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Question 1
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A 29-year-old primigravida presented with vaginal bleeding at 16 weeks of gestation. She is Rh-negative, and her baby is Rh-positive. Speculum examination shows a dilated cervix with visible products of conception. Pelvic ultrasound confirmed the diagnosis of spontaneous abortion. In this case, what will you do regarding Anti-D administration?
Your Answer: Give anti-D now
Explanation:As the mother is found to be rhesus negative while her baby being rhesus positive, the given case is clinically diagnosed as spontaneous abortion due to Rh incompatibility. The mother should be administered anti-D for prophylaxis for avoiding future complications.
Rhesus (Rh) negative women who deliver a Rh-positive baby or who comes in contact with Rh positive red blood cells are at high risk for developing anti-Rh antibodies. The Rh positive fetuses
eonates of such mothers are at high risk of developing hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn, which can be lethal or associated with serious morbidity.
In such situations both spontaneous and threatened abortion after 12 weeks of gestation, are indications to use anti-D in such situations.All the other options are incorrect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 2
Correct
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A 33-year-old primigravida at 33 weeks of gestation comes to the emergency department complaining of having headache for the past two week. On examination her blood pressure is 148/100 and heart rate is 90/min.There is swelling over both her ankles, hands and eyes. The rest of the examination is normal. CTG tracing is reassuring and urine dipstick showed proteinuria. Which of the following is considered as the best next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Observation,steroids and antihypertensives
Explanation:Patient in the given case has developed clinical features of mild preeclampsia presented as hypertension, ankle and facial oedema along with proteinuria.
As the fetal lungs are not yet matured, best management in this case would be observing the patient frequently, starting her on steroids and antihypertensive drugs like methyldopa, or labetalol. 31 to 34 weeks of gestation is the optimal gestational age for starting dexamethasone therapy which will help in controlling blood pressure, helps in the maturation of lungs and will also gives time to organise delivery when the lungs are matured.
Immediate C-section is not required at this stage of pregnancy, however a plan for cesarean section must be made to carry it out if the patient develops eclampsia during her stay in the hospital. Immediate vaginal delivery is also not indicated as the pregnancy is far from term. Induced labour will result in fetal demise soon after birth due to the fetal lung immaturity, but immediate delivery has to be considered once the fetal lung attains maturity.
Magnesium Sulphate is indicated only in women with severe pre-eclampsia and even in such cases primary importance is given to blood pressure controlling. Magnesium sulphate is not indicated on this case as the patient is in mild eclampsia.
Even though Paracetamol and deep vein thrombosis prophylaxis are indicated in this case, anticoagulants should be avoided considering the emergency need for surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman developed nausea and vomiting since 5th week of gestation, her symptoms started getting worsening over the last two weeks. On examination, she presents with signs of moderate degree of dehydration, along with a weight loss of approximately 10%. Urine dipstick examination is negative for both leukocytes and nitrites but is positive for ketones. Serum ketone level is elevated and other electrolytes including blood glucose levels are within normal range. Which of the below mentioned treatment options is not appropriate in this situation?
Your Answer: IV fluid resuscitation with Ringer’s lactate
Correct Answer: Encourage oral intake and discharge home
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed severe nausea and vomiting at the initial weeks of pregnancy. If the following clinical features are present, it confirms the diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum:
– Weight loss of more than 5% of pre-pregnancy weight
– Moderate to severe dehydration.
– Ketosis
– Electrolyte abnormalities.Management of hyperemesis gravidarum include:
– Temporary suspension of oral intake, followed by gradual resumption.
– Intravenous fluid resuscitation, beginning with 2 L of Ringer’s lactate infused over 3 hours to maintain a urine output of more than 100 mL/h.
– Use of Antiemetics like metoclopramide, if needed.
– Oral administration of Vitamin B6.
– Replacement of electrolytes if required in the case.Encouraging oral intake and sending this patient home without any intravenous hydration, is not considered the correct treatment option in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago. Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid. Further examination was done and her results were: Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, Pulse is 112/min. Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?
Your Answer: Fetal blood loss
Explanation:Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
– baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
– baseline FHR variability moderate
– accelerations present or absent
– late or variable decelerations absent
– early decelerations present or absentThe onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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A pregnant woman who is a heavy smoker, observed some thick white patches on the inside of her mouth. Her oral cavity appears inflamed on examination. Which diagnosis is most likely correct?
Your Answer: Candidiasis
Explanation:During pregnancy, the chances for a woman to develop oral candidiasis double. An aphthous ulcer has a yellowish floor which is surrounded by an erythematous halo while in lichen planus, the lesions do not have the appearance of a thick white mark but are more or less lace-like. The lesions in leucoplakia have raised edges and they appear as bright white patches which are sharply defined and cannot be rubbed out. Smoking may affect the tongue, producing tongue coating. In this case the tongue is just inflamed which is a sign of infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 6
Incorrect
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Regarding threatened abortion:
Your Answer: Anti-D should be given to Rh- positive mother
Correct Answer: Ultrasound should be done to confirm the diagnosis
Explanation:Patients with a threatened abortion should be managed expectantly until their symptoms resolve. Patients should be monitored for progression to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete abortion. Analgesia will help relieve pain from cramping. Bed rest has not been shown to improve outcomes but commonly is recommended. Physical activity precautions and abstinence from sexual intercourse are also commonly advised. Repeat pelvic ultrasound weekly until a viable pregnancy is confirmed or excluded. A miscarriage cannot be avoided or prevented, and the patients should be educated as such. Intercourse and tampons should be avoided to decrease the chance of infection. A warning should be given to the patient to return to the emergency department if there is heavy bleeding or if the patient is experiencing light-headedness or dizziness. Heavy bleeding is defined as more than one pad per hour for six hours. The patient should also be given instructions to return if they experience increased pain or fever. All patients with vaginal bleeding who are Rh-negative should be treated with Rhogam. Because the total fetal blood volume in less than 4.2 mL at 12 weeks, the likelihood of fetal blood mixture is small in the first trimester. A smaller RhoGAM dose can be considered in the first trimester. A dose of 50 micrograms to 150 micrograms has been recommended. A full dose can also be used. Rhogam should ideally be administered before discharge. However, it can also be administered by the patient’s obstetrician within 72 hours if the vaginal bleeding has been present for several days or weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Antenatal booking investigations include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Your Answer: Toxoplasmosis
Correct Answer: Thyroid function
Explanation:These are the six routine blood tests that every mum-to-be has to undergo around week 7 of pregnancy: Full Blood Count, Blood Typing, Hepatitis B Screening, Syphilis Screening, HIV Screening and Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Correct
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A low APGAR score at one minute:
Your Answer: Indicates the need for immediate resuscitation
Explanation:The treatment of asphyxia starts with the correct perinatal management of high-risk pregnancies. The management of the hypoxic-ischemic new-borns in the delivery room is the second fundamental step of the treatment. Low Apgar scores and need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation at birth are common but nonspecific findings. Most new-borns respond rapidly to resuscitation and make a full recovery. The outcomes for new-borns who do not respond to resuscitation by 10 minutes of age are very poor, with a very low probability of surviving without severe disability. Resuscitation in room air is advised for term new-borns, since the use of 100% oxygen is associated with worse outcomes compared to the use of room air.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to contractions and spontaneous rupture of membranes.Patient underwent a cesarean delivery with her first child due to breech presentation, but this pregnancy has been uncomplicated.She has no chronic medical conditions and is taking only a prenatal vitamin. Her pre-pregnancy BMI was 20 kg/m2 and she has gained 15.9 kg (35 lb) during pregnancy. On examination her blood pressure is found to be 130/80 mm Hg. The patient is admitted and epidural anesthesia is administered with an intrauterine pressure catheter in place.She quickly dilates to 10 cm with the fetal vertex at 0 station, occiput transverse. Four hours later, the pelvic examination is unchanged but there is molding and caput on the fetal head. Fetal monitoring is category I. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and the patient pushes with each contraction. The contraction strength is an average of 210 MVU every 10 minutes. Which among the following is most likely the etiology for this patient’s clinical presentation?
Your Answer: Fetal malposition
Explanation:Condition where there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours in nulliparous and ≥2 hours if multiparous women is defined as Second stage arrest of labor. Common risk factors for this presentation are maternal obesity, excessive weight gain during pregnancy and diabetes mellitus. Cephalopelvic disproportion, malposition, inadequate contractions and maternal exhaustion are the common etiologies of Second stage arrest of labor. Management includes Operative vaginal delivery or cesarean delivery as indicated in the case.
The second stage of labor begins with the dilatation of cervix to 10 cm and will end with fetal delivery. Parity and use of neuraxial anesthesia are the two factors which will affect the duration of second stage of labor and fetal station, which measures the descent of the fetal head through the pelvis determines its progression.
When there is no fetal descent after pushing for ≥3 hours or ≥2 hours in in nulliparous and multiparous patients respectively the condition is called an arrested second stage of labor. As her first delivery was a cesarean session due to breech presentation, this patient in the case is considered as nulliparous.
Most common cause of a protracted or arrested second stage is fetal malposition, which is the relation between the fetal presenting part to the maternal pelvis. Occiput anterior is the optimal fetal position as it facilitates the cardinal movements of labor, any deviations from this position like in occiput transverse position, can lead to cephalopelvic disproportion resulting in second stage arrest.
Inadequate contractions, that is less than 200 MVU averaged over 10 minutes, can lead to labor arrest but contractions are adequate in case of the patient mentioned.
Second stage arrest can be due to maternal obesity and excessive weight gain during pregnancy but this patient had a normal pre-pregnancy BMI of 20 kg/m2 and an appropriate weight gain of 15.9 kg 35 lb. So this also cannot be the reason.Maternal expulsive efforts will change the fetal skull shape. This process called as molding helps to facilitate delivery by changing the fetal head into the shape of the pelvis. Whereas prolonged pressure on head can result in scalp edema which is called as caput, presence of both molding and caput suggest cephalopelvic disproportion, but is not suggestive of poor maternal effort.
Patients with a prior history of uterine myomectomy or cesarean delivery are at higher risk for uterine rupture. In cases of uterine rupture, the patient will present with fetal heart rate abnormalities, sudden loss of fetal station (eg, going from +1 to −3 station) along with fetal retreat upward and into the abdominal cavity through the uterine scar due to decreased intrauterine pressure. In the given case patient’s fetal heart rate tracing is category 1 and fetal station has remained 0 which are non suggestive of uterine rupture.
When there is insufficient fetal descent after pushing ≥3 hours in nulliparous patients or ≥2 hours in multiparous patients is considered as second stage arrest of labor. The most common cause of second stage arrest is cephalopelvic disproportion, were the fetus presents in a nonocciput anterior position called as fetal malposition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 10
Correct
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A 26-year-old female G2P1 is in labour at the 38th week of gestation. Her membranes ruptured about 8 hours ago. At the moment, she is having contractions lasting 60 seconds every 4 minutes and is 8 cm dilated. The fetal heart tone baseline is currently 80/min with absent variability. The pregnancy was uneventful and she had regular prenatal check-ups. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Maternal position change and oxygen
Explanation:This patient is towards the end of the first stage of labour and is having complications. Labour is divided into 3 stages. The first stage begins at regular uterine contractions and ends with complete cervical dilatation at 10 cm. It has a latent phase and an active phase- The active phase is usually considered to have begun when cervical dilatation reaches 4 cm. So this patient is in the active phase of the first stag- The second stage begins with complete cervical dilatation and ends with the delivery of the foetus. The third stage of labour is the period between the delivery of the foetus and the delivery of the placenta and fetal membranes.
This patient’s contractions seem adequate and yet the fetal heart tone with baseline 80/min and absent variability suggests fetal distress. This is category III of the fetal heart rate pattern because the baseline rate is < 110/min with absent variability. It is usually predictive of abnormal acid-base status. The recommended actions are maternal position change and oxygen administration, discontinuation of labour stimulus such as oxytocin, treatment of possible underlying conditions, and expedited delivery.
→ Magnesium sulphate infusion is mainly used to prevent eclamptic seizures and despite no evidence of its effectiveness as a tocolytic agent, it is used sometimes to reduce risks of preterm birth.
→ Fetal scalp pH monitoring would help determine if there is indeed an acidosis and should be done before deciding whether a Caesarean section is necessary, but maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Ultrasonography may be used for preinduction cervical length measurement or if the active stage has already started- It is considered more accurate than digital pelvic exam in the assessment of fetal descent; however, at this point maternal position change and oxygen administration should be done first.
→ Immediate Caesarean section would be done if fetal scalp pH monitoring revealed a pH < 7.20. At this point, the best next step is maternal position change and oxygen administration. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 11
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman (gravida 3, para 2) is admitted to hospital at 33 weeks of gestation for an antepartum haemorrhage of 300mL. The bleeding has now stopped. She had a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear done five years ago which was normal. Vital signs are as follows: Pulse: 76 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg, Temperature: 36.8°C, Fetal heart rate: 144/min. On physical exam, the uterus is lax and nontender. The fundal height is 34 cm above the pubic symphysis and the presenting part is high and mobile. Other than fetal monitoring with a cardiotocograph (CTG), which one of the following should be the immediate next step?
Your Answer: Ultrasound examination of the uterus.
Explanation:This is a case of a pregnant patient having vaginal bleeding. Given the patient’s presentation, the most likely cause of this patient’s antepartum haemorrhage is placenta praevia. The haemorrhage is unlikely to be due to a vasa praevia because a loss of 300mL would usually cause fetal distress or death, neither of which has occurred. Cervical malignancy is also unlikely as it typically would not have bleeding of this magnitude. A possible diagnosis would be a small placental abruption as it would fit with the lack of uterine tenderness and normal uterine size.
For the immediate management of this patient, induction of labour is contraindicated before the placental site has been confirmed. Also, induction should not be performed when the gestation is only at 33 weeks, especially after an episode of a small antepartum haemorrhage. An ultrasound examination of the uterus is appropriate as it would define whether a placenta praevia is present and its grade. It would also show whether there is any evidence of an intrauterine clot associated with placental abruption from a normally situated placenta.
If a placenta praevia is diagnosed by ultrasound, a pelvic examination under anaesthesia may be a part of the subsequent care, if it is felt that vaginal delivery might be possible. Usually it would be possible if the placenta praevia is grade 1 or grade 2 anterior in type. However, pelvic exam at this stage is certainly not the next step in care, and is rarely used in current clinical care.
A Papanicolaou (Pap) smear will be necessary at some time in the near future, but would not be helpful in the care of this patient currently.
Immediate Caesarean section is not needed as the bleeding has stopped, the foetus is not in distress, and the gestation is only 33 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 12
Correct
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A 28-year -old lady in her 13th week of gestation comes to your clinic with a recent history of, four days ago, contact with a child suffering from parvovirus infection. She is concerned whether her baby might be affected. A serum analysis for lgM and lgG antibody for parvovirus came back as negative. Which among the following would be the most appropriate next step of management in this case?
Your Answer: Repeat serologic tests in two weeks
Explanation:Parvovirus B19 is a single-stranded DNA virus, which is the causative organism for erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped cheek syndrome.
Maternal infection with parvovirus B19 is almost always associated with an increased risk of transplacental fetal infection throughout the pregnancy. Fetal infection results in fetal parvovirus syndrome, which is characterized by anemia hydrops with cardiac failure and possibly death.
The earlier the exposure occurs, it is more likely to result in fetal parvovirus syndrome and stillbirth is the common outcome in case of third trimester infection.Women who have been exposed to parvovirus in early pregnancy should be informed on the possible risk of fetal infection and also should be screened for parvovirus B19 specific lgG.
– If parvovirus specific lgG is positive reassure that pregnancy is not at risk
– If parvovirus specific lgG is negative, serology for lgM should be performed
After infection with parvovirus, patient’s lgM is expected to become positive within 1 to 3 weeks and it will remain high for about 8-12 weeks. lgG levels will start to rise within 2 to 4 weeks after the infection.This woman has a negative lgG titer which indicates that she is not immune to the infection. Although her lgM titer is negative now, this does not exclude the chance of infection as it takes approximately 1 to 3 weeks after infection for lgM to become positive, and will then remain high for 8 to 12 weeks. In such cases, it is recommended the serologic tests be repeated in 2 weeks when the lgM may become positive while lgG starts to rise.
– Positive lgM titers confirm maternal parvovirus infection. If that is the case, the next step would be fetal monitoring with ultrasound for development of hydrops at 1-2 weeks intervals for the next 6-12 weeks(needs referral). Once the fetus is found to have hydrops, fetal umbilical cord sampling and intrauterine blood transfusion are considered the treatment options.
– Positive lgG and negative lgM indicates maternal immunity to parvovirus.Interpretation of serologic tests results and the further actions recommended are as follows:
If both IgM and IgG are negative, it means mother is not immune to parvovirus B19 infection, and an infection is possible. Further action will be Repetition of serological tests in 2 weeks.
If IgM is positive and IgG is negative, it means the infection is established. Fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks must be done.
If both IgM and IgG are positive, it means infection is established, and an infection is possible. Further action will be fetal monitoring with ultrasound at 1- to 2-week intervals for the next 6- 12 weeks.
If IgM is negative and IgG is positive, it means the mother is immune to parvovirus infection. In this case it is important to reassure the mother that the baby is safe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 13
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis of iliofemoral veins. Which of the following is considered the best management for the patient's condition?
Your Answer: Therapeutic dose of low molecular weight heparin for 6 months
Explanation:Deep venous thrombosis (DVT) during pregnancy is associated with high mortality, morbidity, and costs. Pulmonary embolism (PE), its most feared complication, is the leading cause of maternal death in the developed world. DVT can also result in long-term complications that include post thrombotic syndrome (PTS) adding to its morbidity. Women are up to 5 times more likely to develop DVT when pregnant. The current standard of care for this condition is anticoagulation.
Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is the preferred agent for prophylaxis and treatment of DVT during pregnancy. A disadvantage of LMWH over unfractionated heparin (UFH) is its longer half-life, which may be a problem at the time of delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with severe nausea and vomiting at 8 weeks of being pregnant. She is unable to take solid food but is capable of drinking small sips of liquids. She is concerned that she might have gastroenteritis because her partner was noted to have recently been diagnosed with it. Which of the following is considered the next best step to investigate given the situation?
Your Answer: Abdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:Hyperemesis gravidarum refers to intractable vomiting during pregnancy, leading to weight loss and volume depletion, resulting in ketonuria and/or ketonemia.
The exact cause of hyperemesis gravidarum remains unclear. However, there are several theories for what may contribute to the development of this disease process such as:
1. Hormone changes – hCG levels peak during the first trimester, corresponding to the typical onset of hyperemesis symptoms. Estrogen is also thought to contribute to nausea and vomiting in pregnancy.
2. Changes in the Gastrointestinal System – the lower oesophageal sphincter relaxes during pregnancy due to the elevations in estrogen and progesterone. This leads to an increased incidence of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) symptoms in pregnancy, and one symptom of GERD is nausea.
3. Genetics – an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum has been demonstrated among women with family members who also experienced hyperemesis gravidarum.The average onset of symptoms happens approximately 5 to 6 weeks into gestation. The physical exam should include fetal heart rate (depending on gestational age) and an examination of fluid status, including an examination of blood pressure, heart rate, mucous membrane dryness, capillary refill, and skin turgor. A patient weight should be obtained for comparison to previous and future weights. If indicated, abdominal examination and pelvic examination should occur to determine the presence or absence of tenderness to palpation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 15
Correct
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A chronic alcoholic lady presented to the medical clinic with complaints of an increase in abdominal size. Ultrasound was performed and revealed a foetus in which parameters correspond to 32 weeks of gestation. Upon history taking, it was noted that she works in a pub and occasionally takes marijuana, cocaine, amphetamine and opioid. Which of the following is considered to have the most teratogenic effect to the foetus?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:All of the conditions that comprise fetal alcohol spectrum disorders stem from one common cause, which is prenatal exposure to alcohol. Alcohol is extremely teratogenic to a foetus. Its effects are wide-ranging and irreversible. Although higher amounts of prenatal alcohol exposure have been linked to increased incidence and severity of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders, there are no studies that demonstrate a safe amount of alcohol that can be consumed during pregnancy. There is also no safe time during pregnancy in which alcohol can be consumed without risk to the foetus. Alcohol is teratogenic during all three trimesters. In summary, any amount of alcohol consumed at any point during pregnancy has the potential cause of irreversible damage that can lead to a fetal alcohol spectrum disorder.
In general, diagnoses within fetal alcohol spectrum disorders have one or more of the following features: abnormal facies, central nervous system abnormalities, and growth retardation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with a history of vaginal bleeding after intercourse. Pain is absent and upon examination, the following are found: abdomen soft and relaxed, uterus size is equal to dates and CTG reactive. What is the single most possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage
Correct Answer: Placenta previa
Explanation:Placenta previa typically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding usually in the second to third trimester. Although it’s a condition that sometimes resolves by itself, bleeding may result in serious complications for the mother and the baby and so it should be managed as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman at her 18th week of pregnancy presented to the emergency department with complaints of fishy, thin, white homogeneous vaginal discharge accompanied with an offensive odour. The presence of clue cells was noted during a microscopic test on the discharge. All of the following statements are considered false regarding her condition, except:
Your Answer: Reassurance
Correct Answer: Relapse rate > 50 percent within 3 months
Explanation:Bacterial vaginosis (BV) affects women of reproductive age and can either be symptomatic or asymptomatic. Bacterial vaginosis is a condition caused by an overgrowth of normal vaginal flora. Most commonly, this presents clinically with increased vaginal discharge that has a fish-like odour. The discharge itself is typically thin and either grey or white.
Although bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection, women have an increased risk of acquiring other sexually transmitted infections (STI), and pregnant women have an increased risk of early delivery.
Though effective treatment options do exist, metronidazole or clindamycin, these methods have proven not to be effective long term.
BV recurrence rates are high, approximately 80% three months after effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 18
Correct
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A 41-year-old woman (gravida 2, para 1) presents at eight weeks gestation for her first antenatal visit. This is her second pregnancy. She is worried about Down syndrome risk in her foetus. From the following options listed, select the safest test (i.e., the one with least risk of causing adverse consequences in the pregnancy) that will provide an accurate diagnosis regarding the presence or absence of Trisomy 21 in the foetus.
Your Answer: Amniocentesis at 16 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:Nuchal translucency scans and maternal screening tests simply aid in determining a risk percentage for the presence of Trisomy 21, but an accurate diagnosis cannot be reached.
Chorionic villous biopsy (CVB), amniocentesis, and cordocentesis, are all prenatal diagnostic tests that can provide a definitive diagnosis regarding the presence of foetal abnormalities.
Amniocentesis performed at 16 weeks of gestation is associated with the lowest risk for miscarriage and hence is the safest test and should be recommended to the mother (correct answer).
The miscarriage risk from a CVB is at least double the risk following amniocentesis.
Nowadays, cordocentesis is rarely used for sampling of foetal material to detect chromosomal abnormalities as the test poses an even higher risk of miscarriage compared to the other procedures discussed above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 19
Correct
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In her first pregnancy, a 27-year-old lady suffered a fever and malaise around 10 weeks of pregnancy. She had come into touch with a youngster who had been diagnosed with rubella two weeks prior. Which of the following would be the best next step in your management career?
Your Answer: Serial blood samples for rubella antibody assessment.
Explanation:If the patient already has immunity (IgG positive) and if maternal rubella infection is the cause of the current symptoms (initial lgG and IgM negative, but IgM positive on a second sample 2-3 weeks later), amniocentesis may be required to confirm fetal infection.
Ultrasound may reveal growth limitation in late pregnancy, but a fetal congenital defect is rare when the infection begins at 10 weeks of pregnancy, and ultrasound testing at 12 weeks of pregnancy is unlikely to detect abnormalities, while it may discover one from 18-20 weeks. Given the well-known deleterious fetal effects of rubella infection in early pregnancy, gamma-globulin is unlikely to be beneficial at this point in the infective process, and pregnancy termination would certainly be considered by some individuals.
On the basis of prenatal rubella infection, this would not be recommended unless the infection was shown to have occurred. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old pregnant woman in her third trimester, was admitted with headache, abdominal pain and visual disturbances. Shortly after, she had a fit. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: 4mg MgSO4 IV as a bolus
Correct Answer: 4g MgSO4 in 100ml 0.9% Normal saline in 5 min.
Explanation:The woman is most probably suffering from eclampsia.
Magnesium sulphate (MgSO4) is the agent most commonly used for treatment of eclampsia and prophylaxis of eclampsia in patients with severe pre-eclampsia. It is usually given by either intramuscular or intravenous routes. The intramuscular regimen is most commonly a 4 g intravenous loading dose, immediately followed by 10 g intramuscularly and then by 5 g intramuscularly every 4 hours. The intravenous regimen is given as a 4 g dose, followed by a maintenance infusion of 1 to 2 g/h by controlled infusion pump. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Correct
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A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, presented to the emergency department complaining of left breast pain six weeks after a spontaneous, uncomplicated term vaginal delivery. She reported having noticed the pain and redness on her left breast a week ago. From her unaffected breast, she continued to breastfeed her infant. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has no chronic medical conditions and for medication, she only takes a daily multivitamin. Her temperature was taken and the result was 38.3 deg C (101 deg F). Further observation was done and the presence of an erythematous area surrounding a well-circumscribed, 4-cm area of fluctuance extending from the areola to the lateral edge of the left breast was noted. There was also the presence of axillary lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the next step to best manage the condition of the patient?
Your Answer: Needle aspiration and antibiotics
Explanation:Breast infections can be associated with superficial skin or an underlying lesion. Breast abscesses are more common in lactating women but do occur in nonlactating women as well.
The breast contains breast lobules, each of which drains to a lactiferous duct, which in turn empties to the surface of the nipple. There are lactiferous sinuses which are reservoirs for milk during lactation. The lactiferous ducts undergo epidermalization where keratin production may cause the duct to become obstructed, and in turn, can result in abscess formation. Abscesses associated with lactation usually begin with abrasion or tissue at the nipple, providing an entry point for bacteria. The infection often presents in the second postpartum week and is often precipitated in the presence of milk stasis. The most common organism known to cause a breast abscess is S. aureus, but in some cases, Streptococci, and Staphylococcus epidermidis may also be involved.
The patient will usually provide a history of breast pain, erythema, warmth, and possibly oedema. Patients may provide lactation history. It is important to ask about any history of prior breast infections and the previous treatment. Patients may also complain of fever, nausea, vomiting, purulent drainage from the nipple, or the site of erythema. It is also important to ask about the patient’s medical history, including diabetes. The majority of postpartum mastitis are seen within 6 weeks of while breast-feeding
The patient will have erythema, induration, warmth, and tenderness to palpation at the site in question on the exam. It may feel like there is a palpable mass or area of fluctuance. There may be purulent discharge at the nipple or site of fluctuance. The patient may also have reactive axillary adenopathy. The patient may have a fever or tachycardia on the exam, although these are less common.
Incision and drainage are the standard of care for breast abscesses. If the patient is seen in a primary care setting by a provider that is not comfortable in performing these procedures, the patient may be started on antibiotics and referred to a general surgeon for definitive treatment. Needle aspiration may be attempted for abscesses smaller than 3 cm or in lactational abscesses. A course of antibiotics may be given before or following drainage of breast abscesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman G1P0 at 14 weeks of gestation came to you with presentation of chicken pox rashes which started 2 days ago. Varicella IgM came back positive with negative IgG. What is the most appropriate management in this patient?
Your Answer: Antiviral therapy
Correct Answer: Do nothing and arranged a detailed fetal ultrasound 5 weeks later
Explanation:Varicella or chickenpox, is a highly contagious disease caused by primary infection with varicella-zoster virus (VZV) which can result in maternal mortality or serious morbidity. The virus which remains dormant in the sensory nerve root ganglia following a primary infection can get reactivated to cause a vesicular erythematous skin rash along the dermatomal distribution known as herpes zoster, ‘zoster’ or ‘shingles’. Though rare the risk of acquiring infection from an immunocompetent individual with herpes zoster in non-exposed sites like thoracolumbar regions can also occur. As the viral shedding will be greater, a disseminated zoster or exposed zoster (e.g. ophthalmic) in an individual or localised zoster in an immunosuppressed patient should be considered very infectious.
In industrialised countries, over 85 % of women in childbearing age are immune to varicella zoster virus (VZV), however, women from tropical and subtropical areas are more susceptible to chickenpox in pregnancy as they are more likely to be seronegative for VZV IgG. Up to 10% cases of VZV in pregnancy are complicated with Varicella pneumonia, whereas perinatal varicella/ chickenpox carries a 20 to 30 % risk of transmitting infection to the neonate. Studies on maternal varicella infection from 12-28 weeks gestation suggests a 1.4% risk of fetal varicella syndrome (FVS) whose subsequent abnormalities include:
– Skin scarring (78%)
– Eye abnormalities (60%)
– Limb abnormalities (68%)
– Prematurity and low birthweight (50%)
– Cortical atrophy, intellectual disability (46%)
– Poor sphincter control (32%)
– Early death (29%)In the case mentioned above, patient had developed chickenpox rashes in her 2nd trimester and presented to you at day 2 of illness. Her varicella IgM came back positive along with a negative IgG indicating that she is not being immunized and that she is currently having active varicella infection. The best management in this case will be to reassured and allowed patient to be monitored at home. As there is no underlying lung disease, she is not immunocompromised and she is a non-smoker, so antiviral therapy is not required.
Generally, for pregnant women with chickenpox if they present within 24 hours of onset of rash and are in 20+0 weeks of gestation or beyond oral aciclovir should be prescribed. However, the use of acyclovir before 20+0 weeks should be considered carefully as Aciclovir is rated category B3 (Pregnancy and Breastfeeding, eTG, January 2003, ISSN 1447-1868) and should only be prescribed if its potential benefits outweigh the potential risks caused to the fetus, with informed consent in pregnant women who present within 24 hours of onset of varicella rash. If the patient is immunocompromised or if there are respiratory symptoms, a haemorrhagic rash or persistent fever for more than six days it is advisable to use intravenous acyclovir. On the other hand, to prevent secondary bacterial infection of the lesions, symptomatic treatment and hygiene should also be advised and unless there is significant superimposed bacterial infection antibiotics are not required.
If the pregnant woman has had a significant exposure to chickenpox or shingles, and is not immune to VZV , she should be offered VZIG as soon as possible or at the very latest within 10 days of the exposure. However, since Varicella zoster immunoglobulins (VZIG) has no therapeutic benefit in already developed cases of chickenpox, it should not be given to the context patient who have already developed active rashes of chickenpox with serology showing positive IgM positive and negative IgG indicating primary infection.
At least five weeks after primary infection a detailed fetal ultrasound must be done checking for any anomalies and ultrasounds should be repeated until delivery; and consider a fetal MRI if any abnormalities are found. In cases were if ultrasound is found to be normal, VZV fetal serology and amniocentesis are not useful and is not routinely advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 23
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman at 33 weeks of gestation presents with vaginal bleeding. A pelvic ultrasound was done, which confirms the diagnosis of placenta praevia and you are planning a cesarean section as it is the most appropriate mode of delivery. Which among the following is considered a possible outcome of cesarean section delivery?
Your Answer: Increase risk of adhesions
Explanation:Obstetric complications during or following a cesarean section delivery include:
-Increased risk of maternal mortality.
-Increased need for cesarean sections in the subsequent pregnancies.
-Increased risk for damage to adjacent visceral organs especially bowels and bladder.
-Increased risk of infections.Increased risk for formation of adhesions is a complication after cesarean section and this is the correct response for the given question.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 24
Correct
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A 40-year-old woman who is at 34 weeks of pregnancy presented to the medical clinic for advice since her other two children were diagnosed with whooping cough just 8 weeks ago, she is worried for her newborn about the risk of developing whooping cough. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate advice to give to the patient?
Your Answer: Give Pertussis vaccine booster DPTa now
Explanation:To help protect babies during this time when they are most vulnerable, women should get the tetanus toxoid, reduced diphtheria toxoid, and acellular pertussis vaccine (Tdap) during each pregnancy.
Pregnant women should receive Tdap anytime during pregnancy if it is indicated for wound care or during a community pertussis outbreak.
If Tdap is administered earlier in pregnancy, it should not be repeated between 27 and 36 weeks gestation; only one dose is recommended during each pregnancy.Optimal timing is between 27 and 36 weeks gestation (preferably during the earlier part of this period) to maximize the maternal antibody response and passive antibody transfer to the infant.
Fewer babies will be hospitalized for and die from pertussis when Tdap is given during pregnancy rather than during the postpartum period. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman at 36 weeks of gestation in her first pregnancy presents for headache and right upper quadrant abdominal pain for three days. The pregnancy has been normal and unremarkable until now. Her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg and urinalysis shows protein ++. On physical exam, her ankles are slightly swollen. There is slight tenderness to palpation under the right costal margin. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia.
Explanation:There are a few differential diagnoses to think of in a patient that presents such as this one. Pre-eclampsia, cholecystitis, and fatty liver could all cause pain and tenderness, but cholecystitis would not normally cause the hypertension and proteinuria seen in this patient and neither would acute fatty liver of pregnancy. The more likely explanation is pre-eclampsia which must always be considered in the presence of these symptoms and signs. This process is particularly severe in the presence of pain and tenderness under the right costal margin due to liver capsule distension.
Chronic renal disease could cause the hypertension and mild proteinuria seen, but it would not usually produce the pain and tenderness that this patient has unless it was complicated by severe pre-eclampsia.
Biliary cholestasis does not usually produce pain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Correct
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Which of the following is the most likely anaesthetic or analgesic causing reduced variability on cardiotocograph?
Your Answer: Intramuscular pethidine
Explanation:Opiates and spinal anaesthetics reduce the variability of a CTG. Including some antihypertensives like labetalol and alpha methyl dopa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old gravida 3 para 1 is admitted to the hospital at 29 weeks gestation with a high fever, flank pain, and an abnormal urinalysis. You order blood and urine cultures, a CBC, electrolyte levels, and a serum creatinine level. You also start her on intravenous fluids andintravenous cefazolin. After 24 hours of antibiotic treatment she is clinically improved but continues to have fever spikes. What would be the most appropriate management at this time?
Your Answer: Change her antibiotics, as her infection is likely due to a resistant organism
Correct Answer: Continue current management
Explanation:Pyelonephritis is the most common serious medical problem that complicates pregnancy. Infection is more common after midpregnancy, and is usually caused by bacteria ascending from the lower tract. Escheria coli is the offending bacteria in approximately 75% of cases. About 15% of women with acute pyelonephritis are bacteraemia- A common finding is thermoregulatory instability, with very high spiking fevers sometimes followed by hypothermia- Almost 95% of women will be afebrile by 72 hours. However, it is common to see continued fever spikes up until that time- Thus, further evaluation is not indicated unless clinical improvement at 48-71 hours is lacking. If this is the case, the patient should be evaluated for urinary tract obstruction, urinary calculi and an intrarenal or perinephric abscess. Ultrasonography, plain radiography, and modified intravenous pyelography are all acceptable methods, depending on the clinical setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 27-year-old pregnant elementary school teacher presented to the medical clinic because she found out that one of her students has been recently diagnosed with rubella, but the diagnosis was not confirmed by serologic tests. Upon interview, it was noted that her last rubella vaccination was when she was 12 years old. Which of the following is considered the best management as the next step to perform?
Your Answer: Check rubella serology
Explanation:Rubella infection during pregnancy may lead to miscarriage, intrauterine fetal demise, premature labour, intrauterine growth retardation, and congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of developing complications is highest if the infection is contracted within the first 12 weeks of gestation.
In those cases in which a pregnant woman has been exposed to a suspected rubella case, a specimen of blood should be tested as soon as possible for the measurement of rubella-specific IgG antibodies. If it is positive, then the woman was likely to be immune and could be reassured. If it is negative, a determination rubella-specific IgG and rubella-specific IgM antibodies should be obtained in 3 weeks to exclude an asymptomatic primary rubella infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old primigravid woman present to the emergency department. She is at 40 weeks gestation and complains of a 24-hour history of no fetal movements. On auscultation, fetal heart beats are clearly audible with a measurement of 140/min. On diagnostic testing, the cardiotocograph (CTG) is normal and reactive. On physical examination, her cervix is 2cm dilated and fully effaced. She is reassured and allowed to return home. 24 hours later, she calls to complain she has still felt no fetal movements, adding up to a 48 hour history. What is the best next step in management?
Your Answer: Urgent ultrasound scan of the foetus.
Correct Answer: Admit for induction of labour.
Explanation:Labour induction is indicated as no fetal movements have been felt for 24 hours, with a normal cardiotocograph (CTG) and the pregnancy is at near/full term with a favourable cervix.
Amniotic fluid volume assessment would have been indicated 24 hours earlier as, if it was low, induction would have been indicated then, despite a normal CTG.
Ultrasound examination of the foetus is not indicated as it is necessary to expedite delivery.
Carrying out another CTG, with or without oxytocin challenge, is not indicated, although MG monitoring during induced labour would be mandatory.
Delivery immediately by Caesarean section is not indicated unless the lack of fetal movements is due to fetal hypoxia. This can result in fetal distress during labour, necessitating an emergency Caesarean section if the cervix is not fully dilated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old G3P2 female presents to your department for prenatal check up. She is in the 26th week of gestation and her pregnancy has been uneventful so far. Her past medical history is unremarkable. Her second child was born macrosomic with shoulder dystocia, which was a very difficult labour. Which of the following is the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Schedule elective Caesarean delivery
Correct Answer: Watchful waiting till she goes in labour
Explanation:Shoulder dystocia is a complication associated with fetal macrosomia and may result in neurological dysfunction. Fetal macrosomia is generally defined as birth weight – 4,000 g. It occurs in about 10% of pregnancies and one of the most important predictors of fetal macrosomia is previous macrosomic infant(s). The recurrence rate of fetal macrosomia is above 30%. Other risk factors are maternal diabetes, multiparity, prolonged gestation, maternal obesity, excessive weight gain, male foetus, and parental stature- Not all cases of fetal macrosomia lead to shoulder dystocia and the occurrence of this complication is only 0.5%-1% of all pregnancies.
To make clinical decision regarding management of the patient, it is important to understand that there are other factors that lead to shoulder dystocia, such as the mother’s anatomy. While statistics suggest that there’s a tendency to choose elective Caesarean delivery for suspected macrosomia, it is believed that most of procedures are unnecessary, as evidence has shown the number of complications are not reduce- Also while it is logical to consider induction of labour at the 37th week of pregnancy, it is associated with increased Caesarean deliveries because of failed inductions. The recommended course of action is watchful waiting till the patient goes in labour.
→ Induce labour at the 37th week of gestation is not the best course of action, as it is associated with high failure rate, which often leads to Caesarean delivery.
→ Schedule elective Caesarean delivery is considered unnecessary in patients who do not have diabetes. Statistics have shown no evidence that Caesarean delivery reduces the rate of complications.
→ Serial ultrasound for fetal weight estimation is incorrect. The strategies used to predict fetal macrosomia are risk factors, Leopold’s manoeuvres, and ultrasonography. Even when they are combined, they are considered inaccurate; much less ultrasonography alone.
→ At this point, blood glucose control in pregnancies associated with diabetes seems to have desired results in preventing macrosomia- A weight loss program is usually not recommended- Instead, expectant management should be considered. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 31
Correct
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Which of the following is indicated for the treatment of chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Azithromycin 1gram as single dose
Explanation:The best treatment option for chlamydial urethritis in pregnancy is Azithromycin 1g as a single dose orally. This is the preferred option as the drug is coming under category B1 in pregnancy.
Tetracycline antibiotics, including doxycycline, should never be used in pregnant or breastfeeding women.
Erythromycin Estolate is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its increased risk for hepatotoxicity. Ciprofloxacin is not commonly used for treating chlamydial urethritis and its use is not safe during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 32
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presented to the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and nausea. She noted that her symptoms began 2 days ago but has severely increased over the last 3 hours. It was also noted that the patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour. Upon history taking, it was noted that she has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. Two years ago, she was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus during an infertility evaluation. Aside from these, the patient has no other medical conditions and has no past surgeries. Further examination was done and the following are her results: BMI is 28 kg/m2, Blood pressure is 90/56mmHg, Pulse is 120/min. An abdominal examination was performed and revealed guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination also revealed moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. Her urine pregnancy test result turned out positive. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed and revealed a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis. Which of the following is considered the next step in best managing the patient's condition?
Your Answer: Surgical exploration
Explanation:Ectopic pregnancy is a known complication of pregnancy that can carry a high rate of morbidity and mortality when not recognized and treated promptly. It is essential that providers maintain a high index of suspicion for an ectopic in their pregnant patients as they may present with pain, vaginal bleeding, or more vague complaints such as nausea and vomiting. Ectopic pregnancy, in essence, is the implantation of an embryo outside of the uterine cavity most commonly in the fallopian tube.
Providers should identify any known risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in their patient’s history, such as if a patient has had a prior confirmed ectopic pregnancy, known fallopian tube damage (history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal surgery, known obstruction), or achieved pregnancy through infertility treatment.
Performance of laparoscopic surgery is safe and effective treatment modalities in hemodynamically stable women with a non-ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
Patients with relatively low hCG levels would benefit from the single-dose methotrexate protocol. Patients with higher hCG levels may necessitate two-dose regimens. There is literature suggestive that methotrexate treatment does not have adverse effects on ovarian reserve or fertility. hCG levels should be trended until a non-pregnancy level exists post-methotrexate administration.
Surgical management is necessary when the patients demonstrate any of the following: an indication of intraperitoneal bleeding, symptoms suggestive of ongoing ruptured ectopic mass, or hemodynamically instability. Women who present early in pregnancy and have testing suggestive of an ectopic pregnancy would jeopardize the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy if given Methotrexate. The patient may have a cervical ectopic pregnancy and would thus run the risk of haemorrhage and potential hemodynamic instability if a dilation and curettage are performed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 33
Correct
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A 61-year-old woman comes to the office for a breast cancer follow-up visit.She recently underwent right mastectomy for a node-negative, estrogen- and progesterone-receptor-positive tumor. She was on an aromatase inhibitor as adjuvant therapy, which was discontinued due to severe fatigue and poor sleep. At present, she is scheduled for a 5-year course of adjuvant therapy with tamoxifen.Patient has no other chronic medical conditions and her only medication is a daily multivitamin. Her last menstrual period was 8 years ago.Patient's father had a myocardial infarction at the age 64; otherwise her family history is noncontributory.She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or any other illicit drugs. On examination her vital signs seems stable, with a BMI of 21 kg/m2. Patient has many concerns about tamoxifen therapy and asks about potential side effects. Which among the following complications mentioned below is this patient at greatest risk of developing, due to tamoxifen therapy?
Your Answer: Hyperplasia of the endometrium
Explanation:Tamoxifen and Raloxifene are drugs which acts as selective estrogen receptor modulators.
Their mechanisms of action are competitive inhibitor of estrogen binding and mixed agonist/antagonist action respectively.
Commonly indicated in prevention of breast cancer in high-risk patients. Tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment of breast cancer and Raloxifene in postmenopausal osteoporosis.
Adverse effects include:
– Hot flashes
– Venous thromboembolism
– Endometrial hyperplasia & carcinoma (tamoxifen only)
– Uterine sarcoma (tamoxifen only)
Adjuvant endocrine therapy is commonly used option for treatment of nonmetastatic, hormone-receptor-positive breast cancer; and the most commonly used endocrine agents include tamoxifen, aromatase inhibitors, and ovarian suppression via GnRH agonists or surgery.Tamoxifen is a selective estrogen receptor modulator which is an estrogen receptor antagonist in the breast. It is the most preferred adjuvant treatment for pre-menopausal women at low risk of breast cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is also a second-line endocrine adjuvant agent for postmenopausal women who cannot use aromatase inhibitor therapy due to intolerable side effects.
Tamoxifen acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and stimulates excessive proliferation of endometrium. Therefore, tamoxifen use is associated with endometrial polyps in premenopausal women, and endometrial hyperplasia and cancer in postmenopausal women. These effects will continue throughout the duration of therapy and resolves once the treatment is discontinued. Even with all these possible complications, benefits of tamoxifen to improve the survival from breast cancer outweighs the risk of endometrial cancer.In postmenopausal women, tamoxifen has some estrogen-like activity on the bone, which can increase bone mineral density and thereby reduce the incidence of osteoporosis significantly. However, tamoxifen is generally not a first-line agent for osteoporosis in treatment due to the marked risk of endometrial cancer.
Dysplasia of the cervical transformation zone is typically caused due to chronic infection by human papillomavirus, and tamoxifen has no known effects on the cervix.
Tamoxifen is not associated with any increased risk for adenomyosis, which is characterised by ectopic endometrial tissue in the myometrium.
Intimal thickening of the coronary arteries is a precursor lesion for atherosclerosis. Tamoxifen helps to decrease blood cholesterol level and thereby protect against coronary artery disease.
Tamoxifen is an estrogen antagonist on breast tissue and is used in the treatment and prevention of breast cancer, but it also acts as an estrogen agonist in the uterus and increases the risk of development of endometrial polyps, hyperplasia, and cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presented with acute migraine accompanied with headache and vomiting. She was noted to be at 33 weeks of gestation. Which of the following is considered the safest treatment for the patient?
Your Answer: Paracetamol
Correct Answer: Paracetamol and metoclopramide
Explanation:The occurrence of migraine in women is influenced by hormonal changes throughout the lifecycle. A beneficial effect of pregnancy on migraine, mainly during the last 2 trimesters, has been observed in 55 to 90% of women who are pregnant, irrespective of the type of migraine.
For treatment of acute migraine attacks, 1000 mg of paracetamol (acetaminophen) preferably as a suppository is considered the first choice drug treatment. The risks associated with use of aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) and ibuprofen are considered to be small when the agents are taken episodically and if they are avoided during the last trimester of pregnancy.
Paracetamol 500 mg alone or in combination with metoclopramide 10 mg are recommended as first choice symptomatic treatment of a moderate-to-severe primary headache during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 35
Incorrect
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Relationship of the long axis of the mother to the long axis of foetus is known as:
Your Answer: Attitude
Correct Answer: Lie
Explanation:Fetal lie refers to the relationship between the long axis of the foetus relative to the long axis of the mother. If the foetus and maternal column are parallel (on the same long axis), the lie is termed vertical or longitudinal lie.
Fetal presentation means, the part of the foetus which is overlying the maternal pelvic inlet.
Position is the positioning of the body of a prenatal foetus in the uterus. It will change as the foetus develops. This is a description of the relation of the presenting part of the foetus to the maternal pelvis. In the case of a longitudinal lie with a vertex presentation, the occiput of the fetal calvarium is the landmark used to describe the position. When the occiput is facing the maternal pubic symphysis, the position is termed direct occiput anterior.
Fetal attitude is defined as the relation of the various parts of the foetus to each other. In the normal attitude, the foetus is in universal flexion. The anatomic explanation for this posture is that it enables the foetus to occupy the least amount of space in the intrauterine cavity. The fetal attitude is extremely difficult, if not impossible, to assess without the help of an ultrasound examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 36
Correct
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In twin deliveries: Which is true?
Your Answer: There is increased risk of postpartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Twin gestations are at increased risk for postpartum haemorrhage (PPH). A number of maternal and peripartum factors are associated with PPH requiring blood transfusion in twin gestations. Reducing the rate of caesarean delivery in twin pregnancies may decrease maternal hemorrhagic morbidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 37
Correct
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A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented to your clinic complaining of urinary symptoms at 19 weeks of gestation. She is allergic to penicillin, with non-anaphylactic presentation. Urine microscopy confirmed the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and culture result is pending. From the options below, which is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Your Answer: Cephalexin
Explanation:According to the laboratory reports, patient has developed urinary tract infection and should be treated with one week course of oral antibiotics.
As the patient is pregnant, antibiotics like cephalexin, co-amoxiclav and nitrofurantoin must be considered as these are safe during pregnancy.Due to this Patient’s allergic history to penicillin, cephalexin can be considered as the best option. Risk of cross allergy would have been higher if the patient had any history of anaphylactic reactions to penicillin.
In Australia, Amoxicillin is not recommended to treat UTI due to resistance.Tetracyclines also should be avoided during pregnancy due to its teratogenic property.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 38
Correct
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A patient in the first trimester of pregnancy has just learned that her husband has acute hepatitis B. She feels well, and her screening test for hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) was negative last month. She has not been immunized against hepatitis B. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management of this patient?
Your Answer: Administration of both HBIG and hepatitis B vaccine now
Explanation:Hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) should be administered as soon as possible to patients with known exposure to hepatitis – Hepatitis B vaccine is a killed-virus vaccine and can be used safely in pregnancy, with no need to wait until after organogenesis. This patient has been exposed to sexual transmission for at least 6 weeks, given that the incubation period is at least that long, so it is too late to use condoms to prevent infection. The patient is unlikely to be previously immune to hepatitis B, given that she has no history of hepatitis B infection, immunization, or carriage- Because the patient’s HBsAg is negative, she is not the source of her husband’s infection. Full treatment for this patient has an efficacy of only 75%, so follow-up testing is still needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old female, who is 14 weeks pregnant, presented to your office for antenatal follow-up. On examination, the fundal height is found to be18 cm. which among the following would be the best next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Reassure that this is normal
Correct Answer: Perform an ultrasound scan
Explanation:At 12 weeks gestation the fundus is expected to be palpable above the pubis symphysis and it is expected to be felt at the level of umbilicus by 20 weeks. Though the uterine fundus stands in between from 12 and 20 weeks, the height of the fundus in centimeters is equivalent to the weeks of pregnancy after 20 weeks.
For 14-week pregnant uterus a fundal height of 18cm is definitely large and dating errors is considered as the most common cause for such a discrepancy. Hence, it is better to perform an ultrasound scan for more accurately estimating the gestational age. Also if the case is not a simple dating error, ultrasonography can provide definitive additional information about other possible conditions such as polyhydramnios, multiple gestation, etc that might have led to a large-for-date uterus.
A large-for-gestational-age uterus are most commonly found in conditions like:
– Dating errors which is the most common cause
– Twin pregnancy
– Gestational diabetes
– Polyhydramnios
– Gestational trophoblastic disease, also known as molar pregnancy -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 30 year old primigravida with diabetes suffered a post partum haemorrhage following a vaginal delivery. Her uterus was well contracted during labour. Her baby's weight is 4.4 kg. Which of the following is the most likely cause for her post partum haemorrhage?
Your Answer: Atonic uterus
Correct Answer: Cervical/vaginal trauma
Explanation:A well contracted uterus excludes an atonic uterus. Delivery of large baby by a primigravida can cause cervical +/- vaginal tears which can lead to PPH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 41
Correct
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During early pregnancy, a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to:
Your Answer: Corpus luteal cyst
Explanation:Adnexa refer to the anatomical area adjacent to the uterus, and contains the fallopian tube, ovary, and associated vessels, ligaments, and connective tissue. The reported incidence of adnexal masses in pregnancy ranges from 1 in 81 to 1 in 8000 pregnancies. Most of these adnexal masses are diagnosed incidentally at the time of dating or first trimester screening ultrasound (USS). Functional cyst is the most common adnexal mass in pregnancy, similar to the nonpregnant state. A corpus luteum persisting into the second trimester accounts for 13-17% of all cystic adnexal masses. Pain due to rupture, haemorrhage into the cyst, infection, venous congestion, or torsion may be of sudden onset or of a more chronic nature.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 42
Correct
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A 25-year old Asian woman comes to your clinic at 36 weeks of gestation. She was diagnosed with breech at 32 weeks. She is not in labor and a manual examination of the uterus is suggestive of breech position. Which one of the following would be the next best step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasonography is performed for confirmation, as well as for the evaluation of maternal pelvis, fetal size and viability in cases were breech presentation is suspected on manual examination. As there is a chance for spontaneous correction of breech presentation into cephalic during 36 to 37 weeks, this should be considered in every future visit. The chances for spontaneous version reduces to 25% if breech position persists beyond this period of time.
It an external cephalic version should be offered to all women with breech presentation, provided there are no contraindications or indication for cesarean delivery due to other reasons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 43
Correct
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An ultrasound in the 1st trimester of pregnancy is done for?
Your Answer: Dating of the pregnancy
Explanation:Early ultrasound improves the early detection of multiple pregnancies and improved gestational dating may result in fewer inductions for post maturity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 44
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks of gestation is discovered to have a positive group B Streptococcus vaginal swab. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate treatment for the patient?
Your Answer: No treatment needed before labour
Explanation:About 1 in 4 pregnant women carry GBS bacteria in their body. Doctors should test pregnant woman for GBS bacteria when they are 36 through 37 weeks pregnant.
Giving pregnant women antibiotics through the vein (IV) during labour can prevent most early-onset GBS disease in newborns. A pregnant woman who tests positive for GBS bacteria and gets antibiotics during labour has only a 1 in 4,000 chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease. If she does not receive antibiotics during labour, her chance of delivering a baby who will develop GBS disease is 1 in 200.
Pregnant women cannot take antibiotics to prevent early-onset GBS disease in newborns before labour. The bacteria can grow back quickly. The antibiotics only help during labour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 45
Correct
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A 22-year-old Asian woman with a background history of primary pulmonary hypertension attends your clinic. She is planning for a pregnancy in the next few months and feels well generally. What would be your advice?
Your Answer: Pregnancy is contraindicated in her condition
Explanation:From the options given, option A is correct as primary pulmonary hypertension is considered a contraindication to pregnancy.
The patient should be educated about the possible risks and increased maternal mortality in such cases. This restriction is due to the fact that symptoms of Pulmonary hypertension gets worse during pregnancy which results in high maternal mortality.
Termination of pregnancy may be advisable in these circumstances mostly to preserve the life of the mother.
Sudden death secondary to hypotension is also a commonly dreaded complication among patients with pulmonary hypertension during pregnancy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 46
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining she is “urinating all the time. It started initially as some leakage of urine with sneezing or coughing, but now she leaks while walking to the bathroom.She voids frequently during the day and several times each night, also sometimes patient feels an intense urge to urinate but passes only a small amount when she tries to void. She now wears a pad every day and plans her social outings based on bathroom access.Patient had no history of dysuria or hematuria and had 2 vaginal deliveries in her 20s.She drinks alcohol socially, takes 2 or 3 cups of coffee each morning, and “drinks lots of water throughout the day.” When asked about which urinary symptoms are the most troublesome, the patient is unsure. Among the following which is the best next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Voiding diary
Explanation:This patient experiences a stress based mixed urinary incontinence presented as leakage of urine while sneezing or coughing and urgency which is an intense urge to urinate with small voiding volume as her symptoms. Urinary incontinence is common and may cause significant distress in some, as seen in this patient who wears a pad every day. Initial evaluation of mixed incontinence includes maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify the predominant type of urinary incontinence and thereby to determine an optimal treatment by tracking the fluid intake, urine output and leaking episodes.
All patients with mixed incontinence generally require bladder training along with lifestyle changes like weight loss, smoking cessation, decreased alcohol and caffeine intake and practicing pelvic floor muscle exercises like Kegels. Depending on the predominant type, patients who have limited or incomplete symptom relief with bladder training may benefit from pharmacotherapy or surgery.
In patients with urgency-predominant incontinence, timed voiding practice like urinating on a fixed schedule rather than based on a sense of urgency along with oral antimuscarinics are found to be useful.
Surgery with a mid-urethral sling is performed in patients with stress-predominant incontinence which is due to a weakened pelvic floor muscles as in cystocele.
In patients with a suspected urethral diverticulum or vesicovaginal fistula, a cystoscopy is usually indicated but is not used in initial evaluation of urinary incontinence due to its cost and invasiveness.
Urodynamic testing involves measurement of bladder filling and emptying called as cystometry, urine flow, and pressure (eg, urethral leak point). This testing is typically reserved for those patients with complicated urinary incontinence, who will not respond to treatment or to those who are considering surgical intervention.
Initial evaluation of mixed urinary incontinence is done by maintaining a voiding diary, which helps to classify predominant type of urinary incontinence into stress predominant or urgency predominant and thereby to determine the optimal treatment required like bladder training, surgical intervention, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female at 28 weeks of pregnancy presented with heavy vaginal bleeding. On examination, she was tachycardic, hypotensive and her uterus was tender. She was resuscitated. Which of following is the most important investigation to arrive at a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Clotting profile
Correct Answer: US
Explanation:The presentation is antepartum haemorrhage. Ultrasound should be performed to find the reason for bleeding and assess the fetal well being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 48
Correct
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A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness. Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?
Your Answer: Free T4
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 49
Correct
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A 21-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at 41 weeks gestation. She complains of a nine hour history of irregular painful contractions. On examination of her pelvis, her cervix is fully effaced, but only 2 - 3 cm dilated. The fetal head is at the level of the ischial spines in a left occipito-posterior (LOP) position. The membranes ruptured an hour ago. What would be the best next line of management?
Your Answer: Oxytocic (Syntocinon4) infusion.
Explanation:The best next line of management is to administer an oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.
This is because the progress of labour is slow, and it necessary to augment it. As the membranes have already ruptured, the next step is to increase the contractions and induce labour using an infusion of oxytocic (Syntocinon) infusion.
Extra fluid is also required, but this will be administered alongside the Syntocinon infusion.
A lumbar epidural block is indicated in patients with an occipito-posterior (OP) position. This should not be attempted until more pain relief is required and the progress of labour is reassessed.
A Caesarean section may be necessary due to obstructed labour or fetal distress, it is not indicated at this stage.
Taking blood and holding it in case cross-matching is ultimately required is common, but most patients do not have blood cross-matched prophylactically in case there is a need to be delivered by Caesarean section and require a transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 50
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman in her 36 weeks of gestation, presents for her planned antenatal appointment. On examination her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, in two consecutive readings 5 minutes apart. Which among the following statements is true regarding gestational hypertension and pre-eclampsia?
Your Answer: Pre-eclampsia involves other features in addition to the presence of hypertension
Explanation:Pre-eclampsia presents with other features in addition to the presence of hypertension, also it’s diagnosis cannot be made considered peripheral edema as the only presenting symptom. Proteinuria occurs more commonly in pre-eclampsia than in gestational hypertension and the latter is mostly asymptomatic.
Hypertensive disorders are found to complicate about 10% of all pregnancies. Common one among them is Gestational hypertension, which is defined as the new onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation without any maternal or fetal features of pre-eclampsia, in this case BP will return to normal within three months of postpartum.
Types of hypertensive disorders during pregnancy:
1. Pregnancy-induced hypertension:
a. Systolic blood pressure (SBP) above 140 mm of Hg and diastolic hypertension above 90 mmHg occurring for the first time after the 20th week of pregnancy, which regresses postpartum.
b. The rise in systolic blood pressure above 25 mm of Hg or diastolic blood pressure above 15 mm of Hg from readings before pregnancy or in the first trimester.
2. Mild pre-eclampsia:
BP up to 170/110 mm of Hg in the absence of associated features.
3. Severe pre-eclampsia:
BP above 170/110 mm of Hg and along with features such as kidney impairment, thrombocytopenia, abnormal liver transaminase levels, persistent headache, epigastric tenderness or fetal compromise.
4. Essential (coincidental) hypertension:
Chronic underlying hypertension occurring before the onset of pregnancy or persisting after postpartum.
5. Pregnancy-aggravated hypertension:
Underlying hypertension which is worsened by pregnancy.To diagnose pre-eclampsia clinically, presence of one or more of the following symptoms are required along with a history of onset of hypertension after 20 weeks of gestation.
– Proteinuria: Above 300 mg/24 h or urine protein
reatinine ratio more than 30 mg/mmol.
– Renal insufficiency: serum/plasma creatinine above 0.09 mmol/L or oliguria.
– Liver disease: raised serum transaminases and severe epigastric or right upper quadrant pain.
– Neurological problems: convulsions (eclampsia); hyperreflexia with clonus; severe headaches with hyperreflexia; persistent visual disturbances (scotomata).
– Haematological disturbances like thrombocytopenia; disseminated intravascular coagulation; hemolysis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 51
Correct
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A 23-year-old pregnant woman, in her 19 weeks of pregnancy, presents to your office complaining of increased frequency and urgency along with dysuria. Further investigations established the diagnosis of urinary tract infection and the culture results are pending. The patient also mentioned a history of allergic reaction to penicillin which manifest as a rash. For treating this patient, which one of the following would be the antibiotic of choice?
Your Answer: Cephalexin
Explanation:The best antibiotic of choice for empirical treatment of a urinary tract infection (UTI) during pregnancy is cephalexin. Nitrofurantoin and amoxicillin-clavulanate are second and third in-line respectively.
Patients allergic to penicillin, which is manifested as a rash can also be safely treated with cephalexin. But cephalosporins are not recommended if the presentation of allergic reaction to penicillin was anaphylactic, instead they should be treated with nitrofurantoin.NOTE– Asymptomatic bacteriuria, such as >10 to power of 5 colony count in urine culture of an asymptomatic woman in pregnancy, should best be treated with a one week course of antibiotics, followed by confirming the resolution of infection via a urine culture repeated 48 hours after the completion of treatment.
Amoxicillin without clavulanate is recommended only in cases were the susceptibility of the organism is proven.
Macrolides like clarithromycin are usually not recommended for the treatment of UTI.
Aminoglycosides are coming under category D drugs should be avoided during pregnancy, unless there is a severe indication of gram negative sepsis.
Tetracycline, due to their potential teratogenic effects, are contraindicated in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old nulliparous woman is admitted to the hospital at 37 weeks of gestation after losing about 200 mL of blood per vagina after having sexual intercourse. The bleeding has now ceased and her vitals are below: Pulse rate: 64 beats/min, Blood pressure: 120/80 mmHg, Temperature: 36.8°C. On physical exam, the uterus is enlarged and is 37 cm above the pubic symphysis. The uterus is lax and non-tender. On ultrasound, the fetal presentation is cephalic with the head freely mobile above the pelvic brim. The fetal heart rate assessed by auscultation is 155 beats/min. Which of the following is the most likely of bleeding in this patient?
Your Answer: Vasa praevia.
Correct Answer: Placenta praevia.
Explanation:In this pregnant patient with an antepartum haemorrhage at 37 weeks of gestation, her clinical presentation points to a placenta previa. Her bleeding has stopped, the uterus is of the expected size and non-tender, and the fetal head is still mobile above the pelvic brim which are all findings that would be consistent with a placenta praevia. An ultrasound examination would be done to rule-out or diagnose the condition.
An Apt test on the blood is necessary to ensure that this is not fetal blood that would come from a ruptured vasa praevia. Although this diagnosis would be unlikely since the bleeding has stopped. If there was a vasa praevia, there would be fetal tachycardia or bradycardia, where a tachycardia is often seen first but then bradycardia takes over late as fetal exsanguination occurs.
In a placental abruption with concealment of blood loss, the uterus would be larger and some uterine tenderness would be found on exam.
A cervical polyp could bleed after sexual intercourse and a speculum examination would be done to exclude it. However, it would be unlikely for a cervical polyp to cause such a large amount of blood loss. A heavy show would also rarely have as heavy as a loss of 200mL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 53
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman presents in early labour. She is healthy and at full-term. Her pregnancy has progressed well without any complications. She indicates that she would like to have a cardiotocograph (CTG) to assess her baby as she has read about its use for foetal monitoring during labour. What advice would you give her while counselling her regarding the use of CTG compared to intermittent auscultation during labour and delivery?
Your Answer: There is no evidence to support admission CTG.
Explanation:In high-risk pregnancies, continuous monitoring of foetal heart rate is considered mandatory.
However, in low-risk pregnancies, cardiotocograph (CTG) monitoring provides no benefits over intermittent auscultation.
A significant issue with CTG monitoring is that apparent abnormalities are identified that usually have minimal clinical significance, but can prompt the use of several obstetric interventions such as instrumental deliveries and Caesarean section. In low risk patients, such interventions may not even be required.
CTG monitoring has not been shown to reduce the incidence of cerebral palsy or other neonatal developmental abnormalities, nor does it accurately predict previous foetal oxygenation status unless the CTG is significantly abnormal when it is first connected.
Similarly, CTG cannot accurately predict current foetal oxygenation unless the readings are severely abnormal.
Therefore, there is no evidence to support routine admission CTG (correct answer).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 54
Correct
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A 33-year-old woman is under your care during her pregnancy. She has had only one previous pregnancy in which her foetus had spina bifida. Identify the most appropriate assessment, from the following choices, that would aid in detection of spina bifida in her current pregnancy.
Your Answer: Ultrasound of the fetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:An ultrasound of the foetal spine at 16-18 weeks of gestation is the most appropriate assessment (correct answer).
Ultrasound performed at 11-12 weeks of gestation can diagnose anencephaly, another neural tube defect, however; any vertebral column defect is unlikely to be detected.
In most cases of neural tube defects in the foetus, elevations will be noted in maternal alpha-fetoprotein levels at 12 to 15 weeks. However, it may not be possible to detect all such abnormalities and a confirmed diagnosis cannot be made.
Additionally, elevations in alpha-fetoprotein levels do not always correlate to the presence of foetal neural tube defects.
Nuchal translucency scans do not detect neural tube defects. They are performed to identify the risk of chromosomal abnormalities in the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A 25 year old pregnant woman presents with constant abdominal pain, which has been present for the last few hours. Before the pain started she admits experiencing vaginal blood loss. She's a primigravida in her 30th week of gestation. Upon abdominal examination the uterus seems irritable. CTG is, however, reactive. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Placenta previa
Correct Answer: Antepartum haemorrhage
Explanation:Antepartum haemorrhage presents with bleeding, which may or may not be accompanied by pain. Uterine irritability would suggest abruptio, however contractions are present which may be confused with uterine irritability and in this case, there are no signs of pre-eclampsia present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 56
Incorrect
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Missed abortion may cause one of the following complications:
Your Answer: High positive serum β-hCG
Correct Answer: Coagulopathy
Explanation:A serious complication with a miscarriage is DIC, a severe blood clotting condition and is more likely if there is a long time until the foetus and other tissues are passed, which is often the case in missed abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 57
Correct
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A 26-year-old pregnant female in her first trimester was brought to the labour room with complaints of painless vaginal bleeding. On examination, her abdomen was non-tender and os was closed. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:Threatened miscarriage is a term used to describe any abnormal vaginal bleeding that occurs in first trimester, sometime associated with abdominal cramps. The cervix remains closed and the pregnancy may continue as normal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 58
Correct
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A 37-year-old woman is planning to conceive this year. Upon history-taking and interview, it was noted that she was a regular alcohol drinker and has been using contraceptive pills for the past 3 years. Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate advice for the patient?
Your Answer: Stop alcohol now
Explanation:Alcohol exposure during pregnancy results in impaired growth, stillbirth, and fetal alcohol spectrum disorder. Fetal alcohol deficits are lifelong issues with no current treatment or established diagnostic or therapeutic tools to prevent and/or ameliorate some of these adverse outcomes.
Alcohol readily crosses the placenta with fetal blood alcohol levels approaching maternal levels within 2 hours of maternal intake. As there is known safe level of alcohol consumption during pregnancy, and alcohol is a known teratogen that can impact fetal growth and development during all stages of pregnancy, the current recommendation from the American College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists, Centre for Disease Control (CDC), Surgeon General, and medical societies from other countries including the Society of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists of Canada all recommend complete abstinence during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 59
Correct
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Bishop scoring is used for:
Your Answer: The success rate of induction of the labour
Explanation:The Bishop score is a system used by medical professionals to decide how likely it is that you will go into labour soon. They use it to determine whether they should recommend induction, and how likely it is that an induction will result in a vaginal birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 60
Correct
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A 33-year-old nulliparous pregnant female at the 21st week of pregnancy came to the gynaecological clinic for evaluation of vulval ulcer. A swab was taken revealing the herpes simplex type 2 virus. There is no prior history of such lesions and her partners of the last decade had no history of the infection. She's anxious about how she got the condition and the potential consequences for her and her unborn kid. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?
Your Answer: The primary infection is commonly asymptomatic.
Explanation:Despite the fact that this question includes many true-false options, the knowledge examined is particularly essential in the treatment of women who have genital herpes.
It answers many of the questions that such women have regarding the disease, how it spreads, how it may be controlled, and how it affects an unborn or recently born child.
All of these issues must be addressed in a counselling question.
Currently, the most prevalent type of genital herpes is type 1, while in the past, type 2 was more common, as confirmed by serology testing.
Type 2 illness is nearly always contracted through sexual contact, but it can go undetected for years.
Acyclovir can be taken during pregnancy, and there are particular reasons for its usage.
Neonatal herpes is most usually diagnosed when the newborn has no cutaneous lesions, and past genital herpes in the mother is protective against neonatal infection, although not always.
Where the genital infection is the initial sign of the disease rather than a relapse of earlier disease, neonatal herpes is far more frequent.
Many patients and doctors are unaware that, while the original infection might be deadly, it is usually asymptomatic.
This explains how the illness spreads between sexual partners when neither has had any previous symptoms of the disease. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 61
Correct
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Among the following mentioned drugs, which one has reported the highest rate of congenital malformations if used in pregnancy?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Among all the antiepileptic drugs sodium valproate carries the highest teratogenicity rate. The potential congenital defects caused by sodium valproate are as below:
– Neural tube defects like spina bifida, anencephaly
– Cardiac complications like congenital ventricular septal defect, aortic stenosis, patent ductus arteriosus, aberrant pulmonary artery
– Limb defects like polydactyly were more than 5 fingers are present, oligodactyly were less than 5 fingers are present, absent fingers, overlapping toes, camptodactyly which is presented as a fixed flexion deformity of one or more proximal interphalangeal joints,split hand, ulnar or tibial hypoplasia.
– Genitourinary defects like hypospadias, renal hypoplasia, hydronephrosis, duplication of calyceal system.
– Brain anomalies like hydranencephaly, porencephaly, arachnoid cysts, cerebral atrophy, partial agenesis of corpus callosum, agenesis of septum pellucidum, lissencephaly of medial sides of occipital lobes, Dandy-Walker anomaly
– Eye anomalies like bilateral congenital cataract, optic nerve hypoplasia, tear duct anomalies, microphthalmia, bilateral iris defects, corneal opacities.
– Respiratory tract defects like tracheomalacia, lung hypoplasia,severe laryngeal hypoplasia, abnormal lobulation of the right lung, right oligemic lung which is presented with less blood flow.
– Abdominal wall defects like omphalocele
– Skin abnormalities capillary hemangioma, aplasia cutis congenital of the scalp. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 62
Correct
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All of the following are considered elevated in the third trimester of pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Serum free T4
Explanation:Free T3 (FT3) and free T4 (FT4) levels are slightly lower in the second and third trimesters. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low-normal in the first trimester, with normalization by the second trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 25-year old woman presented to the medical clinic for her first prenatal check-up. Upon interview, the patient revealed that she has been smoking one pack of cigarettes per day for the past five years. All of the following are considered correct regarding the disadvantages of smoking during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Developmental delay of the baby at least in early years
Correct Answer: Increased risk of developing small teeth with faulty enamel
Explanation:Small teeth with faulty enamel is more associated with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).
In FAS, the most common orofacial changes are small eyelid fissures , flat facies, maxillary hypoplasia, short nose, long and hypoplastic nasal filter, and thin upper lip. The unique facial appearance of FAS patients is the result of changes in 4 areas: short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge with an upturned nasal tip, hypoplastic philtrum with a thin upper vermillion border, and a flat midface. Other facial anomalies include micrognathia, occasional cleft lip and/or palate and small teeth with defective enamel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 64
Correct
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A patient comes to your office with her last menstrual period 4 weeks ago. She thinks that she may be pregnant because she has not had her period yet, but denies any symptoms such as nausea, fatigue, urinary frequency, or breast tenderness. As she has a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, she is very anxious to find out and wants to be sure to get early prenatal care. Among the following actions which is most appropriate at this time?
Your Answer: Order a serum quantitative pregnancy test.
Explanation:Nausea, fatigue, breast tenderness, and increased frequency of urination are the most common symptoms of pregnancy, but their presence is not considered definitive as they are nonspecific symptoms which are not consistently found in early pregnancy, also these symptoms can occur even prior to menstruation.
In pregnancy a physical examination will reveal an enlarged uterus which is more boggy and soft, but these findings are not apparent until after 6th week of gestation. In addition, other conditions like adenomyosis, fibroids, or previous pregnancies can also result in an enlarged uterus which is palpable on physical examination.
An abdominal ultrasound will not demonstrate a gestational sac until a gestational age of 5 to 6 weeks, nor will it detect an ectopic pregnancy soon after a missed menstrual period, therefore it is not indicated in this patient.
A Doppler instrument will detect fetal cardiac action usually after 10 weeks of gestation.
A sensitive serum quantitative pregnancy test can detect placental HCG levels by 8 to 9 days post-ovulation and is considered as the most appropriate next step in evaluation of this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 65
Correct
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During pregnancy, which among these is NOT counted as physiological change?
Your Answer: Tidal volume 500ml.
Explanation:There is a significant increase in oxygen demand during pregnancy due to a 15% increase in the metabolic rate and a 20% increased consumption of oxygen. There is a 40–50% increase in minute ventilation, mostly due to an increase in tidal volume, rather than in the respiratory rate. In a healthy, young human adult, tidal volume is approximately 500 mL per inspiration
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to your clinic for advice as she is 20 weeks pregnant and was found to have thyrotoxicosis with mild enlargement of the thyroid gland. What other investigation will you consider to be done in this patient?
Your Answer: Free T3
Correct Answer: Ultrasound thyroid gland
Explanation:A 20 weeks pregnant patient has developed goitre along with thyrotoxicosis, where the diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis has already been established.
Ultrasound of the thyroid and a radioisotope scan to differentiate between “hot” and “cold” nodules are the confirming investigations for goitre. A nodule composed of cells that do not make thyroid hormone and the nodule which produces too much thyroid hormone are respectively called as cold and “hot” nodules.Due to the risk of fetal uptake of the isotope which leads to the damage of fetal thyroid, radioisotope or radionuclide Technetium uptake scan is contraindicated in pregnancy.
Fine needle aspiration cytology is required to establish a histopathological diagnosis in case of all cold nodules.
So ultrasound of the thyroid gland is the mandatory investigation to be done in this case as it will show diffuse enlargement, characteristic of the autoimmune disease, or multinodularity, which is suggestive of autonomous multinodular goitre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old, currently at 26 weeks’ gestation of her third pregnancy, presents with irregular uterine contractions for the past 24 hours and has concerns about premature delivery. She delivered her first child at 38 weeks of gestation and her second at 39 weeks gestation. On examination, BP and urinalysis have come back normal. Her symphysis-fundal height measures 27cm, the uterus is lax and non-tender. Fetal heart rate is 148/min. She also undergoes a pelvic examination along with other investigations. Which findings would suggest that delivery is most likely going to happen before 30 weeks’ of gestation?
Your Answer: The cervix is 3.8cm long on ultrasound examination.
Correct Answer: The cervix is closed, but the fetal fibronectin test on cervical secretions is positive.
Explanation:Predisposing factors of preterm delivery include a short cervix (or if it shortens earlier than in the third trimester), urinary tract or sexually transmitted infections, open cervical os, and history of a previous premature delivery. Increased uterine size can also contribute to preterm delivery and is seen with cases of polyhydramnios, macrosomia and multiple pregnancies. The shorter the cervical length, the greater the risk of a premature birth.
In this case, the risk of bacterial vaginosis and candidiasis contributing to preterm delivery would be lower than if in the context of an open cervical os. However, the risk of premature delivery is significantly increased if it is found that the fetal fibronectin test is positive, even if the os is closed. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 68
Correct
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The major cause of the increased risk of morbidity & mortality among twin gestation is:
Your Answer: Preterm delivery
Explanation:Twin pregnancy is associated with a number of obstetric complications, some of them with serious perinatal consequences, especially for the second twin. The rate of perinatal mortality can be up to six times higher in twin compared to singleton pregnancies, largely due to higher rates of preterm delivery and fetal growth restriction seen in twin pregnancies. Preterm birth and birth weight are also significant determinants of morbidity and mortality into infancy and childhood. More than 50% of twins and almost all triplets are born before 37 weeks of gestation and about 15–20% of admissions to neonatal units are associated with preterm twins and triplets.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female G1P1 presents with her husband because she has not been breastfeeding her baby 24 hours though she had previously stated she intended exclusive breastfeeding for the first 3 months. She feels sad most of the time and her mood has been very low for the past 2 weeks, she has trouble sleeping at night and feels tired all day. She complains that her husband doesn’t seem to know how to help. For the past 24 hours she feels like she is not fit to be a mother and doesn’t want to feed the baby anymore. She has been frightened by thoughts to harm herself and the baby. Her baby is 7 weeks old. In addition to antidepressant medication, which of the following treatment is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer: Peer support
Correct Answer: Electroconvulsive therapy
Explanation:This patient presents because of significant mood changes since she gave birth to her child: she is sad most of times and she is having guilt feelings about her adequacy for motherhood- She is also complaining of insomnia, tiredness, and even some suicidal ideation. These symptoms are highly suggestive postpartum depression. This should be differentiated from postpartum blues, which usually present within the first 2 weeks and last for few days. This patient’s symptoms started 5 weeks postpartum. Postpartum depression usually presents within the first 6 weeks to the first year postpartum.
Postpartum depression is the most common complication of childbearing and affects the mother, the child, and relationship with the partner. It is diagnosed the same way as major depressive disorder in other patients. Since untreated postpartum depression can have long-term effects on the mother and the child, appropriate therapy should be undertaken as soon as possible- Antidepressant medications such as sertraline can be used to treat postpartum depression. In a patient who has suicidal ideation, electroconvulsive therapy has a more rapid and effective action than medication and should be considered in these patients.
→ Cognitive behavioural therapy is effective in women with mild to moderate postpartum depression; it would not be a good choice in this patient with suicidal ideation and at risk of harming the baby.
→ Estrogen therapy used alone or in combination with antidepressant, has been shown to significantly reduce the symptoms of postpartum depression; however, it would not be the most appropriate choice in a patient with suicidal ideation.
→ Peer support has shown equivocal results in various studies even though most postpartum patients report that lacking an intimate friend or confidant or facing social isolation are factors leading to depression.
→ Non-directive counselling also known as ”listening visits“ has been found to be effective in postpartum patients, though the studies that were conducted are deemed to be of small sample and larger studies still need to be done to validate these findings. It would not be an appropriate choice for this patient with suicidal ideation. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 70
Correct
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A 29-year-old lady presents to your clinic at her 26 weeks of gestation. She is worried as she came in contact with a child having chicken pox 48 hours ago and she has no symptoms. You checked her pre-pregnancy IgG level for chicken pox which was negative, as she missed getting vaccinated for chickenpox before pregnancy. What is the best next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Give varicella zoster immunoglobulins
Explanation:This woman who is 26 weeks pregnant, has come in contact with a child having chickenpox 48 hours ago. As her IgG antibodies were negative during prenatal testing, she has no immunity against Varicella which makes her susceptible to get chickenpox.
Prophylactic treatment is required if a susceptible pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox, which includes administration of varicella zoster immune globulin (VZIG), within 72 hours of exposure to infection.
As the patient has already checked for and was found to be negative, checking IgG level again is not relevant. Also, it was already revealed that she is not vaccinated against varicella before pregnancy.
If the patient had any symptoms typical of chickenpox, measuring IgM would have been helpful, but patient is completely asymptomatic in this case so measuring IgM is not indicated.
Vaccine for chickenpox is contraindicated during pregnancy as it is a live vaccine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old woman presented to the medical clinic for advice regarding pregnancy. Upon history taking and interview, it was noted that she had a history of valvular heart disease. She has been married to her boyfriend for the last 2 years and she now has plans for pregnancy. Which of the following can lead to death during pregnancy, if present?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac condition affecting women during pregnancy and is poorly tolerated due to the increased intravascular volume, cardiac output and resting heart rate that predictably occur during pregnancy.
Young women may have asymptomatic mitral valve disease which becomes unmasked during the haemodynamic stress of pregnancy. Rheumatic mitral stenosis is the most common cardiac disease found in women during pregnancy. The typical increased volume and heart rate of pregnancy are not well tolerated in patients with more than mild stenosis. Maternal complications of atrial fibrillation and congestive heart failure can occur, and are increased in patients with poor functional class and severe pulmonary artery hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 72
Correct
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Etiological factors in spontaneous abortion include:
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:Spontaneous abortion is the loss of pregnancy naturally before twenty weeks of gestation. Colloquially, spontaneous abortion is referred to as a ‘miscarriage’ to avoid association with induced abortion. Early pregnancy loss refers only to spontaneous abortion in the first trimester. In 50% of cases, early pregnancy loss is believed to be due to fetal chromosomal abnormalities. Advanced maternal age and previous early pregnancy loss are the most common risk factors. For example, the incidence of early pregnancy loss in women 20-30 years of age is only 9 to 17%, while the incidence at 45 years of maternal age is 80%. Other risk factors include alcohol consumption, smoking, and cocaine use.
Several chronic diseases can precipitate spontaneous abortion, including diabetes, celiac disease, and autoimmune conditions, particularly anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome. Rapid conception after delivery and infections, such as cervicitis, vaginitis, HIV infection, syphilis, and malaria, are also common risk factors. Another important risk factor is exposure to environmental contaminants, including arsenic, lead, and organic solvents. Finally, structural uterine abnormalities, such as congenital anomalies, leiomyoma, and intrauterine adhesions, have been shown to increase the risk of spontaneous abortion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 73
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman who is 18 weeks pregnant presented to the emergency department due to a sudden onset of dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain. She is known to have a previous history of deep venous thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following is considered to be the most appropriate examination for this patient?
Your Answer: Ventilation/perfusion scan
Explanation:Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a treatable disease caused by thrombus formation in the lung-vasculature, commonly from the lower extremity’s deep veins compromising the blood flow to the lungs.
Computed tomography of pulmonary arteries (CTPA) and ventilation-perfusion (V/Q) scan are the two most common and widely practiced testing modalities to diagnose pulmonary embolism.Pulmonary ventilation (V) and Perfusion (Q) scan, also known as lung V/Q scan, is a nuclear test that uses the perfusion scan to delineate the blood flow distribution and ventilation scan to measure airflow distribution in the lungs. The primary utilization of the V/Q scan is to help diagnose lung clots called pulmonary embolism. V/Q scan provides help in clinical decision-making by evaluating scans showing ventilation and perfusion in all areas of the lungs using radioactive tracers.
Ventilation-perfusion V/Q scanning is mostly indicated for a patient population in whom CTPA is contraindicated (pregnancy, renal insufficiency CKD stage 4 or more, or severe contrast allergy) or relatively inconclusive.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 74
Incorrect
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Among the following presentations during pregnancy, which is not associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency?
Your Answer: Fetal convulsions
Correct Answer: Large for gestational age
Explanation:Retarded skeletal growth resulting in small for gestational age babies are the usual outcomes of an untreated vitamin D deficiency in pregnancy.
Symptoms associated with maternal vitamin D deficiency during pregnancy are:
– Hypocalcemia in newborn.
– Development of Rickets later in life.
– Defective tooth enamel.
– Small for gestational age due to its effect on skeletal growth
– Fetal convulsions or seizures due to hypocalcemia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman who is at the 18th week of gestation presented to the medical clinic due to a vaginal discharge. Upon history taking, it was revealed that she had a history of preterm labour at 24 weeks of gestation during her last pregnancy. Upon examination, the presence of a clear fluid coming out of the vagina was noted. Which of the following is considered to be the best in predicting pre-term labour?
Your Answer: Fibronectin test
Correct Answer: Cervical length of 15mm
Explanation:Preterm birth is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality not attributable to congenital anomalies or aneuploidy. It has been shown that a shortened cervix is a powerful indicator of preterm births in women with singleton and twin gestations – the shorter the cervical length, the higher the risk of spontaneous preterm birth. Ultrasound measurements of the cervix are a more accurate way of determining cervical length (CL) than using a digital method.
25 mm has been chosen as the ‘cut off’ at above which a cervix can be regarded as normal, and below which can be called short. A cervix that is less than 25 mm may be indicative of preterm birth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old gravida 3 para 2 presents for routine prenatal care. The patient is at 14 weeks estimated gestational age by last menstrual period, and ultrasonography at 8 weeks gestation was consistent with these dates. Fetal heart tones are not heard by handheld Doppler. Transvaginal ultrasonography reveals an intrauterine foetus without evidence of fetal cardiac activity. The patient has not had any bleeding or cramping, and otherwise feels fine. A pelvic examination reveals a closed cervix without any signs of bleeding or products of conception. Which one of the following is the most likely cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: Placentae previa
Correct Answer: A missed abortion
Explanation:In this case, the patient has a missed abortion, which is defined as a dead foetus or embryo without passage of tissue and with a closed cervix. This condition often presents with failure to detect fetal heart tones or a lack of growth in uterine size.
– By 14 weeks estimated gestational age, fetal heart tones should be detected by both handheld Doppler and ultrasonography.
– An inevitable abortion presents with a dilated cervix, but no passage of fetal tissue.
– A blighted ovum involves failure of the embryo to develop, despite the presence of a gestational sac and placental tissue. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 77
Incorrect
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All of the following statements are considered correct regarding Down syndrome screening in a 40-year-old pregnant woman, except:
Your Answer: Amniocentesis is associated with 1 in 200 miscarriage risk
Correct Answer: Dating ultrasound together with second trimester serum screening test has detection rate of 97%
Explanation:Second-trimester ultrasound markers have low sensitivity and specificity for detecting Down syndrome, especially in a low-risk population.
The highest detection rate is acquired with ultrasound markers combined with gross anomalies. Although the detection rate with this combination of markers is high in a high-risk population (50 to 75 percent), false-positive rates are also high (22 percent for a 100 percent Down syndrome detection rate).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 34 year old white primigravida in her first trimester had established moderate hypertension before becoming pregnant. She currently has a blood pressure of 168/108 mm Hg. You are considering how to best manage her hypertension during the pregnancy. Which one of the following is associated with the greatest risk of fetal growth retardation if used for hypertension throughout pregnancy?
Your Answer: Hydralazine (Apresoline)
Correct Answer: Atenolol (Tenormin)
Explanation:Atenolol and propranolol are associated with intrauterine growth retardation when used for prolonged periods during pregnancy. They are class D agents during pregnancy. Other beta-blockers may not share this risk.
Methyldopa, hydralazine, and calcium channel blockers have not been associated with intrauterine growth retardation. They are generally acceptable agents to use for established, significant hypertension during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 79
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman, G1PO comes to your clinic at 12 week of pregnancy. She is complaining of mild vaginal bleeding for the past 12 hours, along with bouts of mild cramping lower abdominal pain. On vaginal examination, the cervical os is closed with mild discharge containing blood clots and an ultrasonography confirms the presence of a live fetus with normal heart rate. Which among of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Threatened abortion
Explanation:Uterine bleeding in the presence of a closed cervix along with sonographic visualization of an intrauterine pregnancy with detectable fetal cardiac activity are diagnostic of threatened abortion.
Abortion does not always follow a uterine bleeding in early pregnancy, sometimes not even after repeated episodes or large amounts of bleeding, that is why the term “threatened” is used in this case. In about 90 to 96% cases, the pregnancy continues after vaginal bleeding if occured in the presence of a closed os and a detectable fetal heart rate. Also as the gestational age advances its less likely the condition will end in miscarriage.
In cases of inevitable abortion, there will be dilatation of cervix along with progressive uterine bleeding and painful uterine contractions. The gestational tissue can be either felt or seen through the cervical os and the passage of this tissue occurs within a short time.
In case were the membranes have ruptured, partly expelling the products of conception with a significant amounts of placental tissue left in the uterus is called as incomplete abortion. During the late first and early second trimesters this will be the most common presentation of an abortion. Examination findings of this includes an open cervical os with gestational tissues observed in the cervix and a uterine size smaller than expected for gestational age and a partially contracted uterus. The amount of bleeding will vary but can be severe enough to cause hypovolemic shock, with painful contractions and an ultrasound revealing tissues in the uterus.
An in utero death of the embryo or fetus prior to 20 weeks of gestation is called as a missed abortion. In this case the women may notice that the symptoms associated with early pregnancy like nausea, breast tenderness, etc have disappeared and they don’t ‘feel pregnant’ anymore. Vaginal bleeding may occur but the cervix remains closed and the ultrasound done reveals an intrauterine gestational sac with or without an embryonic/fetal pole, but no embryonic/fetal cardiac activity will be noticed.
In case of complete abortion, miscarriage occurs before the 12th week and the entire contents of conception will be expelled out of uterus. If this case, the physical examination will show a small and well contracted uterus with an open or closed cervix. There is scant vaginal bleeding with only mild cramping and ultrasound will reveal an empty uterus without any extra-uterine pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 80
Correct
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Which one of the following features indicates complete placental separation after delivery?
Your Answer: All of the options given
Explanation:At the time of delivery, the most important signs of complete placental separation are lengthening of the umbilical cord, per vaginal bleeding and change in shape of uterus from discoid to globular shape. The uterus contracts in size and rises upward.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 81
Correct
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All of the following factors are associated with an unstable lie of the foetus except?
Your Answer: Cervical fibroids
Explanation:Unstable lie means that the foetus is still changing its position even at 36 weeks of gestation. A number of factors are responsible for this positioning such as multi gravida, placenta previa, prematurity and fibroids present in the fundus. Cervical fibroids have little association with unstable lie of the foetus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 82
Correct
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A pregnant female recently underwent her antenatal screening for HIV and Hepatitis B. Which of the following additional tests should she be screened for?
Your Answer: Rubella, Toxoplasma and Syphilis
Explanation:A screening blood test for the infectious diseases HIV, Syphilis, Rubella, Toxoplasmosis and Hepatitis B is offered to all pregnant females so as to reduce the chances of transmission to the neonate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 83
Correct
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All of the following are considered complications related to cigarette smoking affecting mothers during pregnancy, except:
Your Answer: Less likely to die of sudden infant death syndrome
Explanation:The effects of smoking on the outcomes of pregnancy are well documented and include an increased risk of preterm premature rupture of the membranes (PPROM), preterm birth, low birth weight, placenta previa, and placental abruption. Many studies have shown that the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is increased by maternal smoking during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 84
Incorrect
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Which one of the following methods helps determine the fetal position and presentation?
Your Answer: All of the options given
Correct Answer: Leopold's manoeuvre
Explanation:Fetal position and presentation is best evaluated by Leopold’s manoeuvre. It will determine which part of the foetus is in the uterine fundus.
Cullen’s sign is found in ruptured ectopic pregnancy characterised by bruising and oedema of the periumbilical region.
Mauriceau-Smelli-Veit manoeuvre is done during a breech delivery. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 85
Correct
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An 19-year old female came in at the clinic for her first prenatal visit. She claims to have had regular menstrual cycles even while she was on oral contraceptives (OCP). 20 weeks ago, she stopped taking her OCPs and had a menstrual period few days after. No vaginal bleeding or fluid loss were noted since then. On physical examination, the uterus is palpated right above pubic symphysis. Fetal heartbeats are evident on handheld Doppler ultrasound. Which of the statements can mostly explain the difference between the dates and uterine size?
Your Answer: Ovulation did not occur until 6-8 weeks after her last period.
Explanation:When the palpated uterine size is in discrepancy with the expected size based on the duration of amenorrhoea, it can have several causes including reduced fluid volume or fetal growth (both of which are more common when there is fetal malformation), or miscalculated age of gestation as a result of wrong dates or actual ovulation occurring at a later date than expected. Reduced fluid volume and fetal growth are the most likely aetiologies during the third trimester of pregnancy, unlike in this patient at 20 weeks age of gestation.
Premature rupture of membranes is less likely the cause when there is negative vaginal fluid loss like this patient.
The most likely cause in this case is that ovulation did not occur as expected, especially when the patient ceased her OCPs during this period. In some instances, ovulation can occur 2 weeks later in about 50% of women, 6 weeks later in 90%, and may still not occur 12 months later in 1% of women.
The other listed statements are unlikely to explain the discrepancies in dates and the observed uterine size in this patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old primigravida female presents to the emergency department at full term. 6 hours ago, she spontaneously began labour. The membranes ruptured two hours ago and the liquor was stained with meconium. On cardiotocography (CTG) was conducted and it showed some intermittent late decelerations, from 140 to 110 beats/min. On vaginal examination, her cervix is 5 cm dilated. The foetus is in cephalic presentation, in the left occipitotransverse (LOT) position, with the bony head at the level of the ischial spines (IS). Due to the deceleration pattern, a fetal scalp pH estimation was performed and the pH was measured at 7.32. An hour later, the CTG showed the following pattern over a period of 30 minutes: Baseline 140/min, Baseline variability 1/min, Accelerations None evident, Decelerations: Two decelerations were evident, with the heart rate falling to 80/min, and with each lasting 4 minutes. Another vaginal examination is conducted and her cervix is now 8cm dilated, but otherwise unchanged from one hour previously. What would be the next best line management?
Your Answer: Augment labour with Syntocin/Voxytocin.
Correct Answer: Immediate delivery by Caesarean section.
Explanation:The next best line of management is immediate delivery via Caesarean section ( C section).
This is because of the change in cardiotocography (CTG). The pattern became much more severe with a virtual lack of short-term variability and prolonged decelerations. These changes indicate the necessity for an immediate C section as the cervix is not fully dilated.
As immediate delivery is indicated, another pH assessment is unnecessary as it would delay delivery and increase the likelihood of fetal hypoxia.
Delivery by ventose, in a primigravida where the cervix is only 8cm dilated is not indicated as it would allow the labour to proceed or augmenting with Syntocinon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 87
Correct
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A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?
Your Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein
Explanation:This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.
→ Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
→ It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
→ Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 88
Correct
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Which of the following procedures allow the earliest retrieval of DNA for prenatal diagnosis in pregnancy:
Your Answer: Chorionic Villi Sampling (CVS)
Explanation:CVS has decreased in frequency with the recent increased uptake of cell-free DNA screening. It remains the only diagnostic test available in the first trimester and allows for diagnostic analyses, including fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH), karyotype, microarray, molecular testing, and gene sequencing. CVS is performed between 10 and 14 weeks’ gestation. CVS has been performed before 9 weeks in the past, though this has shown to increase the risk of limb deformities and, therefore, is no longer recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 89
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?
Your Answer: LFT
Explanation:There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 90
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman who is multigravida and with breech presentation presented to the emergency department for vaginal delivery. Upon spontaneous rupture of the membranes, bradycardia and variable deceleration was noted on the fetal heart rate monitoring. Vaginal examination was performed and revealed cord prolapse that is still pulsating. Which of the following is considered the most appropriate next step in managing the patient?
Your Answer: Arrange for emergency caesarean delivery
Explanation:Umbilical cord prolapse (UCP) occurs when the umbilical cord exits the cervical opening before the fetal presenting part. It is a rare obstetric emergency that carries a high rate of potential fetal morbidity and mortality. Resultant compression of the cord by the descending foetus during delivery leads to fetal hypoxia and bradycardia, which can result in fetal death or permanent disability.
Certain features of pregnancy increase the risk for the development of umbilical cord prolapse by preventing appropriate engagement of the presenting part with the pelvis. These include fetal malpresentation, multiple gestations, polyhydramnios, preterm rupture of membranes, intrauterine growth restriction, preterm delivery, and fetal and cord abnormalities.
The occurrence of fetal bradycardia in the setting of ruptured membranes should prompt immediate evaluation for potential cord prolapse.
In overt prolapse, the cord is palpable as a pulsating structure in the vaginal vault. In occult prolapse, the cord is not visible or palpable ahead of the fetal presenting part. The definitive management of umbilical cord prolapse is expedient delivery; this is usually by caesarean section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 91
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
Your Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery
Explanation:Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
– In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
– Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
– Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.
Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.
Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.
In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.
Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.
After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A diminishing blood volume within the first 4 hours post-partum may be seen when a warning sign occurs. Which of the following is considered the single most important warning sign for the said situation?
Your Answer: Tachypnoea
Correct Answer: Tachycardia
Explanation:Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a cumulative blood loss greater than 1000 mL with signs and symptoms of hypovolemia within 24 hours of the birth process, regardless of the route of delivery.
The first step in managing hemorrhagic shock is recognition. This should occur before the development of hypotension. Close attention should be paid to physiological responses to low blood volume. Tachycardia, tachypnoea, and narrowing pulse pressure may be the initial signs.
Tachycardia is typically the first abnormal vital sign of hemorrhagic shock. As the body attempts to preserve oxygen delivery to the brain and heart, blood is shunted away from extremities and nonvital organs. This causes cold and modelled extremities with delayed capillary refill. This shunting ultimately leads to worsening acidosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at term.
Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.
Explanation:This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.
Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.
Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.
Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.
Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old G2P1 woman presented to the maternity unit, in labour at 38 weeks gestation. During her previous pregnancy she delivered a healthy baby through caesarean section. The current pregnancy had been uneventful without any remarkable problems in antenatal visits except for the first trimester nausea and vomiting. On arrival, she had a cervical dilation of 4 cm and the fetal head was at -1 station. After 5 hours, the cervical length and fetal head station are still the same despite regular uterine contractions. Suddenly, there is a sudden gush of blood, which is approximately 1000 ml and the fetal heart rate have dropped to 80 bpm on CTG. Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?
Your Answer: Lower genital tract lacerations
Correct Answer: Ruptured uterus
Explanation:Due to the previous history of caesarean section, uterine rupture would be the most likely cause of bleeding in this patient who is at a prolonged active phase of first stage of labour.
Maternal manifestations of uterine rupture are highly variable but some of its common features includes:
– Constant abdominal pain, where the pain may not be present in sufficient amount, character, or location suggestive of uterine rupture and may be masked partially or completely by use of regional analgesia.
– Signs of intra abdominal hemorrhage is a strong indication. Although hemorrhage is common feature, but signs and symptoms of intra-abdominal bleeding in cases of uterine rupture especially in those cases not associated with prior surgery may be subtle.
– Vaginal bleeding is not considered as a cardinal symptom as it may be modest, despite major intra-abdominal hemorrhage.
– Maternal tachycardia and hypotension
– Cessation of uterine contractions
– Loss of station of the fetal presenting part
– Uterine tenderness
As seen in this case, fetal bradycardia is the most common and characteristic clinical manifestation of uterine rupture, preceded by variable or late decelerations, but there is no other fetal heart rate pattern pathognomonic of rupture. Furthermore, fetal heart rate changes alone have a low sensitivity and specificity for diagnosing a case as uterine rupture.
Pain and persistent vaginal bleeding despite the use of uterotonic agents are characteristic for postpartum uterine rupture. If the rupture extends into the bladder hematuria may also occur.
A definite diagnosis of uterine rupture can be made only after laparotomy. Immediate cesarean section should be performed to save both the mother and the baby in cases where uterine rupture is suspected. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 95
Correct
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Which one of the following factors commonly indicate repetitive late decelerations on cardiography (CTG)?
Your Answer: Fetal hypoxia
Explanation:Repetitive late decelerations can be caused by fetal hypoxia which results in constriction of the vessels to circulate blood from the peripheries to more important organs of the body like the brain and heart etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old multigravida woman (gravida 4, para 3) presents with severe varicose veins in her legs and vulva. She is 28 weeks pregnant and reports that she feels quite uncomfortable due to the varicose veins. She has never had a similar problem in her previous pregnancies. What is the best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman?
Your Answer: Rest in bed in hospital.
Correct Answer: Use of pressure stockings and a vulva pad.
Explanation:The best method to provide symptomatic relief to this woman is to use pressure stockings and a vulval pad (correct answer). This will provide relief without causing any adverse effects.
In order to prevent ulceration, care is required to avoid trauma.
Since the patient is pregnant, surgical ligation or injecting of sclerosing solutions cannot be considered and are contraindicated.
Development of varices is often exacerbated in subsequent pregnancies; and therefore surgery should be eschewed until child-bearing is complete,
Bed rest in hospital would reduce the symptoms of the varicose veins; however this should be avoided as it can increase the risk of developing deep vein thrombosis.
Anticoagulant therapy has not been shown to be beneficial for treatment of varicosities that only affect the superficial venous system and should therefore not be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 97
Correct
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The most common aetiology for spontaneous abortion of a recognized first trimester gestation:
Your Answer: Chromosomal anomaly in 50-60% of gestations
Explanation:Chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of first trimester miscarriage and are detected in 50-85% of pregnancy tissue specimens after spontaneous miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 98
Correct
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An otherwise healthy 21 year old primigravida comes to your office for a routine visit at 16 weeks gestation. She has had a normal pregnancy to date, and her only medication is a multivitamin with 0.4 mg folic acid. You order a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein level. Adjusted for gestational age, maternal weight, and race, the results are significantly elevated. Which one of the following would you now recommend?
Your Answer: Fetal ultrasonography
Explanation:A 16-week visit is advised for all pregnant women to offer an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening for neural tube defects and Down syndrome- An AFP level 2-5 times the median value for normal controls at the same gestational age is considered elevate- Approximately 5%-10% of patients who undergo AFP screening will have an elevated level, and most of these women will have normal foetuses. Fetal ultrasonography should be performed to detect multiple gestation, fetal demise, or fetal anomalies (neural tube defects, ventral abdominal wall defects, and urinary tract anomalies) as well as to confirm gestational age, as all of these factors are associated with elevated AFP levels. Amniocentesis is offered if the ultrasonography does not indicate the reason for the elevated AFP. Chorionic villus sampling is offered in the evaluation of suspected chromosomal anomalies as an adjunct to amniocentesis. Serum hCG would be indicated in the workup of suspected Down syndrome, where the AFP would be low, not elevate- The hCG level would be expected to be over 2-5 multiples of the mean (MoM) with Down syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks of gestational age. She voices concern as she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest and arms and is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins. She wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice you can give to this patient?
Your Answer: Tell her that this is a condition which requires evaluation by a vascular surgeon
Correct Answer: Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy
Explanation:Vascular spiders or angiomas, are of no clinical significance during pregnancy as these are common findings and are form as a result of hyperestrogenemia associated with normal pregnancies. These angiomas, as they will resolve spontaneously after delivery, does not require any additional workup or treatment.
Reassurance to the patient is all that is required in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 100
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after she twisted her ankle, once initial management of her current problem is done, you realize that she is 10 weeks pregnant. On further questioning, she admits to heroin addiction and says that Doc, I sometimes need to get high on meth, but my favorite wings to fly are cocaine though, since I cannot afford it, I take a bit when I manage to crash a party. She also drinks a bottle of whisky every day. During the past few weeks, she started worrying about not being a good mother, and for this she is taking diazepam at night which she managed to get illegally. Considering everything this patient revealed, which is most likely to cause fetal malformations?
Your Answer: Alcohol
Explanation:Woman in the given case is taking a full bottle of Whisky every day. As per standards, a small glass of Whisky (1.5 Oz) is equivalent of a standard drink and a bottle definitely exceeds 12 standard drinks. This makes her fetus at significant risk for fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) which is associated with many congenital malformations. Low-set ears, midfacial hypoplasia, elongated philtrum, upturned nose and microcephaly along with skeletal and cardiac malformations are the congenital malformations commonly associated with fetal alcohol syndrome.
Health risks of benzodiazepines during pregnancy has not been clearly established, but there are inconsistent reports of teratogenic effects associated with fetal exposure to benzodiazepines. Neonatal abstinence syndrome of delayed onset can be associated with regular use of benzodiazepine in pregnancy.
Use of Amphetamine in controlled doses during pregnancy is unlikely to pose a substantial teratogenic risk, but a range of obstetric complications such as reduced birth weight and many these outcomes which are not specific to amphetamines but influenced by use of other drug and lifestyle factors in addition to amphetamine are found commonly among women who use it during pregnancy. Exposure to amphetamines in utero may influence prenatal brain development, but the nature of this influence and its potential clinical significance are not well established.
3,4- methylenedioxymetham phetamine(MOMA), which is an amphetamine derivative and commonly known as ecstasy, have existing evidences suggesting that its use during first trimester poses a potential teratogenic risk. So it is strongly recommended to avoided the use of ecstasy during 2-8 weeks post conception or between weeks four to ten after last menstrual period as these are the considered periods of organogenesis.
Role of cocaine in congenital malformations is controversial as cases reported of malformations caused by cocaine are extremely rare. However, it may lead to fetal intracranial haemorrhage leading to a devastating outcome.
Opiate addictions carry a significant risk for several perinatal complications, but it has no proven association with congenital malformation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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