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  • Question 1 - Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following drugs is most commonly associated with peripheral neuropathy in the treatment of tuberculosis, and how does it affect patients of different ages?

      Your Answer: Ethambutol

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      6.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man with a known diagnosis of ulcerative colitis visits his General Practitioner (GP) complaining of a 4-day history of a feeling of rectal fullness, tenesmus, diarrhoea with small, frequent stools and mucus, and rectal bleeding. He denies systemic symptoms. He is not sexually active. Physical examination is unremarkable. The GP thinks a diagnosis of inflammatory exacerbation of proctitis is likely and contacts the local Inflammatory Bowel Disease (IBM) specialist nurse for advice.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate treatment from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Per-rectal administration of aminosalicylate

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Proctitis: Aminosalicylates, Topical Corticosteroids, and More

      Proctitis, an inflammation of the rectal mucosa, can be caused by various factors such as radiation, infections, autoimmune diseases, and trauma. Symptoms include rectal bleeding, pain, and diarrhea. To manage proctitis, aminosalicylates in the form of enemas or suppositories are often used as first-line therapy to reduce inflammation and relieve symptoms. Topical corticosteroids are less effective but can be used in patients who cannot tolerate aminosalicylates. Oral prednisolone is a second-line therapy for ulcerative colitis. Ibuprofen is not recommended, and codeine phosphate and loperamide may aggravate symptoms. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and severity of proctitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      222.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease? ...

    Correct

    • What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease?

      Your Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 67-year-old man with a 14 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man with a 14 year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of blurred vision and poor eyesight. Upon examination using a Snellen chart, his visual acuity is found to be reduced to 6/12 in the left eye and 6/18 in the right eye. Fundoscopy reveals the presence of yellow deposits in the right eye, consistent with drusen formation, albeit to a lesser extent. Similar changes are observed in the left eye. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dry age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      Dry macular degeneration is characterized by the presence of drusen.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      39
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough and increasing shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. She also reports fever, headache, anorexia, and chills. Upon examination, she appears slightly pale and confused. Her vital signs reveal a pulse of 136/min, blood pressure of 96/64 mmHg, respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds in the left lower lung with some coarse crackles. Blood cultures are taken and the patient is cannulated. High flow oxygen is administered and a fluid challenge is ordered by the nurse. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics + steroids

      Correct Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s condition worsens, ITU may be consulted. However, before referring the patient, it is important to determine if she has already received basic sepsis care. Although studies have explored the use of steroids in sepsis, they are not presently recommended due to an increase in mortality.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      76.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman complains of dysphagia for the past 3 months, affecting both solids and liquids, accompanied by heartburn symptoms. What could be the probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Correct Answer: Achalasia

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest achalasia, as they have experienced difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids from the beginning.

      Understanding Achalasia: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Achalasia is a medical condition characterized by the failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the lower oesophageal sphincter (LOS) due to the degenerative loss of ganglia from Auerbach’s plexus. This results in a contracted LOS and a dilated oesophagus above it. It is a condition that typically presents in middle-age and is equally common in men and women.

      The clinical features of achalasia include dysphagia of both liquids and solids, heartburn, regurgitation of food, and variation in the severity of symptoms. If left untreated, it may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia, and even malignant change in a small number of patients. To diagnose achalasia, oesophageal manometry is considered the most important diagnostic test. It shows excessive LOS tone that doesn’t relax on swallowing. A barium swallow may also be used to show a grossly expanded oesophagus with a fluid level and a ‘bird’s beak’ appearance. A chest x-ray may reveal a wide mediastinum and fluid level.

      The treatment of achalasia involves pneumatic (balloon) dilation, which is increasingly becoming the preferred first-line option. It is less invasive and has a quicker recovery time than surgery. However, patients should be a low surgical risk as surgery may be required if complications occur. Surgical intervention with a Heller cardiomyotomy should be considered if recurrent or persistent symptoms occur. In some cases, an intra-sphincteric injection of botulinum toxin may be used in patients who are a high surgical risk. Drug therapy, such as nitrates and calcium channel blockers, may also have a role but is limited by side-effects. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of achalasia is crucial in managing this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      57.5
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man has been admitted to the geriatric ward for the past 2 weeks. He has recently been diagnosed with metastatic lung cancer. During the morning ward round, he expresses dissatisfaction with his pain management. He is currently taking oral morphine sulphate 20 mg four times a day, codeine 30mg four times a day, and regular ibuprofen. What is the appropriate dose of oral morphine for breakthrough pain in this patient?

      Your Answer: Morphine 15mg

      Explanation:

      To calculate the breakthrough dose, we need to first convert oral codeine to oral morphine by dividing by 10. For example, 10mg of oral codeine is equivalent to 1mg of oral morphine.

      If a person takes 30mg of oral codeine four times a day, this equals 12mg of oral morphine. If they also take 20mg of oral morphine four times a day, the total daily dose of morphine is 92mg (12mg + 80 mg).

      To determine the breakthrough dose, we divide the total daily dose of morphine by 6. In this case, the breakthrough dose would be 15mg of morphine.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old woman visits her doctor with her daughter. She was diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia two years ago and has recently moved in with her daughter for care. Lately, she has become increasingly isolated and has reported seeing animals in the house that are not actually there. She denies any other symptoms. All vital signs are normal and physical examination is unremarkable.

      What is the probable cause of her current symptoms?

      Your Answer: Psychosis

      Correct Answer: Delirium

      Explanation:

      Cognitively impaired patients can experience delirium when placed in new surroundings. Even minor changes in environment can trigger delirium in individuals with dementia, leading to visual hallucinations. While community-acquired pneumonia and urinary tract infections are common causes of delirium in the elderly, they seem unlikely in this case as there are no other clues in the history or examination. Depression is a common differential for dementia in the elderly, but the acute onset of symptoms in this woman suggests delirium. It is important to note that symptoms of depression in the elderly can be non-specific. While psychosis could explain the visual hallucinations, the absence of other symptoms and the acute onset of the condition suggest delirium.

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to hospital. It is more common in patients over the age of 65, those with a background of dementia, significant injury, frailty or multimorbidity, and those taking multiple medications. The condition is often triggered by a combination of factors, such as infection, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and underlying medical conditions.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but may include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep, and poor attention. Treatment involves identifying and addressing the underlying cause, modifying the patient’s environment, and using sedatives such as haloperidol or olanzapine. However, managing the condition can be challenging in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen Parkinsonian symptoms. In such cases, careful reduction of Parkinson medication may be helpful, and atypical antipsychotics such as quetiapine and clozapine may be preferred for urgent treatment.

      Overall, acute confusional state is a complex condition that requires careful management and individualized treatment. By addressing the underlying causes and providing appropriate sedation, healthcare professionals can help patients recover from this condition and improve their overall quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.3
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 38-year-old, overweight woman presents to the clinic with complaints of occasional abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old, overweight woman presents to the clinic with complaints of occasional abdominal pain for the past few months. She experienced a constant pain episode two days ago that started in the epigastric region and then moved to the right upper quadrant, accompanied by vomiting.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary Colic and Other Abdominal Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Biliary colic, diverticulitis, chronic pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, and coeliac disease are all conditions that can cause abdominal pain and discomfort. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and diagnostic criteria for each can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. Biliary colic, for example, is characterized by severe, constant pain in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Diverticulitis, on the other hand, typically presents with left lower quadrant pain and changes in bowel habits. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with intermittent attacks of severe pain in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, while ulcerative colitis is characterized by rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge. Coeliac disease, the most common food intolerance worldwide, can present with a range of gastrointestinal and extraintestinal symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 21-year-old female inpatient on the surgical ward developed sudden uncontrollable eye movements,...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old female inpatient on the surgical ward developed sudden uncontrollable eye movements, with prolonged involuntary upward deviation of the eyes.
      Which of the following drugs is most likely to be responsible?

      Your Answer: Procyclidine

      Correct Answer: Metoclopramide

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Dystonic Reactions: A Comparison of Common Drugs

      Metoclopramide, carbamazepine, cyclopentolate, lidocaine, and procyclidine are all drugs that can cause various side effects, including disturbances in eye movement. However, when it comes to dystonic reactions, metoclopramide and procyclidine are the most likely culprits. Metoclopramide, commonly used for nausea and vomiting, can induce acute dystonic reactions involving facial and skeletal muscle spasms and oculogyric crises. On the other hand, procyclidine, an anti-muscarinic drug, is useful in the immediate treatment of a drug-induced oculogyric crisis. Understanding the differences between these drugs and their potential side effects is crucial in providing appropriate treatment for patients experiencing dystonic reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - While on your GP placement, you hear a cry for help coming from...

    Correct

    • While on your GP placement, you hear a cry for help coming from the reception area. Rushing over, you see a young girl who appears to be around 4 years old collapsed on the floor. Upon checking, you find that there are no signs of life.
      What would be your initial course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: 5 rescue breaths

      Explanation:

      According to the latest Resuscitation Council guidelines for paediatric BLS, the correct initial action when there are no signs of breathing is to give 5 rescue breaths. This is different from the adult algorithm where chest compressions may be done first. Giving 2 rescue breaths initially is incorrect. Chest compressions are given at a ratio of 30:2 if there is only one rescuer and at a ratio of 15:2 if there are multiple rescuers, but only after the initial 5 rescue breaths have been given. It is important to remember that in children, respiratory arrest is more common than cardiac arrest.

      Paediatric Basic Life Support Guidelines

      Paediatric basic life support guidelines were updated in 2015 by the Resuscitation Council. Lay rescuers should use a compression:ventilation ratio of 30:2 for children under 1 year and between 1 year and puberty, a child is defined. If there are two or more rescuers, a ratio of 15:2 should be used.

      The algorithm for paediatric basic life support starts with checking if the child is unresponsive and shouting for help. The airway should be opened, and breathing should be checked by looking, listening, and feeling for breaths. If the child is not breathing, five rescue breaths should be given, and signs of circulation should be checked.

      For infants, the brachial or femoral pulse should be used, while children should use the femoral pulse. Chest compressions should be performed at a ratio of 15:2, with a rate of 100-120 compressions per minute for both infants and children. The depth of compressions should be at least one-third of the anterior-posterior dimension of the chest, which is approximately 4 cm for an infant and 5 cm for a child.

      In children, the lower half of the sternum should be compressed, while in infants, a two-thumb encircling technique should be used for chest compressions. These guidelines are crucial for anyone who may need to perform basic life support on a child, and it is essential to follow them carefully to ensure the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - You assess a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. Due to her...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. Due to her BMI of 33 kg/m², she underwent a routine oral glucose tolerance test which yielded the following results:
      Time (hours) Blood glucose (mmol/l)
      0 7.8
      2 10.6
      Apart from this, there have been no other complications during her pregnancy and her anomaly scan showed no abnormalities. What would be the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Advice about diet / exercise + self-monitor glucose levels

      Correct Answer: Start insulin + advice about diet / exercise + self-monitor glucose levels

      Explanation:

      The gestational diabetes guidelines of NICE have been updated, stating that insulin treatment must commence if the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l. Additionally, it is recommended to consider administering aspirin due to the heightened risk of pre-eclampsia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      55.2
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
      Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.

      During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP after a staging CT revealed the presence of gallstones in her gallbladder, following her recent diagnosis of renal cell carcinoma (RCC). She is interested in discussing the available management options. The patient reports no history of abdominal pain and is in good health otherwise. She is scheduled to undergo a left-sided nephrectomy for her RCC in three weeks. During the examination, the GP notes tenderness over the left flank, but no palpable masses. What is the appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Reassurance

      Explanation:

      If you have been diagnosed with asymptomatic gallbladder stones, there is no need to worry. These stones are often found incidentally during imaging tests that are unrelated to gallstone disease. As long as you have not experienced any symptoms for at least a year before the diagnosis and the stones are located in a normal gallbladder and biliary tree, no intervention is necessary.

      However, if you are experiencing symptoms or if the stones are located in the common bile duct, intervention is required. This can be done through surgical removal during laparoscopic cholecystectomy or through endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) before or during the surgery. Rest assured that with proper intervention, you can effectively manage your gallbladder stones and prevent any complications.

      Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      23.6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 25-year-old comes in for a check-up. Over the last 3 months, he...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old comes in for a check-up. Over the last 3 months, he has been experiencing frequent headaches. These headaches are now happening almost every day and can be quite intense. What characteristic in this patient should trigger an investigation for a secondary cause of headaches?

      Your Answer: Headache triggered by coughing

      Explanation:

      When dealing with an older patient, it is important to rule out glaucoma if they are experiencing severe unilateral eye pain. However, for a 23-year-old patient, this is not a top concern. Migraine and cluster headaches are common causes of unilateral eye pain, as well as sinusitis which can cause pain behind the eye.

      Red Flags for Headaches

      Headaches are a common complaint in clinical practice, but some symptoms may indicate a more serious underlying condition. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has identified several red flags that should prompt further investigation. These include compromised immunity, a history of malignancy, sudden-onset headache, new-onset neurological deficit, impaired level of consciousness, recent head trauma, and symptoms suggestive of giant cell arteritis or acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Other red flags include vomiting without an obvious cause, worsening headache with fever, new-onset cognitive dysfunction, change in personality, orthostatic headache, and a substantial change in the characteristics of the headache. If any of these symptoms are present, it is important to seek medical attention promptly. By identifying these red flags, healthcare providers can ensure that patients receive appropriate care and treatment for their headaches.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old female presents with hypothenar eminence wasting and sensory loss in the little finger. What is the probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Explanation:

      The Ulnar Nerve: Overview, Branches, and Patterns of Damage

      The ulnar nerve is a nerve that arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus, specifically from the C8 and T1 spinal nerves. It provides motor innervation to several muscles in the hand, including the medial two lumbricals, adductor pollicis, interossei, hypothenar muscles (abductor digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi), and flexor carpi ulnaris. It also provides sensory innervation to the medial 1 1/2 fingers on both the palmar and dorsal aspects.

      The ulnar nerve travels through the posteromedial aspect of the upper arm before entering the palm of the hand via the Guyon’s canal, which is located superficial to the flexor retinaculum and lateral to the pisiform bone. The nerve has several branches, including the muscular branch, palmar cutaneous branch, dorsal cutaneous branch, superficial branch, and deep branch. These branches supply various muscles and skin areas in the hand.

      Damage to the ulnar nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow. When damaged at the wrist, it can result in a claw hand deformity, which involves hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and flexion at the distal and proximal interphalangeal joints of the 4th and 5th digits. There may also be wasting and paralysis of intrinsic hand muscles (except lateral two lumbricals) and hypothenar muscles, as well as sensory loss to the medial 1 1/2 fingers. When damaged at the elbow, the same symptoms may occur, but with the addition of radial deviation of the wrist. It is important to note that in distal lesions, the clawing may be more severe, which is known as the ulnar paradox.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      7.5
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 12-day history of vaginal discharge. She describes the discharge as having a fishy smell and a white colour. There is no history of abdominal pain or urinary symptoms and she denies pregnancy. She is sexually active with one regular partner of three years and has the Mirena coil in situ.
      On examination, her observations are within normal limits. Her abdomen is soft and nontender. The bimanual examination is unremarkable with no adnexal tenderness elicited. Her vaginal pH is 5.
      What is the next best investigation to confirm the likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Vaginal swab for microscopy and culture

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Bacterial Vaginosis and Urinary Tract Infections

      Bacterial vaginosis is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of Gardnerella vaginalis. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is based on Amsel’s criteria, which includes thin, white-colored vaginal discharge, vaginal pH > 4.5, positive whiff test, and clue cells on microscopy. A vaginal swab for microscopy and culture is needed to confirm the diagnosis, especially if the patient meets two of the four criteria.

      On the other hand, urine microscopy and culture are used to diagnose urinary tract infections, which share some symptoms with sexually transmitted infections. However, the presence of vaginal discharge makes a sexually transmitted infection more likely, and alternative investigations are more specific.

      Blood culture and hysteroscopy and culture are not indicated in the diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis. Blood culture is not usually necessary, while hysteroscopy and biopsy are invasive procedures used to diagnose endometrial disorders.

      Lastly, nucleic acid amplification testing is used to diagnose chlamydia, the most common sexually transmitted disease. Although chlamydia may cause symptoms similar to bacterial vaginosis, the presence of increased vaginal pH makes bacterial vaginosis more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.2
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female with multiple sclerosis reports experiencing tingling in her hands when she flexes her neck. What type of symptom is this?

      Your Answer: Lhermitte's sign

      Explanation:

      Lhermitte’s sign is a well-known symptom that suggests the presence of an underlying condition in the cervical cord’s dorsal column nuclei. This sign is also observed in cases of subacute combined degeneration of the cord and cervical stenosis.

      Multiple Sclerosis: Common Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a disease that can present with various non-specific features, such as significant lethargy in around 75% of patients. Diagnosis of MS can be made based on two or more relapses and either objective clinical evidence of two or more lesions or objective clinical evidence of one lesion together with reasonable historical evidence of a previous relapse.

      MS can affect different parts of the body, leading to a range of symptoms. Visual symptoms are common, with optic neuritis being a frequent presenting feature. Other visual symptoms include optic atrophy, Uhthoff’s phenomenon (worsening of vision following a rise in body temperature), and internuclear ophthalmoplegia. Sensory symptoms may include pins and needles, numbness, trigeminal neuralgia, and Lhermitte’s syndrome (paraesthesiae in limbs on neck flexion). Motor symptoms may include spastic weakness, which is most commonly seen in the legs. Cerebellar symptoms such as ataxia and tremor may also occur.

      In addition to these symptoms, MS can also cause urinary incontinence, sexual dysfunction, and intellectual deterioration. It is important to note that not all patients with MS will experience all of these symptoms, and the severity and frequency of symptoms can vary widely between individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      25.1
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  • Question 19 - An elderly man aged 76 visits the surgery after a visit to his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man aged 76 visits the surgery after a visit to his optician who noted raised intra-ocular pressure and decreased peripheral vision. He has a medical history of asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient is referred to ophthalmology. What is the probable treatment he will receive for his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pilocarpine

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of asthma should be prescribed a prostaglandin analogue as the first-line treatment.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      124
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man reports a sudden painless loss of vision which occurred yesterday evening. He describes this as a veil dropping over his left eye. The symptoms have since resolved and his vision is currently normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Amaurosis fugax

      Explanation:

      Amaurosis fugax, or transient vision loss, is a common complaint that typically lasts from seconds to hours and may have an identifiable cause. It often presents as a grey curtain moving from the periphery towards the center of vision. Ischemic causes, such as giant cell arteritis, cerebrovascular ischemia, and retinal arteriolar emboli, are more common in patients over 45 years old. A monocular visual disturbance, as seen in this patient, is more likely to be due to a circulatory disturbance of the anterior circulation, such as the carotid artery.

      Retinal detachment is a time-critical eye emergency that presents with floaters, flashing lights, field loss, and a fall in visual acuity. Patients with high myopia are at high risk. Over time, a shadow may appear in the peripheral visual field, which, if ignored, may spread to involve the entire visual field in a matter of days.

      Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is the most common cause of irreversible vision loss in the developed world and usually manifests after age 50. The disease is often bilateral and may be asymmetrical. Peripheral visual acuity is preserved in all forms of dry AMD, but the advanced, non-exudative form is associated with severe central visual-field loss.

      Central retinal artery occlusion results in inner layer oedema and pyknosis of the ganglion cell nuclei, leading to ischaemic necrosis and opacification of the retina. The most common presenting complaint is an acute, persistent, painless loss of vision. A history of amaurosis fugax may be present.

      Central retinal vein occlusion presents with variable visual loss, retinal haemorrhages, dilated tortuous retinal veins, cotton-wool spots, macular oedema, and optic disc oedema. Visual loss can be sudden or gradual, over a period of days to weeks, and ranges from mild to severe. Photophobia, pain, and eye redness may also be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      9.8
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Patients with severe pneumonia may face various risk factors that increase their chances...

    Correct

    • Patients with severe pneumonia may face various risk factors that increase their chances of death. Which of the following factors does not contribute to this risk?

      Your Answer: Age 49 years

      Explanation:

      Understanding the CURB-65 Score for Mortality Prediction in Pneumonia

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that can lead to mortality, especially in older patients. Several factors can increase the risk of death, including elevated urea levels, low blood pressure, leukopenia, and atrial fibrillation. To predict mortality in pneumonia, healthcare professionals use the CURB-65 score, which considers five parameters: confusion, urea >7 mmol/l, respiratory rate >30/min, systolic blood pressure <90 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure <60 mmHg, and age >65 years. Each parameter scores a point, and the higher the total score, the higher the associated mortality.

      Based on the CURB-65 score, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about treatment and admission to hospital. Patients with a score of 0 or 1 can be treated at home with oral antibiotics, while those with a score of 2 should be considered for hospital admission. Patients with a score of 3 or higher should be admitted to hospital, and those with a score of 4-5 may require high dependency or intensive therapy unit admission. However, individual circumstances, such as the patient’s performance status, co-morbidities, and social situation, should also be considered when making treatment decisions.

      In summary, the CURB-65 score is a valuable tool for predicting mortality in pneumonia and guiding treatment decisions. By considering multiple factors, healthcare professionals can provide the best possible care for patients with this serious infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      68.4
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  • Question 22 - A 28-year-old woman attends the early pregnancy assessment clinic for a scan after...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman attends the early pregnancy assessment clinic for a scan after a previous ectopic pregnancy treated with salpingotomy. The scan reveals an empty uterus and adnexal fluid with a yolk sac, indicating another ectopic pregnancy. The patient expresses a preference for the least invasive management option. What would be a contraindication for expectant management in this case?

      Your Answer: Abdominal pain

      Explanation:

      Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only possible if the embryo is unruptured, less than 35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a B-hCG level of less than 1,000IU/L and is declining. However, this management option is very uncommon as most patients present with symptoms.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingotomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women with no other risk factors for infertility, while salpingotomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingotomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      25.4
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  • Question 23 - A 6-year-old girl is brought to see her GP by her mother. She...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl is brought to see her GP by her mother. She is noted to be on the 4th centile for weight. Her mother notes that for the past few months her daughter has been tired and passes greasy foul-smelling stools three times a day. Blood tests reveal mild anaemia, positive serum IgA anti-endomysial antibody (EMA-IgA) and very elevated tissue transglutaminase (tTG) levels.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most likely cause from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Coeliac disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Coeliac Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Coeliac disease (CD) is a common autoimmune disorder that affects almost 1% of individuals in developed countries. It is triggered by gluten and related prolamins present in wheat, rye, and barley, and primarily affects the small intestine, leading to flattening of the small intestinal mucosa. CD can present in various ways, including typical GI symptoms, atypical symptoms, or no symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made through serology tests for specific autoimmune markers, and treatment involves a lifelong avoidance of gluten ingestion.

      Other potential diagnoses, such as travellers’ diarrhoea, growth hormone deficiency, hypothyroidism, and severe combined immunodeficiency, have different clinical presentations and are not consistent with this patient’s symptoms. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of CD is crucial for proper management and improved quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      11.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He...

    Correct

    • You assess a teenager in clinic with a diagnosis of muscular dystrophy. He struggles to stand up, using his arms to assist him in rising from a squat. What is this maneuver called?

      Your Answer: Gower's sign

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dystrophinopathies

      Dystrophinopathies are a group of genetic disorders that are inherited in an X-linked recessive manner. These disorders are caused by mutations in the dystrophin gene located on the X chromosome at position Xp21. Dystrophin is a protein that is part of a larger membrane-associated complex in muscle cells. It plays a crucial role in connecting the muscle membrane to actin, which is a component of the muscle cytoskeleton.

      Duchenne muscular dystrophy is a severe form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a frameshift mutation in the dystrophin gene. This mutation results in the loss of one or both of the binding sites, leading to progressive proximal muscle weakness that typically begins around the age of 5 years. Other common symptoms include calf pseudohypertrophy and Gower’s sign, which is when a child uses their arms to stand up from a squatted position. Approximately 30% of patients with Duchenne muscular dystrophy also have intellectual impairment.

      In contrast, Becker muscular dystrophy is a milder form of dystrophinopathy that is caused by a non-frameshift insertion in the dystrophin gene. This mutation preserves both binding sites, resulting in a less severe form of the disorder. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 10 years, and intellectual impairment is much less common in patients with Becker muscular dystrophy.

      Overall, understanding dystrophinopathies is important for early diagnosis and management of these disorders. While there is currently no cure for dystrophinopathies, early intervention and supportive care can help improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      7.3
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  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections over the past year. An abdominal ultrasound is performed and the results indicate normal size kidneys and no abnormalities in the urinary tract. The liver, spleen, and pancreas are also normal. The right ovary and uterus appear normal, but a 4 cm simple ovarian cyst is noted on the left ovary. What would be the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Check CA125

      Correct Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 12 weeks

      Explanation:

      Consider referral if the cyst remains after 12 weeks.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department in December because, for the past three days, he has had a high fever (up to 40 °C), vomiting and night sweats. For the last four weeks, he has been lethargic and has sweated through his pyjamas almost every night. He has had several nosebleeds in this time period, which his parents attributed to dry air from the heater. He has also been complaining that his back hurts.
      On examination, his temperature is 39.5 °C, his heart rate 140 beats per minute, his blood pressure is 80/60 mmHg and his respiratory rate 20 breaths per minute. He appears acutely ill, and you notice small petechiae on his abdomen.
      Which one of the following would an examination of peripheral lymphocytes most likely show?

      Your Answer: A clonal population of immature cells with intracytoplasmic dark pink rods

      Correct Answer: A clonal population of immature cells expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)

      Explanation:

      Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is a common pediatric cancer that occurs due to the clonal expansion of immature T lymphocytes expressing terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT). This protein is involved in gene rearrangements during T-cell receptor and immunoglobulin development and is no longer expressed after maturation. Symptoms include hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy, bruising, fatigue, joint and bone pain, bleeding, and infections. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow aspirate and biopsy, and treatment involves pegaspargase, which interferes with malignant cell growth. Hairy cell leukemia is characterized by lymphocytes with thin cytoplasmic projections and is mostly seen in middle-aged men. Chronic myeloid leukemia is caused by a chromosomal translocation leading to a constitutively active tyrosine kinase, treated with imatinib. Promyelocytic leukemia is an aggressive form of acute myeloid leukemia with a clonal population of immature cells containing Auer rods. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is characterized by a clonal population of mature B cells, often seen in the elderly population and referred to as smudge cells on peripheral smear.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      32.4
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  • Question 27 - A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 2-day history of malaise, fever and night sweats. He also complains that he has recently developed increased sensitivity in his fingertips and states that every time he touches something his fingers hurt.
      His past medical history includes diabetes and end-stage chronic kidney disease, for which he receives regular haemodialysis. His parameters include a blood pressure of 130/95 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 98%, heart rate 120 bpm and a temperature of 38.2°C.
      Which of the following investigations would be needed to make a diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best investigation from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for a Patient with Suspected Infective Endocarditis

      Suspected infective endocarditis (IE) requires a thorough diagnostic workup to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential conditions. One of the major symptoms of IE is the development of Osler nodes, which are tender lumps found on the fingers and toes. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be used to evaluate a patient with suspected IE:

      Echocardiogram

      An echocardiogram is a crucial diagnostic test for IE. It is used to detect any abnormalities in the heart valves or chambers that may indicate the presence of IE. The modified Duke’s criteria, which are used to diagnose IE, include echocardiography as one of the major criteria.

      Nerve Conduction Studies

      Nerve conduction studies are used to detect any damage to the peripheral nerves. While this test may be used to evaluate conditions such as carpal tunnel syndrome or sciatica, it is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the painful sensation in the fingertips is more likely due to Osler nodes than an underlying neurological disorder.

      Chest X-ray

      A chest X-ray is not typically indicated in a patient with suspected IE. While pneumonia may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as fever and malaise, other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.

      Mantoux Test

      The Mantoux test is used to detect latent tuberculosis (TB). While TB may present with symptoms similar to those of IE, such as night sweats and fever, a Mantoux test is not typically used to diagnose IE. In this case, the lack of risk factors for TB and the presence of Osler nodes suggest a diagnosis of IE.

      Sputum Culture

      A sputum culture may be used to diagnose respiratory conditions such as pneumonia. However, in a patient without a cough, a sputum culture is less likely to confirm a diagnosis. Other symptoms such as coughing and sputum production are more indicative of pneumonia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      35.2
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  • Question 28 - An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the...

    Incorrect

    • An epidemic of diarrhoea and vomiting has broken out on one of the elderly care wards. The catering suppliers assure you that their food is unlikely to be responsible because they follow the strictest hygiene procedures. A total of 15 elderly patients on the ward have become unwell with a sudden onset of diarrhoea and vomiting. Those infected earlier have recovered with rehydration therapy after about 48 hours. Examination of faeces by electron microscopy has revealed circular virus particles with radiating spokes.
      Which virus is most likely to be responsible for this outbreak?

      Your Answer: Norovirus

      Correct Answer: Rotavirus

      Explanation:

      Common Viruses that Cause Gastroenteritis

      Gastroenteritis is a self-limiting illness caused by several viruses, including rotavirus, enteric adenovirus, small round-structured virus (SRSV), norovirus, and astrovirus. Among these, rotavirus is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in children under 5 years of age, while norovirus affects people of all ages. Rotavirus causes infant deaths worldwide, but acquired immunity develops after one episode. Norovirus is usually transmitted through contaminated food or water, while adenovirus is endemic throughout the year and commonly affects children in daycare settings. SRSV is another name for norovirus, and astrovirus is associated with contaminated food and water. Symptoms of gastroenteritis include anorexia, low-grade fever, vomiting, and watery diarrhea, but most cases do not require medication and can be managed with supportive treatment. Death from dehydration remains common in developing countries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      67.7
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  • Question 29 - A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents with symptoms of depression, difficulty sleeping, and a strong desire for sugary foods during the winter months. He reports that his symptoms are more severe in the winter than in the summer. He has no history of other mental health issues or physical problems. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Seasonal Affective Disorder from Other Depressive Disorders

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that occurs in a regular temporal pattern, typically beginning in autumn or winter and ending in spring or summer. Unlike classic major depression, SAD is characterized by symptoms of hyperphagia, hypersomnia, and weight gain. The cause of SAD is believed to be a malfunction of the light-sensitive hormone melatonin during winter. Treatment involves phototherapy, which exposes individuals to bright light for several hours a day.

      Reactive depression, on the other hand, is a subtype of major depression that occurs as a result of an external event, such as a relationship breakdown or bereavement. There is no indication of a stressful life event in the presented vignette.

      Bipolar affective disorder is characterized by distinct episodes of depression and mania, which is not evident in the vignette. Dysthymia is a persistent depression of mood that does not fully meet the criteria for a diagnosis of major depression and does not have a definite seasonal variation like SAD.

      Finally, double depression occurs when one or more episodes of major depression occur on a background of dysthymia. It is important to differentiate SAD from other depressive disorders to provide appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      14.8
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  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and a facial rash and is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with lethargy, arthralgia and a facial rash and is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. Her rheumatologist initiates treatment with hydroxychloroquine. What is the most crucial parameter to monitor during her treatment?

      Your Answer: Visual acuity

      Explanation:

      The use of hydroxychloroquine can lead to a serious and irreversible retinopathy.

      Hydroxychloroquine: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Hydroxychloroquine is a medication commonly used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis and systemic/discoid lupus erythematosus. It is similar to chloroquine, which is used to treat certain types of malaria. However, hydroxychloroquine has been found to cause bull’s eye retinopathy, which can result in severe and permanent visual loss. Recent data suggests that this adverse effect is more common than previously thought, and the most recent guidelines recommend baseline ophthalmological examination and annual screening, including colour retinal photography and spectral domain optical coherence tomography scanning of the macula. Despite this risk, hydroxychloroquine may still be used in pregnant women if needed. Patients taking this medication should be asked about visual symptoms and have their visual acuity monitored annually using a standard reading chart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (4/5) 80%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Ophthalmology (2/3) 67%
Infectious Diseases (1/3) 33%
Haematology/Oncology (1/2) 50%
Neurology (4/5) 80%
Reproductive Medicine (1/2) 50%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Passmed