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  • Question 1 - A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old lady, who has not been able to conceive even after 2 years of unprotected intercourse, has come with concerns that she might have endometriosis. She is concerned because she has a friend who recently was diagnosed with it. Which symptom profile would be expected if this woman actually has endometriosis?

      Your Answer: Dysmenorrhoea from the time of the menarche.

      Correct Answer: No abnormal bleeding or pain.

      Explanation:

      The clinical features of endometriosis include dyspareunia, dysmenorrhea, dysuria, dyschezia as well as infertility. Pain is characteristically long-term, cyclic (often occurring the same time as menses) and can get progressively worse over time. Laparoscopy remains the standard for diagnosis. There are many cases in which endometriosis is only discovered at the time of the workup for infertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17.1
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old African female presents with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old African female presents with a history of heavy menstrual bleeding and dysmenorrhoea for 4 months. Which of the following could be the most likely cause for this presentation?

      Your Answer: Fibroid

      Explanation:

      History of heavy menstrual bleeding and amenorrhoea favour the diagnosis of a fibroid uterus. All the given responses are causes for subfertility. Ectopic pregnancy presents with abdominal pain has an acute presentation. Endometriosis and adenomyosis usually don’t present with amenorrhoea or heavy bleeding respectively. PID presents with chronic pelvic pain and is not related to menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      21.7
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  • Question 3 - A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening....

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman comes to your doctor's office for a breast cancer screening. For the past year, she has been on combination hormone replacement treatment (HRT). Mammography is the sole accessible form of breast cancer screening, and she is predicted to have dense breast tissue due to HRT. Which of the following is the best HRT and breast cancer screening suggestion for this patient?

      Your Answer: Change combined HRT to oestrogen-only hormone replacement therapy

      Correct Answer: Continue HRT and perform mammography as recommended for other women

      Explanation:

      Among a variety of imaging modalities developed for breast cancer screening, mammography is the best-studied and the only imaging technique that has been shown to decrease mortality as demonstrated in multiple randomized trials. However, it is important to know that, even in the best circumstances, mammography may miss up to 20 percent of underlying breast cancers.

      Women on HRT are likely to have dense breast. Dense breasts are associated with an increased risk of breast cancer and can decrease the sensitivity of mammography for small lesions. Nevertheless, we do not alter our general approach to age- and risk-based screening based on breast density. However, for women with dense breasts, we do prefer digital mammography over film mammography, due to greater sensitivity; digital mammography is the modality typically used for mammography in most locations in the United States.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      26.5
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  • Question 4 - What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?...

    Correct

    • What is the contraception of choice for epileptics on enzyme inducing antiepileptic drugs?

      Your Answer: Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine contraceptive device.

      Explanation:

      Clinical decision making which contraceptive regimen is optimal for an individual woman with epilepsy is one of the most challenging tasks when taking care of women with epilepsy. The bidirectional interactive potential of antiepileptic drugs (AEDs) and hormonal contraceptives needs to be taken into account. Enzyme inducing (EI)-AEDs may reduce the contraceptive efficacy of hormonal contraceptives.

      If combined oral contraceptives (COCs) are used in combination with EI-AEDs, it is recommended to choose a COC containing a high progestin dose, well above the dose needed to inhibit ovulation, and to take the COC pill continuously (“long cycle therapy”). But even with the continuous intake of a COC containing a higher progestin dose contraceptive safety cannot be guaranteed, thus additional contraceptive protection may be recommended.

      Progestin-only pills (POPs) are likely to be ineffective, if used in combination with EI-AEDs.

      Subdermal progestogen implants are not recommended in patients on EI-AEDs, because of published high failure rates.

      Depot medroxyprogesterone-acetate (MPA) injections appear to be effective, however they may not be first choice due to serious side effects (delayed return to fertility, impaired bone health).

      The use of intrauterine devices is an alternative method of contraception in the majority of women, with the advantage of no relevant drug–drug interactions. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (IUS) appears to be effective, even in women taking EI-AEDs. Likelihood of serious side effects is low in the IUS users.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.5
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  • Question 5 - A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married...

    Incorrect

    • A young woman came to your clinic seeking help. She has been married for two years and has yet to conceive. The following are the findings of blood tests: Luteinizing hormone levels are low. Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) levels are low. Prolactin-high. What is the most effective way to deal with infertility?

      Your Answer: Surgical resection of pituitary tumour

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      The most common treatment approach is with the dopamine receptor agonists, bromocriptine, and cabergoline. Bromocriptine normalizes prolactin and decreases tumour size in 80%–90% of patients with microadenomas. Bromocriptine should be given to this patient who has developed hyperprolactinemia anovulation.

      Women with hyperprolactinaemic anovulation are treated with dopamine agonists such as bromocriptine.
      This patient has also developed symptoms of a low-functioning pituitary gland tumour, which bromocriptine will assist to shrink. Before starting bromocriptine, a head MRI scan should be considered to confirm the suspected diagnosis.

      Clomiphene is an oestrogen receptor modulator that is selective. It works by competing with oestrogen receptors in the hypothalamus. This disrupts normal negative feedback mechanisms, causing the release of pituitary gonadotropins, particularly LH, to rise, triggering ovulation.
      When the levels of gonadotropins and oestrogen are normal but the women still have ovulatory dysfunction, it is successful in inducing ovulation. In hypogonadotropic hypogonadism and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism patients, clomiphene is frequently ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine...

    Correct

    • A 44-year-old lady came to the clinic with a five-year history of urine incontinence. With a BMI of 34, she is fat. Her last child, weighing 4.2 kg, was born six years ago. She has been using various over-the-counter medicines to treat constipation and gastric reflux for the past three years. She is a non-smoker with normal blood pressure. Which of the following is not a risk factor for female urinary incontinence development?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

      Explanation:

      Stress UI (SUI) is more common among puerperal women, followed by mixed UI (MUI) and urge UI (UUI). Generally, episodes of urine leakage are infrequent and the amount of urine leakage is small.

      Maternal age greater than 35 years, UI during pregnancy, elevated body mass index (BMI), multiparity, and normal birth are considered risk factors for postpartum UI. A 10-year cohort study developed with the goal of assessing the effect of the first normal birth on urinary symptoms showed that it was associated with an increase in SUI, in addition to UUI, regardless of maternal age or number of births.

      Other factors such as: colour or race, episiotomy, perineal tears, newborn’s head circumference, newborn’s weight, gestational age at birth, smoking, and constipation require further studies in order to prove their association with postpartum UI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      22.6
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  • Question 7 - Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the...

    Incorrect

    • Due to her inability to conceive, a 28-year-old nulligravid lady comes to the office with her husband. The patient and her spouse had been having intercourse every other day since they stopped using barrier contraception a year ago. Every 28 days, the patient experiences a 5-day period with two days of high flow. She has transient pelvic pain 14 days after her menstruation begins, but intercourse is painless. The patient was admitted to the hospital in her late teens for a pelvic infection, and she had discomfort with intercourse, discharge, and fever during her stay. She hasn't had any previous medical or surgical procedures. Her younger sibling suffers from polycystic ovarian syndrome. The patient's husband is 32 years old, has no children, and a normal semen analysis. The patient has a blood pressure of 130/80 mm Hg and a pulse rate of 86 beats per minute. There are no anomalies on physical examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Correct Answer: Hysterosalpingogram

      Explanation:

      Primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected, timed sexual intercourse in a nulliparous patient under the age of 35. (After 35 years of age, infertility testing can begin after 6 months.) Because the patient’s partner’s sperm analysis is normal, female factor infertility is the most likely explanation. This patient’s adolescent hospitalizations are likely due to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), a common cause of infertility caused by tubal scarring and blockage.

      A hysterosalpingogram, which includes infusing radiocontrast into the cervix under fluoroscopy, is the first-line imaging technique for determining fallopian tube patency. A hysterosalpingogram is a non-invasive procedure that can detect uterine cavity irregularities (e.g., bicornuate uterus).

      Peritoneal adhesions and endometriosis can be seen and treated directly using laparoscopy.

      PID-related scarring inside the fallopian tubes can be assessed by laparoscopy with chromotubation; however, it is invasive, expensive, and not utilized first-line.

      Ovulation is detected using a mid-cycle LH level. The LH surge can be detected in urine and serum 36 hours before ovulation. Regular menstrual periods are characterized by mittelschmerz (mid-cycle pelvic pain), which indicates ovulation. As a result, an LH level would be useless.

      Ovarian reserve begins to deteriorate around the age of 35, and serum FSH levels rise in women who are losing their ability to ovulate. Because this patient is much younger and has regular periods, a drop in ovum quantity is unlikely to be the reason for infertility.

      Increased serum androgen levels can prevent ovulation by inhibiting the release of GnRH and FSH through feedback inhibition. The patient has regular cycles and no hyperandrogenic symptoms, despite her sister having polycystic ovarian syndrome (e.g., hirsutism, irregular menses).

      In a nulliparous patient under the age of 35, primary infertility is defined as the inability to conceive after a year of unprotected sexual intercourse. A hysterosalpingogram is used to determine the cause of infertility, such as tubal blockage caused by a previous pelvic infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history. Which of the following is the best treatment?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

      Correct Answer: Fluoxetine

      Explanation:

      The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
      For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
      Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
      NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      24.1
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  • Question 9 - A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old nulliparous lady came seeking contraceptive advice. She has never smoked and has no relatives who have been diagnosed with breast cancer or heart disease. Her weight is 90 kg, her height is 167 cm, her BMI is 32 kg/m2, and her blood pressure is 145/90 mmHg, as recorded on two occasions. She also suffers from hirsutism. she was diagnosed with PCOS. What are your plans for her?

      Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      Women with polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) have abnormalities in the metabolism of androgens and oestrogen and in the control of androgen production. PCOS can result from abnormal function of the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis. A woman is diagnosed with polycystic ovaries (as opposed to PCOS) if she has 20 or more follicles in at least 1 ovary. The major features of PCOS include menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism. Other signs and symptoms of PCOS may include the following:
      Hirsutism
      Infertility
      Obesity and metabolic syndrome
      Diabetes
      Obstructive sleep apnoea

      Drugs used in the treatment of polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) include metformin (off-label use), spironolactone, eflornithine (topical cream to treat hirsutism), and oral contraceptives. Oral contraceptives containing a combination of oestrogen and progestin increase sex hormone–binding globulin (SHBG) levels and thereby reduce the free testosterone level. Luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) levels are also suppressed. This restores cyclic exposure of the endometrium to oestrogen-progestin, with the resumption of menstrual periods and decreased hirsutism.

      Drug of choice for treatment of PCOS are COCs, all other options are incorrect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female came to see you because of absent menses for the last 5 months. She reports that in the past, menstrual periods were regular, every 28 days. Her first menstrual periods were at the age of 12. She is sexually active with her boyfriend and they use condoms consistently. She does not use oral contraceptive pills. She eats a healthy diet and does not smoke or drink alcohol. Physical examination is non-remarkable. Pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the evaluation of this patient?

      Your Answer: Order TSH and prolactin level

      Explanation:

      This patient presents with secondary amenorrhea, a condition diagnosed in patients with – 3 months of absence of menstruation when they had regular menstruation previously or absence of menstruation for 9 months in a patient who had oligomenorrhea- This differs from primary amenorrhea, which is defined as absence of menstrual periods in a female by the age 16 when she has other secondary sexual characteristics or absence of menstrual periods by the age of 14 when she does not have any other secondary sexual characteristics.

      In female patients of child-bearing age, the initial test in evaluating secondary amenorrhea is the pregnancy test. This test has been done in this patient and it is negative- The next step in evaluation in this patient should be serum TSH and prolactin level measurements. Thyroid disease and pituitary pathologies are some of the most common causes of secondary amenorrhea- If these tests were to be found normal, the progesterone challenge test would be the following test as this allows evaluation whether amenorrhea is due to progesterone deficiency in a patient with normal oestrogen levels.

      → Order FSH and LH level is incorrect. These studies are done if the progesterone withdrawal test is negative but the oestrogen-progesterone challenge test is positive; however, the patient should first have TSH and prolactin level measured; the progesterone withdrawal test is only done if TSH and prolactin are normal.
      → Order a progesterone withdrawal test is incorrect. As explained above, this test is ordered if TSH and prolactin levels are normal in a patient suspected to have secondary amenorrhea.
      → Order pelvic ultrasound is incorrect. This study is more important in primary amenorrhea evaluation as it can help confirm the presence or absence of a uterus. This patient who has had menstrual periods before does certainly have a uterus.
      → Order brain MRI is incorrect. Given how expensive this study is, it should not be done before prolactin levels are found to be significantly high, raising suspicion of a pituitary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      25.1
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  • Question 11 - A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old female patient walks into your office to speak with you about her recent pap smear result. A low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion was discovered (LSIL). Her most recent pap smear, performed two years ago, came back normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Correct Answer: Repeat the pap smear in one year

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age.

      For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      Referring the patient to an oncologist is not acceptable since there is no established diagnosis of malignancy that has been made. All other options are unacceptable since Pap smear must be done in 12 months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old lady comes to your office with vaginal bleeding 7 hours after sexual intercourse. She hasn't had a menstrual period in over a year. A year ago, she had a normal pap smear. She has no other symptoms and appears to be in good condition. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this woman's postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: Vaginal atrophy

      Explanation:

      Vaginal atrophy (thinning of vaginal tissue): Oestrogen helps to keep this tissue healthy. After menopause, low oestrogen levels can cause your vaginal walls to become thin, dry, and inflamed. That often leads to bleeding after sex.

      Vaginal atrophy is the most common cause of post menopausal vaginal bleeding.

      With a normal pap smear a year ago, this patient is unlikely to develop cervical cancer.

      Cervical ectropions are not common in post-menopausal women.

      Endometrial cancer and cervical polyps are possible causes of postcoital bleeding, however, they are not as common as vaginal atrophy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      14.9
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  • Question 13 - On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to...

    Incorrect

    • On the sixth day of her menstrual cycle, a 25-year-old lady comes to your clinic with slight lower abdomen pain. She has no children and lives with her male companion. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, her pulse is 90 beats per minute, and her temperature is 37.5°C. On vaginal examination, no adnexal lump is palpated, however cervical motion pain is noticed. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Urine analysis and culture

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for culture

      Explanation:

      Pain upon movement of the cervix with the health care provider’s gloved fingers is suggestive of an inflammatory process of the pelvic organs. CMT, when present, is classically found on bimanual examination of the cervix and uterus. While CMT is often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease, it can be present in other disease entities such as ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, ovarian torsion, appendicitis, and perforated abdominal viscus.

      PID is not a singular disease entity but describes a spectrum of disease. It is an upper genital tract infection, which may affect the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and peritoneum. PID can begin as cervicitis, progress to endometritis, followed by involvement of the fallopian tubes as pyosalpinx, and ultimately involve the ovary as a tubo-ovarian abscess (TOA). The two most common causative pathogens are N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis although the infection is often polymicrobial.

      Documentation of infection with either of these two organisms must be done by cervical swabs for culture.

      Transvaginal ultrasound or CT scan can be done to confirm diagnosis however the absence of findings in these investigations doesn’t rule out the possibility of PID.

      Urinalysis can be done to exclude urinary tract infection, one of the possible differential diagnosis for PID.

      Thyroid stimulating hormone has no role in the diagnosis of PID.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old unmarried female presented with dizziness, nausea and vomiting for 1 week. According to her, she has been stressed recently and her usual menstrual period has been delayed by 4 weeks. Examination findings were normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Refer to OP ENT

      Correct Answer: Dipstick for B-hCG

      Explanation:

      There is high possibility of her being pregnant. Urine B-hCG has to be checked to exclude pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache,...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved completely with the onset of menstruation. Which of the following suggests an appropriate diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Premenstrual syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient meets the diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective and somatic symptoms over the five days before menses in each of the three previous menstrual cycles are diagnostic criteria for premenstrual syndrome.
      Affective symptoms include:
      – Depression.
      – Anger outbursts.
      – Irritability.
      – Anxiety.
      – Confusion.
      – social withdrawal.
      Somatic symptoms include:
      – breast tenderness
      – abdominal bloating
      – headache and swelling of extremities.
      Symptoms normally disappear within four days of menstruation and are present even when no medical therapy, drugs, or alcohol are used.

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder is a severe form of premenstrual syndrome marked by intense melancholy, emotional lability with frequent crying, loss of interest in daily activities, reduced focus, exhaustion, sleeplessness, and a sense of being overwhelmed or out of control.
      Symptoms must have been present for the majority of the previous 12 months, interfering with daily activities.

      The diagnoses of generalised anxiety disorder and depression alone are doubtful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old lady is complaining of mucopurulent vaginal discharge. On examination, copious amounts of thick mucoid material is found to be draining out of a large cervical erosion. She has had regular pap smears since 16 years of age, which have all been normal. Her last smear was done 4 months prior. What is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Cauterisation of the cervix.

      Explanation:

      The best next step in management would be to remove the cervical ectropion using cautery. This would usually be performed under anaesthesia. It can take up to a month to heal following the procedure. Vaginal pessaries and antibiotics are typically not effective.

      Indications for a cone biopsy include an abnormal pap smear, lesion suspected to be a CIN on colposcopic examination that cannot be fully visualised as well if there is a histological discrepancy between the smear and biopsy. Colposcopic examination is also unnecessary at this stage since she has not complained of any abnormal per vaginal bleed nor is her last pap smear abnormal.

      Since the discharge is now affecting the patient’s life, treatment should be given so reassuring her that no treatment is needed is not appropriate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her...

    Incorrect

    • A young female patient presents at a family clinic seeking advice about her options for contraception. She is considering taking combined OCPS but is worried about the risk of cancer with long term use. Which of the following is increased by OCPs?

      Your Answer: Colorectal cancer

      Correct Answer: Cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      The risks of breast and cervical cancers are increased in women who use oral contraceptives, whereas the risks of endometrial, ovarian, and colorectal cancers are reduced.

      Women who have used oral contraceptives for 5 or more years have a higher risk of cervical cancer than women who have never used oral contraceptives. The longer a woman uses oral contraceptives, the greater the increase in her risk of cervical cancer.

      One study found a 10% increased risk for less than 5 years of use, a 60% increased risk with 5–9 years of use, and a doubling of the risk with 10 or more years of use. However, the risk of cervical cancer has been found to decline over time after women stop using oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 33 year old lady presented with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding. She is otherwise well and her US abdomen is normal. What is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: IUCD

      Correct Answer: Mirena coil

      Explanation:

      Mirena coil is used for contraception and for long term birth control. It causes stoppage of menstrual bleeding however, in a few cases there may be inter-menstrual spotting.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to your gynaecologic clinic with complaints of abdominal bloating, headaches, insomnia, mood swings, and reduced sexual desire. These symptoms usually get worse a few days before the onset of menstruation and get better with menstruation. The most appropriate treatment strategy for such a patient is?

      Your Answer: Antipsychotics

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is a more serious form of premenstrual syndrome (PMS). PMS causes bloating, headaches, and breast tenderness a week or two before your period.

      With PMDD, you might have PMS symptoms along with extreme irritability, anxiety, or depression. These symptoms improve within a few days after your period starts, but they can be severe enough to interfere with your life.

      PMDD symptoms appear a week or two before menstruation and go away within a few days after your period starts. In addition to PMS symptoms, you may have:

      Anger or irritability.
      Anxiety and panic attacks.
      Depression and suicidal thoughts.
      Difficulty concentrating.
      Fatigue and low energy.
      Food cravings or binge eating.
      Headaches.
      Insomnia.
      Mood swings.

      The following treatments have been shown to relieve symptoms:

      Sertraline, escitalopram, paroxetine, and fluoxetine are SSRIs (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). SSRIs are the first-line treatment and are extremely effective.
      The second line of defence is alprazolam (a short course recommended due to its addictive potential).
      The use of temazepam has little advantage because it only aids with sleep and is relatively short-acting.
      Lifestyle modifications-weight loss, exercise, quitting smoking, and relaxation therapies for less severe PMS.
      Danazol-suppresses the ovulation and helps with mastalgias associated with PMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman presents with a history of menorrhagia for 2 years. Her symptoms started after laparoscopicfilshie clip sterilization was performed 3 years ago. She has three children aged eleven, seven, and six years. Her periods used to last 10 days before she was sterilized because she didn't use any form of contraception. Her periods lasted only four days when she was on the oral contraceptive pill (OCP), which was the case right before the sterilization. At the time of sterilization, a hysteroscopic check revealed a normal uterine cavity, and no abnormalities were found during the laparoscopic surgery. Which of the following would be the best next step in management?

      Your Answer: Remove the Filshie clips.

      Correct Answer: A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID).

      Explanation:

      Although a dilatation and curettage (D&C) is frequently recommended as part of a woman’s menorrhagia examination.
      D&C is not indicated in a woman who had a normal hysteroscopy and laparoscopy only two years ago, and who experienced comparable symptoms when not taking the OCP in the past, especially after the age of 40.
      The Filshie clips should not be removed because they will not improve the symptoms.

      Although an endometrial ablation or possibly a hysterectomy may be required in the future to address the symptoms, the first line of treatment should be a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID), which will reduce the loss in up to half of the women treated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs,...

    Correct

    • Urinary incontinence has brought a 69-year-old woman to your clinic. When she laughs, sneezes, or coughs, as well as during activity, she experiences minor quantities of urine incontinence. Which of the following is the most appropriate management next step?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor muscles exercise

      Explanation:

      Pelvic floor muscle exercises are the mainstay of behavioural therapy for stress incontinence. Up to 38 percent of patients with stress incontinence alone who follow a pelvic floor muscle exercise regimen for at least three months experience a cure.

      Weighted cones or topical steroids can be used as adjuvants but are not sufficient when used alone.

      Tension free vaginal tape and Burch’s colposuspension are considered for patients who fail to respond to conservative management strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 52 years old patient wants to see her options of HRT for...

    Incorrect

    • A 52 years old patient wants to see her options of HRT for menopausal symptoms. Which statement is true about continues use of combined HRT?

      Your Answer: It increases risk of endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: It increases the risk of breast cancer

      Explanation:

      Most types of HRT increase the risk of breast cancer. But the risk is higher for those using combined HRT, which uses both oestrogen and progestogen. Vaginal oestrogens are not linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, whereas tibolone is. Taking HRT for 1 year or less only slightly increases breast cancer risk. However, the longer you take HRT the greater the risks are, and the longer they last.

      Evidence is insufficient to conclude that long-term oestrogen therapy or hormone therapy use improves cardiovascular outcomes.

      HRT containing oestrogen alone increases risk of endometrial cancer. However, this is not the case when using combined HRT.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences...

    Correct

    • You're assessing a 34-year-old lady who suffers from chronic pelvic pain. She experiences cyclic pain, mostly throughout her premenstrual and menstrual periods. She has been trying for 15 months to conceive without luck. Her pelvic check-up comes out normal. Which of the following tests would be most useful in diagnosing the source of her pain and planning preoperative disease staging?

      Your Answer: MRI

      Explanation:

      Endometriosis is a chronic gynaecological condition affecting women of reproductive age and may cause pelvic pain and infertility. It is characterized by the growth of functional ectopic endometrial glands and stroma outside the uterus and includes three different manifestations: ovarian endometriomas, peritoneal implants, deep pelvic endometriosis. The primary locations are in the pelvis; extra pelvic endometriosis may rarely occur.

      Diagnosis requires a combination of clinical history, invasive and non-invasive techniques. The definitive diagnosis is based on laparoscopy with histological confirmation. Diagnostic imaging is necessary for treatment planning. MRI is as a second-line technique after ultrasound. The MRI appearance of endometriotic lesions is variable and depends on the quantity and age of haemorrhage, the amount of endometrial cells, stroma, smooth muscle proliferation and fibrosis. The purpose of surgery is to achieve complete resection of all endometriotic lesions in the same operation.

      Owing to the possibility to perform a complete assessment of all pelvic compartments at one time, MRI represents the best imaging technique for preoperative staging of endometriosis, in order to choose the more appropriate surgical approach and to plan a multidisciplinary team work.

      Though ESR maybe elevated due to the presence of inflammation, it is not specific for endometriosis and has no role in preoperative staging. The same holds true for any possible CBC finding.

      Transvaginal ultrasound is preferred for diagnosis but doesn’t aid in preoperative staging of endometriosis.

      CA125 values are elevated in severe infiltrative endometriosis but unchanged in mild disease. Relaying on CA125 cause a high rate of false negatives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female patient, gravida 1 para 1, visits the clinic to have her contraception method evaluated. The patient has had unpredictable bleeding for the past 8 months since receiving a subdermal progestin implant and begs that it be removed. She used to use combined oral contraceptives and would like to go back to it. The patient has primary hypertension, which she was diagnosed with last year and is effectively controlled on hydrochlorothiazide. She does not take any other medications or have any allergies. Her father and brother both suffer from type 2 diabetes. The patient does not smoke, drink, or use illegal drugs. Her BMI is 24 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 130/75. Physical examinations are all normal. Which of the following is increased by using combination oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer: Breast fibroadenoma

      Correct Answer: Worsening hypertension

      Explanation:

      Overt hypertension, developing in about 5% of Pill users, and increases in blood pressure (but within normal limits) in many more is believed to be the result of changes in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, particularly a consistent and marked increase in the plasma renin substrate concentrations. The mechanisms for the hypertensive response are unclear since normal women may demonstrate marked changes in the renin system. A failure of the kidneys to fully suppress renal renin secretion could thus be an important predisposing factor. These observations provide guidelines for the prescription of oral contraceptives. A baseline blood pressure measurement should be obtained, and blood pressure and weight should be followed at 2- or 3-month intervals during treatment. Oral contraceptive therapy should be contraindicated for individuals with a history of hypertension, renal disease, toxaemia, or fluid retention. A positive family history of hypertension, women for whom long-term therapy is indicated, and groups such as blacks, especially prone to hypertensive phenomena, are all relative contraindications for the Pill.

      COCs do not increase the risk of developing breast and endometrial cancer, Type 2 DM or breast fibroadenoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman arrived at the clinic complaining of stomach discomfort and vaginal bleeding. A pregnancy test in the urine came back positive. An ultrasonography of the right fallopian tube revealed a gestational sac. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the ailment you've just read about?

      Your Answer: Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus

      Explanation:

      An ectopic pregnancy is definitely present in this patient. An extrauterine pregnancy is referred to as an ectopic pregnancy. The fallopian tube accounts for 96% of ectopic pregnancies, but other sites include the cervical, interstitial (also called cornual; a pregnancy located in the proximal segment of the fallopian tube that is embedded within the muscular wall of the uterus), hysterotomy (caesarean) scar, intramural, ovarian, or abdominal. Furthermore, multiple gestations may be heterotopic in rare situations (including both a uterine and extrauterine pregnancy). Diabetes mellitus is not considered a risk factor for the development of an ectopic pregnancy.

      Risk factors for ectopic pregnancy are summarized below:
      High Risk: (Risk factors & Odds ratio)
      Previous ectopic pregnancy 2.7 to 8.3
      Previous tubal surgery 2.1 to 21
      Tubal pathology 3.5 to 25
      Sterilization 5.2 to 19
      IUD – Past use 1.7 – Current use 4.2 to 16.4
      Levonorgestrel IUD 4.9
      In vitro fertilization in current pregnancy 4.0 to 9.3

      Moderate:
      Current use of oestrogen/progestin oral contraceptives 1.7 to 4.5
      Previous sexually transmitted infections (gonorrhoea, chlamydia) 2.8 to 3.7
      Previous pelvic inflammatory disease 2.5 to 3.4
      In utero diethylstilbesterol (DES) exposure 3.7
      Smoking – Past smoker 1.5 to 2.5 – Current smoker 1.7 to 3.9
      Previous pelvic/abdominal surgery 4.0
      Previous spontaneous abortion 3.0

      Low:
      Previous medically induced abortion 2.8
      Infertility 2.1 to 2.7
      Age ≥40 years 2.9
      Vaginal douching 1.1 to 3.1
      Age at first intercourse <18 years 1.6
      Previous appendectomy 1.6

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53...

    Incorrect

    • One year ago, Pap smear was done at your clinic for a 53 year old female patient. HPV type 42 was detected and reported as LSIL. A repeat pap smear after 12 months shows no change. What is the next best step in management?

      Your Answer: Repeat the pap smear in 12 months

      Correct Answer: Refer for colposcopy

      Explanation:

      The management of low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesions (LSIL) on cervical cytology in women ages 25 years or older depends upon whether the patient underwent high-risk human papillomavirus (HPV) testing.

      Women in this age group comprise two different populations in terms of cervical cancer screening strategies. Professional organizations recommend that women ages 25 to 29 years be screened with cytology alone, while women 30 years or older should be screened with cytology and HPV co-testing. Thus, the American Society for Colposcopy and Cervical Pathology (ASCCP) prefers that women ages 25 to 29 years are not managed based upon HPV results, even if an HPV test was performed at the time of screening. For women with ages 30 years or older and HPV positive, colposcopy must be performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old...

    Incorrect

    • The most common cause of abnormal vaginal discharge in a sexually active 19-year-old female is:

      Your Answer: Candida albicans

      Correct Answer: Mixed vaginal flora

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis is the most common cause of acute vaginitis, accounting for up to 50% of cases in some populations. It is usually caused by a shift in normal vaginal flora- Mixed vaginal flora is considerably more common as a cause of vaginal discharge than – albicans and T. vaginalis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady is diagnosed with high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL) of the cervix after standard pap smear testing. She was referred to a gynaecologist, who effectively treated her. This patient has now been returned to you. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring after treatment for HSIL includes:
      – colposcopy and cervical cytology at 4 to 6 months followed by HPV typing at 12 months and annually until a negative test is obtained on 2 subsequent check ups.
      -2 yearly screening interval can be done afterwards.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to her local Emergency Department with the complaint of feeling unwell. Her last menstrual period was eight weeks ago. Normally, she has regular monthly periods. She reports that she had heavy vaginal bleeding on the previous day; the bleeding had reduced today. On examination, she appears unwell, her pulse rate is 130 beats/min, BP is 110/60 mmHg, and temperature is 39.5°C Suprapubic tenderness and guarding is noted on abdominal examination. There is no evidence of a pelvic mass. Speculum examination shows that the cervix is open and apparent products of conception are present in the upper vagina. From the following, choose the most appropriate treatment option for optimal management of this patient.

      Your Answer: Curettage.

      Correct Answer: Cervical swabs for microscopic assessment and culture.

      Explanation:

      This woman has experienced a septic abortion. Therefore the first step is commencement of intensive antibiotic treatment as soon as cervical swabs have been taken.

      The next step is evacuation of the uterus. Curettage can be performed after a few hours, to extract any remaining infected products of conception from the uterine cavity.

      The choice of antibiotics depends on the most likely microorganism involved. Therefore, prior to commencing any other procedure, it is vital to take cervical swabs for microscopic examination to guide further antibiotic therapy (correct answer).

      If curettage is performed immediately there is a risk that the infection would spread.

      However, if Clostridium welchii infection is suspected from the cervical smear (particularly if encapsulation of the microorganisms is present), then curettage should be performed immediately along with commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Curettage can be delayed for up to 12-24 hours if other microorganisms are suspected; unless a significant increase in bleeding occurs.

      Ergometrine is not essential as an immediate treatment measure as the patient is not bleeding heavily and reports that her bleeding has decreased. However, ergometrine is commonly given when curettage is performed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old obese lady weighing 130 kilograms, is requesting for a prescription for the oral contraceptive pill (OCP). She has hirsutism and acne. She has also expressed that she occasionally suffers from migraines along with pins and needles in her left arm. Which is the best contraceptive for her?

      Your Answer: An OCP containing ethinyl oestradiol and norgestrel.

      Correct Answer: A barrier method of contraception.

      Explanation:

      OCPs which contain oestrogen and progesterone are contraindicated in women who have migraines associated with a neurological deficit or aura (pins and needles in this case). In such cases, the alternative would be Implanon (etonogestrel), however, there are mixed reviews and opinions regarding whether or not there is a decreased efficacy in heavier women. The absolute contraindication for Implanon is active breast cancer. Therefore, the best advice for her case would be some form of barrier contraceptive.

      When choosing a COCP (combined oral contraceptive pill), it is recommended that a formulation containing 20-30ug of ethinyl oestradiol is chosen. The progestogen part is responsible for prevention of conception and can be norgestrel or any other progestogens although the formulations containing norgestrel tend to be cheaper than more novel progestins such as cyproterone acetate as well as drospirenone. If the patient is known to have issues with excessive fluid retention, OCPs that has drospirenone would be the most suitable. However, if the patient is suspected to have PCOS, the best choice would be one that contains cyproterone acetate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (12/30) 40%
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