areas of the MRCGP exam, including the AKT. This question specifically assesses knowledge of NICE guidance on hypertension (NG136).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You see a 49-year-old man in your afternoon clinic who has a history of flexural psoriasis. He reports a recent flare-up over the past 2 weeks, with both axillae and groin involvement. The patient is not currently on any treatment and has no known drug allergies.
What would be the most suitable initial therapy for this patient's psoriasis?Your Answer: Combined topical preparation containing a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue applied once daily
Correct Answer: Mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily
Explanation:For the treatment of flexural psoriasis, the correct option is to use a mild or moderate potency topical corticosteroid applied once or twice daily. This is because the skin in flexural areas is thinner and more sensitive to steroids compared to other areas. The affected areas in flexural psoriasis are the groin, genital region, axillae, inframammary folds, abdominal folds, sacral and gluteal cleft. In this case, the patient has axillary psoriasis, and the treatment should begin with a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid for up to two weeks. If there is a good response, repeated short courses of topical corticosteroids may be used to maintain disease control. Potent topical corticosteroids are not advisable for flexural regions, and the use of Vitamin D preparations is not supported by evidence. If there is ongoing treatment failure, we should consider an alternative diagnosis and refer the patient to a dermatologist who may consider calcineurin inhibitors as a second-line treatment. We should also advise our patients to use emollients regularly and provide appropriate lifestyle advice.
Psoriasis is a chronic skin condition that can also affect the joints. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released guidelines for managing psoriasis and psoriatic arthropathy. For chronic plaque psoriasis, NICE recommends a stepwise approach starting with regular use of emollients to reduce scale loss and itching. First-line treatment involves applying a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, once daily in the morning and evening, for up to 4 weeks. If there is no improvement after 8 weeks, a vitamin D analogue twice daily can be used as second-line treatment. Third-line options include a potent corticosteroid applied twice daily for up to 4 weeks or a coal tar preparation applied once or twice daily. Phototherapy and systemic therapy are also options for managing psoriasis.
For scalp psoriasis, NICE recommends using a potent topical corticosteroid once daily for 4 weeks. If there is no improvement, a different formulation of the corticosteroid or a topical agent to remove adherent scale can be used before applying the corticosteroid. For face, flexural, and genital psoriasis, a mild or moderate potency corticosteroid applied once or twice daily for a maximum of 2 weeks is recommended.
When using topical steroids, it is important to be aware of potential side effects such as skin atrophy, striae, and rebound symptoms. The scalp, face, and flexures are particularly prone to steroid atrophy, so topical steroids should not be used for more than 1-2 weeks per month. Systemic side effects may occur when potent corticosteroids are used on large areas of the body. NICE recommends a 4-week break before starting another course of topical corticosteroids and using potent corticosteroids for no longer than 8 weeks at a time and very potent corticosteroids for no longer than 4 weeks at a time. Vitamin D analogues, such as calcipotriol, can be used long-term and tend to reduce the scale and thickness of plaques but not the redness. Dithranol and coal tar are other treatment options with their own unique mechanisms of action and potential adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following individuals doesn't need the pneumococcal vaccine?
Your Answer: 40-year-old asthmatic using salbutamol and beclomethasone
Explanation:According to the Green Book guidelines, only asthmatic patients who use oral steroids at a level that significantly weakens their immune system require the pneumococcal vaccine. However, since the angina patient is on beta-blockers, they should be given the vaccination. For more information, please refer to the provided link.
The pneumococcal vaccine comes in two types: the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine (PCV) and the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV). The PCV is given to children as part of their routine immunizations at 3 and 12-13 months. On the other hand, the PPV is offered to adults over 65 years old, patients with chronic conditions such as COPD, and those who have had a splenectomy.
The vaccine is recommended for individuals with asplenia or splenic dysfunction, chronic respiratory disease, chronic heart disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic liver disease, diabetes mellitus, immunosuppression, cochlear implants, and patients with cerebrospinal fluid leaks. However, controlled hypertension is not an indication for vaccination. Patients with any stage of HIV infection are also included in the list of those who should be vaccinated.
Adults usually require only one dose of the vaccine, but those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or chronic kidney disease need a booster every five years. It is important to note that asthma is only included if it requires the use of oral steroids at a dose sufficient to act as a significant immunosuppressant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 18
Incorrect
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On reviewing the blood results of a 65-year-old patient, you note mild hypercalcaemia. The full blood count, renal function, serum electrolytes, liver function tests and thyroid function tests were all normal. A subsequent repeat serum calcium shows persistence in the mild hypercalcaemia along with a raised parathyroid hormone. The patient is otherwise asymptomatic.
Which of the following would be the next most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Refer to endocrinology
Correct Answer: Oral bisphosphonate
Explanation:Managing Incidental Findings of Hypercalcaemia
It is crucial to consider the differential diagnosis when an incidental finding of hypercalcaemia is discovered. Immediate hospital review is necessary for severe hypercalcaemia (>3.40mmol/L) or those with symptoms. Further investigations may be required for mild hypercalcaemia, depending on the clinical context, such as chest x-ray, serum and urine protein electrophoresis, and serum cortisol.
NICE recommends referring patients suspected of having primary hyperparathyroidism to endocrinology. They will exclude other causes of hypercalcaemia and assess whether a parathyroidectomy is appropriate. Calcimimetic drug treatments and bisphosphonate therapy are potential treatments, but these would be considered in secondary care initially. A normal dietary intake of calcium is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old truck driver presents for a follow-up appointment after being diagnosed with epilepsy. The specialist has determined that he is experiencing 'absence' seizures and has advised him that he is not fit to drive. Despite this, the patient admits to continuing to drive his truck and disagrees with the diagnosis. He has not informed the DVLA about his seizures. You explain to him his legal obligation to inform the DVLA and the dangers of driving with his condition. He understands but insists on continuing to drive and declines your offer to speak to a friend or family member. What is the best course of action in managing this situation?
Your Answer: Contact the DVLA to inform them that he continues to drive despite medical advice not to do so
Correct Answer: Suggest a second opinion and help arrange this, advising him not to drive in the meantime whilst this opinion is arranged
Explanation:Managing Patients with Medical Conditions that Affect Driving
The DVLA provides guidance on managing patients with medical conditions that affect their ability to drive. If a patient develops a medical condition that contraindicates driving, it is important to explain the situation to them and advise them of their legal duty to inform the DVLA. If they continue to drive despite advice not to and refuse to inform the DVLA, it may be necessary to contact the DVLA and disclose the information.
If the patient refuses to accept the diagnosis, a second opinion from a specialist may be suggested and arranged, with the patient advised to abstain from driving in the meantime. It is important to respect the patient’s privacy and not disclose any information to friends or relatives without their consent.
If the patient continues to drive against advice and poses a risk of death or serious harm to others, it is necessary to inform the DVLA and disclose any relevant information to a medical adviser. However, it is important to inform the patient beforehand and give the information in confidence.
In summary, managing patients with medical conditions that affect driving can be challenging, but following the DVLA guidance and respecting the patient’s privacy can help ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with shortness of breath, haemoptysis, and pleuritic chest pain.
Her medical history includes a deep vein thrombosis affecting the right leg eight years ago. She is not on any current regular medication.
On examination, her heart rate is 108 bpm, blood pressure is 104/68, respiratory rate is 24, oxygen saturations are 94% in room air and she is afebrile. She has no calf or leg swelling.
You suspect she might have a pulmonary embolism and there is nothing to find to suggest an alternative cause.
You calculate her two-level PE Wells score.
What is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Give low molecular weight heparin and request an urgent outpatient computed tomography pulmonary angiogram
Correct Answer: Admit as an emergency
Explanation:Calculating the Wells Score for Pulmonary Embolism
To determine the likelihood of a patient having a pulmonary embolism (PE), healthcare professionals use the Wells score. This score is calculated based on several factors, including clinical examination consistent with deep vein thrombosis, pulse rate, immobilization or recent surgery, past medical history, haemoptysis, cancer, and the likelihood of an alternative diagnosis.
If the two-level Wells score is more than 4 points, hospital admission should be arranged for an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram. If the score is 4 or lower, a D-dimer blood test should be arranged. A negative result may indicate an alternative diagnosis, while a positive result should be managed the same way as a two-level Wells score of more than 4.
It is important to note that HASBLED and CHADS2VASC scoring are used in the management of patients with atrial fibrillation, not pulmonary embolism. By using the Wells score, healthcare professionals can quickly and accurately determine the likelihood of a patient having a PE and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Health
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Question 21
Correct
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A 43-year-old man presents to you with complaints of tinnitus and hearing loss for the past few weeks. He has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and is currently on medications including salbutamol inhaler, azithromycin, beclomethasone-formoterol (Fostair) inhaler, tiotropium inhaler, and glycopyrronium bromide.
Upon examination, you note a positive Rinne test bilaterally with reduced hearing on both sides, worse on the left. The Weber test lateralizes to the right, and otoscopy is normal. You suspect a sensorineural hearing loss and urgently refer the patient to an ENT specialist.
Which medication from his current regimen may be contributing to his symptoms and should be discontinued?Your Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin has been found to have a negative impact on hearing, causing tinnitus and sensorineural hearing loss. Patients should discontinue use of the medication immediately if these symptoms occur to prevent irreversible hearing damage. While most cases of hearing loss will improve, caution should be exercised when taking this medication.
Salbutamol and beclomethasone-formoterol are associated with common side effects such as arrhythmias, headaches, dizziness, nausea, palpitations, tremor, and hypokalaemia (with high doses). Tiotropium and glycopyrronium are also associated with side effects such as arrhythmias, cough, headaches, dry mouth, and nausea.
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that include erythromycin, clarithromycin, and azithromycin. They work by blocking translocation during bacterial protein synthesis, ultimately inhibiting bacterial growth. While they are generally considered bacteriostatic, their effectiveness can vary depending on the dose and type of organism being treated. Resistance to macrolides can occur through post-transcriptional methylation of the 23S bacterial ribosomal RNA.
However, macrolides can also have adverse effects. They may cause prolongation of the QT interval and gastrointestinal side-effects, such as nausea. Cholestatic jaundice is a potential risk, but using erythromycin stearate may reduce this risk. Additionally, macrolides are known to inhibit the cytochrome P450 isoenzyme CYP3A4, which metabolizes statins. Therefore, it is important to stop taking statins while on a course of macrolides to avoid the risk of myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Azithromycin is also associated with hearing loss and tinnitus.
Overall, while macrolides can be effective antibiotics, they do come with potential risks and side-effects. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks before starting a course of treatment with these antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman comes to her doctor complaining of dysuria and increased urinary frequency. She is in good health otherwise and doesn't show any signs of sepsis. During a urine dip test at the doctor's office, blood, leukocytes, protein, and nitrites are detected. The patient has a medical history of asthma, which is treated with salbutamol and beclomethasone inhalers, hypertension, which is treated with amlodipine 10 mg daily and ramipril 5mg daily, and stage 3 chronic kidney disease.
Which antibiotic should be avoided when treating this patient's urinary tract infection?Your Answer: Nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Patients with CKD stage 3 or higher should avoid taking nitrofurantoin due to the risk of treatment failure and side effects caused by drug accumulation. Nitrofurantoin is an antibiotic that requires adequate renal filtration to be effective in treating urinary tract infections. However, in patients with an eGFR of less than 40-60 ml/min, the drug is ineffective and can accumulate, leading to potential toxicity. Nitrofurantoin can also cause side effects such as peripheral neuropathy, hepatotoxicity, and pulmonary reactions. Amoxicillin and co-amoxiclav are safer options for treating urinary tract infections in patients with renal impairment, while ciprofloxacin may require dose reduction from an eGFR of 30-60 ml/min to avoid crystalluria. Patients taking nitrofurantoin should be aware that it can discolour urine and is safe to use during pregnancy except at full term.
Prescribing for Patients with Renal Failure
Prescribing medication for patients with renal failure can be challenging. It is important to know which drugs to avoid and which ones require dose adjustment. Antibiotics such as tetracycline and nitrofurantoin, as well as NSAIDs, lithium, and metformin should be avoided in patients with renal failure. These drugs can cause further damage to the kidneys or accumulate in the body, leading to toxicity.
On the other hand, some drugs require dose adjustment in patients with chronic kidney disease. Antibiotics such as penicillins, cephalosporins, vancomycin, gentamicin, and streptomycin, as well as digoxin, atenolol, methotrexate, sulphonylureas, and furosemide, are among the drugs that require dose adjustment. Opioids should also be used with caution in patients with renal failure.
There are also drugs that are relatively safe to use in patients with renal failure. Antibiotics such as erythromycin and rifampicin, as well as diazepam and warfarin, can sometimes be used at normal doses depending on the degree of chronic kidney disease.
In summary, prescribing medication for patients with renal failure requires careful consideration of the drugs’ potential effects on the kidneys and the need for dose adjustment. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to ensure safe and effective medication management for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 23
Correct
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A phlebotomist in the hospital sustains a needlestick injury whilst taking blood from a patient who is known to be HIV positive. After thoroughly washing the wound, what is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Refer to Emergency Department + oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks
Explanation:Oral antiretroviral therapy for 4 weeks is used as post-exposure prophylaxis for HIV.
Post-Exposure Prophylaxis for Viral Infections
Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is a preventive treatment given to individuals who have been exposed to a viral infection. The type of PEP given depends on the virus and the clinical situation. For hepatitis A, either human normal immunoglobulin or the hepatitis A vaccine may be used. For hepatitis B, the PEP given depends on whether the source is known to be positive for HBsAg or not. If the person exposed is a known responder to the HBV vaccine, then a booster dose should be given. If they are a non-responder, they need to have hepatitis B immune globulin and a booster vaccine. For hepatitis C, monthly PCR is recommended, and if seroconversion occurs, interferon +/- ribavirin may be given. For HIV, a combination of oral antiretrovirals should be given as soon as possible for four weeks. The risk of HIV transmission depends on the incident and the current viral load of the patient. For varicella zoster, VZIG is recommended for IgG negative pregnant women or immunosuppressed individuals. The risk of transmission for single needlestick injuries varies depending on the virus, with hepatitis B having a higher risk than hepatitis C and HIV.
Overall, PEP is an important preventive measure for individuals who have been exposed to viral infections. It is crucial to determine the appropriate PEP based on the virus and the clinical situation to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Disease And Travel Health
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 65 year-old-gentleman with varicose veins has tried conservative management options, but these have led to little improvement. Other than aching in his legs, he is otherwise well. An ABPI was measured at 0.7.
Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate NEXT management step?Your Answer: Class 1 compression stockings
Correct Answer: Class 2 compression stockings
Explanation:Understanding ABPI and Compression Stockings
When a patient is found to have an ABPI of 0.7, it is likely that they have other symptoms of arterial insufficiency. An ABPI less than 0.8 indicates severe arterial insufficiency, while an ABPI greater than 1.3 may be due to calcified and incompressible arteries. It is important to note that compression stockings are contraindicated in patients with ABPIs less than 0.8 or greater than 1.3.
The class of stocking used is not based on the ABPI, but rather the condition being treated. Closed toe stockings are generally used, but open toe stockings may be necessary if the patient has arthritic or clawed toes, has a fungal infection, prefers to wear a sock over the compression stocking, or has a long foot size compared with their calf size. Understanding ABPI and the appropriate use of compression stockings can help improve patient outcomes and prevent potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You receive a discharge summary for Mr. Chen, a 65-year-old man, who has had an acute surgical admission with pancreatitis. The summary notes that it was thought to be drug-related. His past medical history includes atrial fibrillation and type 2 diabetes. His regular medications are ramipril, warfarin, metformin, sitagliptin, and atorvastatin. He also takes an over-the-counter vitamin D supplement.
Which of his medications might have caused this presentation and should be reported by Yellow Card?Your Answer: Metformin
Correct Answer: Sitagliptin
Explanation:Pancreatitis is a rare but significant side effect of DPP4-inhibitors, while Bisoprolol, apixaban, and vitamin D do not have this adverse effect. Metformin doesn’t cause pancreatitis, but it can increase the risk of lactic acidosis, which is why it should be discontinued in cases where there is a risk of this condition, such as in serious illnesses like pancreatitis. The correct answer is Sitagliptin, as DPP4-inhibitors have been linked to acute pancreatitis and should be discontinued if suspected and reported through the Yellow Card system.
The following table provides a summary of the typical side-effects associated with drugs used to treat diabetes mellitus. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal side-effects and lactic acidosis. Sulfonylureas can lead to hypoglycaemic episodes, increased appetite and weight gain, as well as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion and cholestatic liver dysfunction. Glitazones are associated with weight gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, and fractures. Finally, gliptins have been linked to pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents with tiredness following a flu like illness 2 weeks ago. Investigations reveal:
Free T4 9.3 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
TSH 49.3 mU/L (0.35-5.50)
On examination she has a smooth modest goitre and a pulse of 68 bpm.
Which other investigation would you use to confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
Correct Answer: No further investigations necessary
Explanation:Diagnosis of Primary Hypothyroidism with Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
These test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely diagnosis is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. A thyroid ultrasound is not necessary, as the goitre appears smooth and there are no indications of malignancy. A radio-iodine uptake scan is also unnecessary, as it is expected to show little or no uptake. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the case here. Overall, these findings suggest a diagnosis of primary hypothyroidism with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?
Your Answer: precontemplation
Correct Answer: Recirculation
Explanation:The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation
The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.
Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Consulting In General Practice
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Question 28
Correct
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A 26-year-old female presents with nasal symptoms.
She has no significant past medical history. She reports frequent sneezing, a permanent feeling of nasal blockage, and intermittent bilateral non-purulent rhinorrhoea which have been a problem on and off for the last few years. There is no systemic unwellness. She has not identified any specific pattern to her symptoms which she describes are 'fairly persistent'.
On further questioning there doesn't appear to be a seasonal pattern to her symptoms, she doesn't own or have contact with any pets, and she works in an office where there doesn't seem to be any form of occupational trigger. She has no respiratory symptoms and examination of her chest including peak flow measurement is normal.
She has recently been using oral cetirizine regularly and also sodium cromoglycate eye drops both of which she has purchased over the counter. Despite daily use of both for the last four to six weeks her symptoms are no better and remain persistent. Examination reveals no anatomical abnormalities or red flag features.
You discuss further investigation to look into possible allergen identification and also further treatment options.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate pharmacological step in trying to manage her symptoms?Your Answer: Add in an intranasal corticosteroid (for example, mometasone)
Explanation:Guidelines recommend oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis. Mild symptoms can be treated with oral and/or topical antihistamines, while intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice for moderate to severe symptoms. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids for severe nasal blockage. Topical ipratropium and leukotriene receptor antagonists may also be added for persistent symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman who has previously had breast cancer visits her nearby GP clinic complaining of swelling in her left calf for the past two days. Which scoring system should be utilized to evaluate her likelihood of having a deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Your Answer: Wells score
Explanation:Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines in 2020, recommending the use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. They also recommend the use of DOACs in patients with active cancer, as opposed to low-molecular weight heparin as was previously recommended. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis.
If a patient is suspected of having a DVT, a two-level DVT Wells score should be performed to assess the likelihood of the condition. If a DVT is ‘likely’ (2 points or more), a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan should be carried out within 4 hours. If the result is positive, then a diagnosis of DVT is made and anticoagulant treatment should start. If the result is negative, a D-dimer test should be arranged. If a proximal leg vein ultrasound scan cannot be carried out within 4 hours, a D-dimer test should be performed and interim therapeutic anticoagulation administered whilst waiting for the proximal leg vein ultrasound scan (which should be performed within 24 hours).
The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy. The big change in the 2020 guidelines was the increased use of DOACs. Apixaban or rivaroxaban (both DOACs) should be offered first-line following the diagnosis of a DVT. Instead of using low-molecular weight heparin (LMWH) until the diagnosis is confirmed, NICE now advocate using a DOAC once a diagnosis is suspected, with this continued if the diagnosis is confirmed. If neither apixaban or rivaroxaban are suitable, then either LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban OR LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA, i.e. warfarin) can be used.
All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months. Continuing anticoagulation after this period is partly determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked. If the VTE was provoked, the treatment is typically stopped after the initial 3 months (3 to 6 months for people with active cancer). If the VTE was
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Health
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Question 30
Incorrect
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An 80 year old man undergoes decompressive surgery for degenerative cervical myelopathy. After three years, he complains of neck pain and hand paraesthesias. What is the recommended management strategy for his condition?
Your Answer: Refer to physiotherapy services
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to spinal surgery or neurosurgery
Explanation:Patients with cervical myelopathy require ongoing follow-up after surgery as the pathology can recur at adjacent spinal levels that were not treated during the initial decompressive surgery. Recurrent symptoms should be treated with suspicion, and peripheral neuropathy should not be the primary diagnosis as delays in diagnosing and treating DCM can negatively impact outcomes. Urgent evaluation by specialist spinal services is necessary for all patients with recurrent symptoms, and axial spine imaging, such as an MRI scan, is the first line of investigation. AP and lateral radiographs are of limited use when myelopathy is suspected. Therefore, statements A and E are false, and statement C is also false.
Degenerative cervical myelopathy (DCM) is a condition that has several risk factors, including smoking, genetics, and certain occupations that expose individuals to high axial loading. The symptoms of DCM can vary in severity and may include pain, loss of motor function, loss of sensory function, and loss of autonomic function. Early symptoms may be subtle and difficult to detect, but as the condition progresses, symptoms may worsen or new symptoms may appear. An MRI of the cervical spine is the gold standard test for diagnosing cervical myelopathy. All patients with DCM should be urgently referred to specialist spinal services for assessment and treatment. Decompressive surgery is currently the only effective treatment for DCM, and early treatment offers the best chance of a full recovery. Physiotherapy should only be initiated by specialist services to prevent further spinal cord damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal Health
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