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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman presents to you for oral contraceptive pills. Her past medical history reveals that she has migraine headaches on occasions, associated with paraesthesia's in her right arm. Examination reveals that she weighs 120kg and has a BMI of 36. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate contraceptive methods for her?

      Your Answer: Condoms

      Explanation:

      This woman suffers from a classic migraine with focused neurological symptoms. The use of any OCP preparation containing oestrogen in such patients is strictly prohibited. Androgenic consequences of progesterone include hirsutism, acne, and weight gain. Progesterone of any sort (norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, etc.) should be avoided by a lady of her size; consequently, a barrier approach such as male condoms is the best option.

      It is recommended that formulations containing 20-30 mcg ethinylestradiol be evaluated first when choosing a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). The progesterone component can be norgestrel, drospirenone, cyproterone, and so on; however, norgestrel-containing formulations are less expensive and more accessible to patients.

      For specific cases, the type of progesterone should be considered:
      – Patients who have unpleasant fluid retention and weight gain as a side effect of COCPs may be administered drospirenone (Yaz®. Yasmin®)-containing preparations.
      – Drospirenone inhibits the production of mineralocorticoids and does not cause fluid retention. It may even be linked to a small amount of weight reduction.
      – A preparation containing cyproterone acetate is preferable if the patient has suspected polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 2 - A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity...

    Correct

    • A 42 years old woman presents to a gynaecologic clinic with mid-cycle, moderate-intensity abdominal pain. There is also a similar episode of pain around a month ago, which remained for about 3 days and resolved spontaneously. She is otherwise healthy with a normal regular cycle of about 28 days duration. Examination reveals normal vitals, soft and non-tender abdomen without any guarding or rebound tenderness. The most likely cause of the patient's problem is?

      Your Answer: Ovulation pain

      Explanation:

      This patient has developed symptoms of ovulation discomfort, which is also known as Mittelschmerz syndrome. Lower abdominal and pelvic pain that arises around the middle of a woman’s menstrual cycle characterises this condition.
      The discomfort usually appears suddenly and disappears within hours, though it can continue up to three days.

      The symptoms of ovulation pain can include:
      – Lower abdomen pain.
      – The pain typically occurs about two weeks before the menstrual period is due.
      – The pain is felt on the right or left side, depending on which ovary is releasing an egg.
      – The pain may switch from one side to the other from one cycle to the next, or remain on one side for a few cycles.
      The duration of pain ranges anywhere from minutes to 48 hours.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 3 - A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it...

    Incorrect

    • A 18-year-old girl arrives at the ER with severe abdominal pain. When it started, she was in the school band. She says the pain began 30 minutes ago in the left lower region and didn't radiate. On a scale of 1 to 10, the discomfort is a 7 and is not accompanied by nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. Menarche began at the age of thirteen. Her menses were erratic at first, but she has had regular periods for the past six months. Her vital signs are stable, and she has no fever. She uses combination oral contraceptives and is sexually active. She denies taking any other drugs. A flat abdomen with regular peristalsis is revealed on physical examination. Pelvic examination indicates a regular vagina with a normal-appearing cervix. There is no mucopurulent cervical discharge. Bimanual examination is remarkable with a tender 5-cm mass in the left adnexa. A pregnancy test result is negative. A pelvic sonogram exhibits a normal intrauterine pregnancy and a 5 X 6 cm complex mass of the left ovary, with focal areas of calcification. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Brenner tumour

      Correct Answer: Cystic teratoma

      Explanation:

      Mature cystic teratomas of the ovary are often discovered as incidental findings on physical examination, during radiographic studies, or during abdominal surgery performed for other indications.

      Most mature cystic teratomas can be diagnosed at ultrasonography (US) but may have a variety of appearances, characterized by echogenic sebaceous material and calcification.

      Follicular cysts are simple fluid-filled cysts and never have calcifications.

      Mucinous cystadenoma usually develop in the third to fifth decades of life and typically cause vague symptoms, such as increasing abdominal girth, abdominal or pelvic pain, emesis, fatigue, indigestion, constipation, and urinary incontinence However, calcifications are not usually seen.

      Brenner tumour is also a benign epithelial ovarian tumour but it is solid, occurring most often in women over 50 years of age.

      Serous cystadenoma also does not show calcifications.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 4 - A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old nulliparous lady has lately started having sexual encounters. She seeks your advice since she is experiencing painful coitus at the vaginal introitus. It's accompanied by painful involuntary pelvic muscular contractions. The pelvic examination is normal except for confirmation of these findings. The most prevalent cause of this ailment is one of the following?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Correct Answer: Psychogenic causes

      Explanation:

      Vaginismus is an uncontrollable painful spasm of the pelvic muscles and vaginal exit that this patient has. It’s mainly caused by psychological factors. It’s important to distinguish it from frigidity, which indicates a lack of sexual desire, and dyspareunia, which is characterized as pelvic and/or back pain or other discomfort linked with sexual activity. Endometriosis, pelvic adhesions, and ovarian neoplasms are all common causes of dyspareunia. Vaginismus pain can be psychogenic, or it might be caused by pelvic diseases like adhesions, endometriosis, or leiomyomas. Organic vulvar or pelvic reasons (such as atrophy, Bartholin gland cyst, or abscess) are extremely rare, hence vaginismus is mostly treated with psychotherapy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 5 - A 13-year-old girl, whose first period began three weeks ago, presents with very...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old girl, whose first period began three weeks ago, presents with very heavy bleeding that requires her to use twelve sanitary pads per day, and the bleeding does not appear to be decreasing. Which of the following investigations is most likely to identify the root cause of this issue?

      Your Answer: Bleeding
      oagulation profile.

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      It is usual to experience heavy, continuous bleeding around the time of menarche.
      Haemoglobin and ferritin levels are used to determine the severity of bleeding and its impact on the haemoglobin level.
      These analyses do not pinpoint the source of the problem, but they do pinpoint its consequences.
      A haematologic reason, such as thrombocytopenia, acute leukaemia, or a coagulation/bleeding issue, affects about one-third of girls with pubertal menorrhagia (e.g. von Willebrand disease).
      A complete blood examination and a bleeding
      lotting profile are required to rule out these illnesses.
      The results of a haemoglobin estimation or a ferritin level evaluation are insufficient, and the results of dilatation and curettage (D&C) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) will rarely reveal the reason for the bleeding.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 6 - A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes in with her husband, complaining of difficulty conceiving after 18 months of regular sexual activity. She inquires about the possible outcomes for the treatment of various aetiologies during the discussion on aetiology, further work-up, and treatment. Which of the following conditions has the best chance of being treated?

      Your Answer: Azoospermia

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      Treatment for infertility caused by ovulation issues has had the best results by far. PCOS, also known as Stein-Leventhal syndrome, is marked by hyperandrogenism, tiny cysts in the ovaries, acne, and hirsutism, as well as ovulation issues that result in anovulatory cycles due to hormonal imbalance.

      70% of females with anovulatory periods begin ovulation under medical supervision, and 50% of those conceive within 6 to 9 months.

      Infertility can be caused by low or no sperm counts, poor sperm motility, or dysmorphic sperms. Treatment options include fertility medicines that promote sperm production, artificial insemination with donor sperm, and intracytoplasmic injection of sperm, but success rates are poor (less than 25 percent ). Following pelvic inflammatory disease, previous surgery, or tuberculosis, the Fallopian tubes become obstructed or damaged, preventing sperm from reaching the ovum. Tubal blockages and adhesions are treated by laparoscopic surgery. The success rate of conception varies greatly depending on the degree of the blockage, ranging from 10% to 70%.

      Turner syndrome is linked to infertility and ovarian dysgenesis. Treatment for gonadal dysgenesis and reversal of infertility is not an option. Because of the high likelihood of miscarriages, even after egg donation, the success rate is relatively low.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 7 - A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman came in with a two-year history of amenorrhea and excessive facial hair growth. She had previously given birth to two children. FSH, LH, Prolactin, and oestrogen levels in the blood are all normal. The amount of testosterone in the blood is somewhat higher. More than 12 tiny cysts can be seen on a transvaginal pelvic ultrasonography. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome

      Explanation:

      This patient has experienced polycystic ovarian syndrome-like symptoms.
      At least two out of three of the following criteria must be met to diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome:
      1- Hyperandrogenism suggesting an excess of androgens e.g. excess hair growth, acne etc.
      2- Menstrual irregularities e.g. dysmenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, and amenorrhea.
      3-The ovaries are polycystic if one ovary has 12 or more follicles or if the size of one or both ovaries has risen.

      Low FSH, LH, and pituitary hormones are typically associated with hypothalamic dysfunction, however this is not the case here.
      Similarly, with premature ovarian failure, FSH/LH levels rise while oestrogen levels decrease.

      All of the other choices are incorrect.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 8 - A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-woman visits a gynaecological clinic for fertility advice. She is unable to conceive for the last 2 years. Pelvic ultrasound shows 3-4 follicles in both ovaries. An endocrinological profile is ordered showing low oestrogen, elevated FSH, and LH. What is the most suitable advice for her?

      Your Answer: Oral oestrogen

      Correct Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause has been diagnosed biochemically in this patient. Menopause is considered premature when it happens without warning in a woman under the age of 40.
      Follicular development is common in ultrasonography investigations of women with primary ovarian failure, but ovulation is rare. So this woman isn’t ovulating.

      Exogenous oestrogen treatment in physiologic amounts does not appear to improve the rate of spontaneous ovulation.
      Women with primary ovarian failure from any cause may be candidates for donor oocyte in vitro fertilisation (IVF).

      Oestrogens, clomiphene citrate, and danazol are examples of treatment approaches that have been shown to be ineffective in patients with premature ovarian failure.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old female presented with a lump in the upper outer quadrant of her left breast, which is 1.5cm in size and tender. What is the initial investigation to be done?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Explanation:

      Tenderness is usually suggestive of a benign breast mass such as a breast abscess. Ultrasound is used to distinguish solid from cystic structures and to direct needle aspiration for abscess drainage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 10 - A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia....

    Correct

    • A 34-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and complains of dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia. She has been using an IUCD for one year now and wants to know the cause of her current condition. What is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: PID

      Explanation:

      IUCD is a risk factor for PID and PID has the clinical picture already described. However, fibroids should also be excluded since they may present in the same way.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 11 - A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female is being investigated for subfertility. At what day of her menstrual cycle should blood be collected for progesterone, if she has a regular 28-day menstrual cycle?

      Your Answer: Day 7

      Correct Answer: Day 21

      Explanation:

      Maximum levels of progesterone are detected at day 21 of 28 days in the menstrual cycle, assuming that ovulation has occurred at day 14. A value of >30nmol/l indicates an ovulatory cycle.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 12 - A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening...

    Correct

    • A 33 year old female patient with high grade abnormality on cervical screening test was referred to see a gynaecologist at your clinic. Colposcopy reveals abnormal cells higher in the cervical canal. What is the next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Cone biopsy

      Explanation:

      If abnormal cells are found high up in the cervical canal, it is critical to consider doing a cone biopsy to rule out any cervical malignancy. A cone-shaped section of the cervix containing the abnormal cells is removed under general anaesthesia.
      Loop Electrosurgical Excision Procedure is a way of removing the abnormal cells from the cervix using a wire loop. First a speculum is inserted to open the vagina so the uterus can be seen. Then a solution is applied to the surface of the cervix to make the areas of abnormal cells easier to see. It is done under local anaesthesia.

      Cone biopsy is the only acceptable option to rule out malignancy. Cryotherapy, chemotherapy and radiotherapy are management options once malignancy has been confirmed.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 13 - A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old college student comes to your clinic for contraception guidance. For the past three months, she has had migraine-like headaches once or twice a month. For the past two years, she has been taking combined oral contraceptive pills. Which of the following suggestions is the most appropriate?

      Your Answer: Discontinuation of combined oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: Stopping the combined oral contraceptive pills and starting progesterone only pills (POP)

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptives are a safe and highly effective method of birth control, but they can also raise problems of clinical tolerability and/or safety in migraine patients. It is now commonly accepted that, in migraine with aura, the use of combined oral contraceptives is always contraindicated, and that their intake must also be suspended by patients suffering from migraine without aura if aura symptoms appear.

      Discontinuation of contraception could risk in pregnancy. Barrier methods can be used but aren’t as effective as pills.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 14 - Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining...

    Incorrect

    • Endometrial ablation is a medical technique that removes or destroys the endometrial lining in women who have severe monthly flow. Endometrial ablation is not contraindicated by which of the following?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Completed family

      Explanation:

      Endometrial ablation is primarily intended to treat premenopausal women with heavy menstrual bleeding (HMB) who do not desire future fertility. Women who choose endometrial ablation often have failed or declined medical management.

      Absolute contraindications to endometrial ablation include pregnancy, known or suspected endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, desire for future fertility, active pelvic infection, IUD currently in situ, and being post-menopausal. In general, endometrial ablation should be avoided in patients with congenital uterine anomalies, severe myometrial thinning, and uterine cavity lengths that exceed the capacity of the ablative technique (usually greater than 10-12 cm).

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 15 - A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old lady complains of a mild discomfort in her lower abdomen. She attained menopause 6 years ago whereas her last vaginal examination 2 years prior, was normal. She now has a palpable mass measuring 8cm in diameter in the left ovarian area. Which is the best next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Parenteral progestogens.

      Correct Answer: Admission to hospital for early surgical exploration.

      Explanation:

      This lady should be admitted to hospital for early surgical exploration. Taking into account her age, mild abdominal discomfort and a palpable lower abdominal mass, it is imperative that ovarian malignancy be ruled out as soon as possible. Patients with ovarian malignancy often present in advanced stages of cancer as the symptoms tend to be occult and non-specific. Other things to include in her workup would be her CA125 level. Any form of hormonal therapy is contraindicated until ovarian malignancy has been ruled out. A pap smear is not relevant here since we are suspecting an ovarian malignancy rather than cervical. Evaluation of her mass takes priority over an assessment for osteoporosis.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 16 - A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is being tested for a breast tumour she discovered last week during a routine physical examination. Two years ago, the patient had bilateral reduction mammoplasty for breast hyperplasia. Her paternal grandmother died of breast cancer at the age of 65, thus she doesn't take any drugs or have any allergies. A fixed lump in the upper outer quadrant of the right breast is palpated during a breast examination. In the upper outer quadrant of the right breast, mammography reveals a 3 × 3-cm spiculated tumour with coarse calcifications. A hyperechoic mass can be seen on ultrasonography of the breast. The mass is removed with concordant pathologic findings, and a core biopsy reveals foamy macrophages and fat globules. Which of the following is the best plan of action for this patient's management?

      Your Answer: Reassurance and routine follow-up

      Explanation:

      Fat necrosis is a benign (non-cancerous) breast condition that can develop when an area of fatty breast tissue is injured. It can also develop after breast surgery or radiation treatment.

      There are different stages of fat necrosis. As the fat cells die, they release their contents, forming a sac-like collection of greasy fluid called an oil cyst. Over time, calcifications (small deposits of calcium) can form around the walls of the cyst, which can often be seen on mammograms. As the body continues to repair the damaged breast tissue, it’s usually replaced by denser scar tissue. Oil cysts and areas of fat necrosis can form a lump that can be felt, but it usually doesn’t hurt. The skin around the lump might look thicker, red, or bruised. Sometimes these changes can be hard to tell apart from cancers on a breast exam or even a mammogram. If this is the case, a breast biopsy (removing all or part of the lump to look at the tissue under the microscope) might be needed to find out if the lump contains cancer cells. These breast changes do not affect your risk for breast cancer.

      Mastectomy, axillary node dissection and radiation therapy are all management options for malignancy which this patient doesn’t have.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old white female consults you with a complaint of irregular heavy menstrual periods. Her general physical examination, pelvic examination, and HPV test are normal and she has a negative pregnancy test. A CBC and chemistry profile are also normal. The next step in her workup should be:

      Your Answer: Cyclic administration of progesterone for 3 months

      Explanation:

      Abnormal uterine bleeding is a relatively common disorder which may be due to functional disorders of the hypothalamus, pituitary, or ovary, as well as uterine lesions. However, the patient who is younger than 30 years of age will rarely be found to have a structural uterine defect. Once pregnancy, hematologic disease, and renal impairment are excluded, administration of intramuscular or oral progesterone will usually produce definitive flow and control the bleeding. No further evaluation should be necessary unless the bleeding recurs.

      Endometrial aspiration, dilatation and curettage, and other diagnostic procedures are appropriate for recurrent problem or for older women. Oestrogen would only increase the problem, which is usually due to anovulation with prolonged oestrogen secretion, producing a hypertrophic endometrium.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 18 - During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid...

    Correct

    • During her first month on OCPs, a patient had minimal bleeding at mid cycle. What is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Continue pills as usual.

      Explanation:

      Breakthrough bleeding, or spotting, refers to when vaginal bleeding occurs between menstrual cycles. It may look like light bleeding or brown discharge.

      Spotting is the most common side effect of birth control pills. It happens because the body is adjusting to changing levels of hormones, and the uterus is adjusting to having a thinner lining.

      Taking the pill as prescribed, usually every day and at the same time each day, can help prevent bleeding between periods.

      All other options are incorrect as this is a common side effect and will resolve on its own.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 19 - A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She...

    Correct

    • A 38 year old woman has had amenorrhea for a year now. She admits she stopped her COCP treatment 18 months ago. Her blood exams reveal the following: FSH=8, LH=7, Prolactin=400, Oestradiol=500. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

      Explanation:

      Functional Hypothalamic Amenorrhea (FHA) is a form of chronic anovulation, due to non-identifiable organic causes and often associated with stress, weight loss, excessive exercise, or a combination thereof. Investigations should include assessment of systemic and endocrinologic aetiologies, as FHA is a diagnosis of exclusion. A multidisciplinary treatment approach is necessary, including medical, dietary, and mental health support. Medical complications include, among others, bone density loss and infertility.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 20 - A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman admitted with per vaginal bleeding and left sided pelvic pain for 2 days. There was no history of fever. She gave a history of absent periods for past 8 weeks. Abdominal examination revealed guarding and rebound tenderness in left iliac region. There was left sided cervical excitation on vaginal examination. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ovarian Torsion

      Correct Answer: Ectopic Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      History of amenorrhoea, abdominal and vaginal examination are more favour of ectopic pregnancy. Endometriosis usually has a chronic cause and dysmenorrhoea. Salpingitis usually presents with fever. Ovarian torsion and ovarian tumours have different clinical presentations.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 21 - A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey...

    Correct

    • A 38-year-old female patient comes to your office complaining of a foul-smelling grey vaginal discharge. Bacteria adhering to vaginal epithelial cells are visible under light microscopy using a wet mount preparation. Which of the following creatures is most likely to be a pathogen?

      Your Answer: Gardnerella vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Gardnerella vaginalis is one of the bacteria implicated in the development of bacterial vaginosis , many women (>50%) with this vaginal infection have no signs or symptoms, when these are present they are most often :
      Vaginal discharge, grey, white or green, with a strong unpleasant odour
      Strong vaginal odour and fishy smell after sex
      Vaginal itching
      Burning during urination
      Vaginal bleeding after sex
      Gardnerella vaginalis can also be responsible for serious infections (sepsis, wound infections) in locations other than those associated with the genital tract or obstetrics, these cases are very rare but have been reported, including in men.

      Mycoplasma Hominis is one of the organisms involved in the pathogenesis of BV but it appears normal on wet mount.

      Candida presents with white cottage cheese like discharge.

      Chlamydia is not seen on wet mount and produces clear vaginal discharge.

      Trichomonas shows clue cells on wet mount.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman, who had her last menstrual period at age 49, presented with an episode of per vaginal bleeding two weeks ago. It lasted four days in duration. A reduction in the severity of hot flushes as well as some breast enlargement preceded the bleeding episode. What is the most likely cause of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Atrophic vaginitis.

      Correct Answer: An episode of ovarian follicular activity.

      Explanation:

      It has been found that it is possible for premenopausal hormones to persist for a period of time after attaining menopause. If one or a few ovarian follicles remain, they could produce oestrogen in response to the very elevated levels of FSH typically seen in menopause. In doing so, the woman can then bleed as a result of this physiological response. The symptoms seen in this vignette are consistent with the rise in oestrogen levels, likely due to follicular activity.

      In the absence of any pathological findings such as endometrial carcinoma, this phenomenon would be the most likely cause of this post-menopausal bleed. Furthermore, it is unlikely for cervical cancer and endometrial cancer to present during the first few years following menopause. Atrophic vaginitis is unlikely to be associated with the other symptoms the patient presented with i.e. reduction in the intensity of hot flushes and breast enlargement. This patient was not stated to have any risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia such as obesity, late menopause and early menarche, which makes it a less likely diagnosis.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 23 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat pap smear immediately

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 24 - A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence....

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman presents to your clinic with symptoms suggestive of urge incontinence. She is otherwise healthy and there is a history of a large amount of fluid intake daily as she believes it lowers her risk of genitourinary infections. Urinalysis and urine culture are performed which come back negative. The diagnosis of urge incontinence was suggested by physical examination and confirmed by cystometry. What should be the appropriate next step of management for such a patient?

      Your Answer: Prescribe an anticholinergic.

      Correct Answer: Instruct her to eliminate excess water and caffeine from her daily fluid intake.

      Explanation:

      Urge incontinence is involuntary pee loss accompanied by a strong desire to urinate. The most common cause of urge incontinence is detrusor or bladder dyssynergia, which is characterized by an involuntary contraction of the bladder during urine distension.

      Bladder training, eliminating excess coffee and fluid intake, biofeedback, and pharmacological therapy are all options for treating urge incontinence. Treatment with anticholinergic medicines (oxybutynin chloride), -sympathomimetic agonists (metaproterenol sulphate), Valium, antidepressants (imipramine hydrochloride), and dopamine agonists (Parlodel) has proven successful if conservative approaches fail.

      The detrusor muscle will be relaxed by these pharmacologic drugs. Oestrogen therapy may improve urine control in postmenopausal women who are not on oestrogen replacement therapy. Kegel exercises can help women with stress urinary incontinence strengthen their pelvic musculature and improve bladder control.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 25 - A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old girl, with menarche at age 12, presents with a 2-year duration of severe dysmenorrhea. Analgesia with paracetamol, panadeine as well as indomethacin did not provide much relief. The girl is very concerned that the underlying cause could be something sinister. What is the most likely cause of her dysmenorrhea?

      Your Answer: Chronic pelvic infection.

      Correct Answer: Endometrial prostaglandin release.

      Explanation:

      It is less common for a girl of this age to develop fibroids, endometriosis and endometrial polyps, although these are all causes of severe dysmenorrhea. Chronic pelvic infection can be due to sexually transmitted disease but the history does not mention any previous episodes of pelvic pain or symptoms of infection such as fever. In this case, it is most likely that she has primary dysmenorrhea. Primary dysmenorrhea, in which no pathological cause can be identified, is believed to be due to the prostaglandins released by the secretory endometrium. If secondary dysmenorrhea is suspected, then endometriosis would be the most prominent cause.

      While hysteroscopic and laparoscopic examinations are commonly done in adult women to rule out organic causes such as those mentioned earlier, in younger girls, they are usually only carried out if pain management with, for example, NSAIDs and the use of COCPs, have failed to either provide symptom relief or reduction.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 26 - A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old on combined oral contraceptive pills for the last 3 years. She complains of migraine two to three times a month for the last 6 months. What should be best appropriate advice to her?

      Your Answer: Stop combined oral contraceptive pills and prescribe progestogen only pills

      Explanation:

      While on combination oral contraceptive tablets, this patient had a migraine. After a conversation about adverse effects, stop the combo medications and prescribe her progestogen-only pills.
      The following are reasons why progestogen-only pills should be your first choice:
      1-Age of 45 or more years
      2-Smokers who are 45 years old or older
      3-Oestrogen contraindications
      4-Melitus Diabetes
      5-A headache (combined oral contraceptive pills have absolute contraindication)
      6-Hypertension under control
      7-Lactation
      8-Chloasma.

      Pregnancy, undetected genital tract bleeding, and concurrent use of enzyme-inducing medications are all contraindications to using progestogen-only pills.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 27 - a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief...

    Incorrect

    • a 24 year old female patient comes to your office with a chief complaint of painless vaginal bleeding of 1 week duration. She had 3 episodes of bleeding and is on contraceptive pills. Her Pap smear screening is up to date with normal findings. Which is the cause for her bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical polyp

      Correct Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      Cervical ectropion occurs when glandular cells develop on the outside of the cervix. Many individuals with cervical ectropion do not experience symptoms.
      However, the primary symptom of cervical ectropion is a red, inflamed patch at the neck of the cervix.
      The transformation zone appears this way because the glandular cells are delicate and irritate easily.
      Other symptoms a woman may experience include:
      pain and bleeding during or after sex
      pain during or after cervical screening
      light discharge of mucus
      spotting between periods
      Symptoms may range from mild to severe when they appear.

      This patient has normal pap smear and is unlikely to have cervical cancer. She has no fever and vaginal discharge which would be the presentation of Chlamydia infection.

      Endometrial cancer affects mainly post menopausal women and presents with vaginal bleeding, weight loss, dysuria and dyspareunia.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 28 - A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient seeks your opinion on an abnormal Pap smear performed by a nurse practitioner at a family planning facility. A high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion is visible on the Pap smear (HGSIL). Colposcopy was performed in the office. The impression is of acetowhite alterations, which could indicate infection by HPV. Chronic cervicitis is present in your biopsies, but there is no indication of dysplasia. Which of the following is the most suitable next step in this patient's care?

      Your Answer: Repeat the Pap smear in 3 to 6 months

      Correct Answer: Conization of the cervix

      Explanation:

      When cervical biopsy or colposcopy doesn’t explain the severity of the pap smear results cone biopsy is done. In 10% of biopsies, results will be different from that of the pap smear as in this patient with pap smear showing HSIL and colposcopy showing chronic cervicitis.

      In such cases conization is indicated. Repeating the pap smear could risk prompt management of a serious problem. No destructive procedure, ablation or cryotherapy, should be done before diagnosis is certain.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 29 - Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one will decrease the risk of acquiring uterine fibroids?

      Your Answer: First degree relatives with fibroid

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Risk factors of fibroids include early menarche, nulliparity, early exposure to oral contraceptives (one study showed 13-16 years old), diet rich in red meats and alcohol, vitamin D deficiency, hypertension, obesity, and/or history of sexual or physical abuse.

      Smoking is associated with actual reduced risk due to an unknown mechanism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 30 - After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has...

    Incorrect

    • After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: In-vitro fertilization

      Correct Answer: Suggest her to lose weight

      Explanation:

      This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
      Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
      A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
      As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
      Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 31 - Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk...

    Incorrect

    • Of the following, which one has the greatest effect on the relative risk of developing endometrial carcinoma?

      Your Answer: Infertility

      Correct Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

      Explanation:

      The factor associated with the greatest relative risk for endometrial carcinoma is polycystic ovary syndrome, which has a relative risk of 75. The use of long-term high doses of postmenopausal oestrogen carries an estimated risk of 10-20. Living in North America or Europe also has an estimated risk of 10-20.

      A lower relative risk is associated with nulliparity, obesity, infertility, late menopause, older age, and white race- The relative risk associated with these factors falls into the range of 2-5. Early menarche, higher education or income levels, menstrual irregularities, and a history of diabetes, hypertension, gall bladder disease, or thyroid disease have a relative risk of around 1.5-2.0.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 32 - A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25 year old female with her LRMP 8 weeks ago, presented with severe abdominal pain and per vaginal bleeding. On examination there was tenderness over her left iliac region. Her pulse rate was 110 bpm and blood pressure was 90/65mmHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Laparoscopy

      Correct Answer: Immediate laparotomy

      Explanation:

      A ruptured ectopic pregnancy is the most probable diagnosis. As she is in shock (tachycardia and hypotension) immediate laparotomy is needed.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 33 - A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your...

    Correct

    • A 23 year old female patient with DVT on anticoagulant came to your clinic for advice. She is on combined OCPs. What would you advice her?

      Your Answer: Progesterone only pill

      Explanation:

      Women with medical conditions associated with increased risk for thrombosis generally should not use oestrogen-containing contraceptives.

      The majority of evidence identified does not suggest an increase in odds for venous or arterial events with use of most POCs. Limited evidence suggested increased odds of VTE with use of injectables (three studies) and use of POCs for therapeutic indications (two studies, one with POCs unspecified and the other with POPs).

      Discontinuing anticoagulants increases her risk of recurrent DVT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 34 - A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed....

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with an irregular menstrual bleed. She is a known to the case of multiple uterine fibroids. Her past surgical history is significant for tubal ligation and dilation and curettage without any definite diagnosis or any improvement in her symptoms. Examination reveals an enlarged uterus of about 12-week gravid size. A complete blood picture shows anaemia (Hb 80g/L). What should be the next step in the management of such a patient?

      Your Answer: Myomectomy

      Correct Answer: Total abdominal hysterectomy

      Explanation:

      Fibroids (uterine leiomyomas) are benign uterine tumours. Asymptomatic uterine leiomyomas merely require follow-up without any specific intervention because histological confirmation of the clinical diagnosis is not required in most cases.

      Symptoms and consequences necessitate treatment. The definitive therapy is hysterectomy. Other options include various types of myomectomy, endometrial ablation, uterine artery embolization, and myolysis.
      The following situations call for a hysterectomy:

      Women suffering from an acute haemorrhage who have failed to react to various treatments
      Women who are finished having children who are at risk for other disorders (cervical intraepithelial neoplasia, endometriosis, adenomyosis, endometrial hyperplasia, or greater risk of uterine or ovarian cancer) that a hysterectomy might eliminate or reduce.

      Women who have had previous attempts at minimally invasive therapy for leiomyomas failed.
      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a desire for a permanent cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the procedure of choice.
      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to keep their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have further children, has had her tubes tied, and is experiencing painful symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is superior to endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea is achieved after endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas remain untreated.

      Women who have previously failed minimally invasive treatment for leiomyomas

      Women who have finished having children and have severe symptoms, many leiomyomas, and a strong desire for a cure.

      If a hysterectomy is planned, total abdominal hysterectomy is the preferred technique.

      A course of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists followed by myomectomy is the therapy of choice for women who want to maintain their capacity to bear children.

      Total abdominal hysterectomy is the best option for this woman who does not want to have any more children and has had her tubal ligation removed. She also has troublesome symptoms and anaemia.
      Hysterectomy is better than endometrial ablation.

      Amenorrhea can be accomplished with endometrial ablation, however, leiomyomas are not.

      Myomectomy is not recommended unless you want to increase your fertility. There is a chance of recurrence, which would demand additional procedures. It will also be difficult to remove all of the leiomyomas if the uterus is enlarged with several leiomyomas. Remaining leiomyomas might grow and cause symptoms again over time.

      Hormonal therapies such as combination contraceptive tablets, progesterone-only approaches, danazol, and others have been used with anecdotal results on symptoms like menorrhagia. Some have dubious efficacy, while others with confirmed efficacy have unfavourable side effects, restricting their use.
      In leiomyomas-related menorrhagia, NSAIDs have not been widely researched. Although NSAIDs do not appear to diminish blood loss in women with leiomyomas, they do lower painful menses and may be effective for this.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 35 - A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her...

    Incorrect

    • A 21 year old married gravida 1 para 1 has not used her oral contraceptives for 6 months. She comes to your office for evaluation because her menstrual period is 2 weeks late. Her menses had been regular since discontinuing the oral contraceptives. A urine hCG is negative. Which one of the following is true regarding this situation?

      Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasonography should be performed

      Correct Answer: It is unlikely that she is pregnant

      Explanation:

      With the high level of sensitivity and specificity of current tests to measure hCG in serum and urine, pregnancy can now be diagnosed before the time of the first missed menstrual period- For current serum hCG assays, the low threshold for detection is 10-25 IU/L, while for urine assays it is 25-50 IU/L, which corresponds to approximately the seventh day after conception. Because the levels of hCG in the blood and urine are very similar, the tests are equivalent. Urine testing may reveal a positive result as early as 3-4 days after implantation. By the time of the expected menstrual period, the test will be positive 98% of the time- If a test is negative more than 1 week after the expected time of the menstrual period, it is almost certain the patient is not pregnant. To cover these rare instances where a woman has a low hCG and conceived later than expected, the test should be repeated in 1 week for a definitive result.

      Since ectopic pregnancy is not a life-threatening problem for the mother until 2 months after conception, a patient with a negative urine hCG does not require ultrasonography to exclude ectopic pregnancy. Patients with a suspected ectopic pregnancy and a negative urine hCG should be followed closely, as early laparoscopic intervention can improve the chances of future fertility.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 36 - A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old lady complained of pelvic pain for three months. A tumour in her right iliac fossa was discovered during an examination. An ovarian cyst measuring 8 cm x 12 cm is visible on ultrasonography. What is the next management step?

      Your Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist

      Explanation:

      Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
      In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.

      Premenopausal women with asymptomatic simple cysts smaller than 8cm on sonograms in whom the CA125 value is within the reference range may be monitored, with a repeat ultrasonographic examination in 8-12 weeks.

      Persistent simple ovarian cysts larger than 5-10 cm, especially if symptomatic, and complex ovarian cysts should be considered for surgical removal.

      For this patient, a premenopausal woman, with an ovarian cyst size 8 cm x 12cm. Surgical management is indicated, hence referral to gynaecologist is appropriate.

      Laparotomy or laparoscopic excision of cyst should be considered and performed by the gynaecologist not general practitioner.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 37 - A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old lady (gravida 0, para-O) presents with occasional lower abdomen discomfort. She is not sexually active and her periods last between 32 and 35 days. Her most recent regular menstrual period began three weeks ago. A pelvic ultrasound was performed which shows a normal uterus, left ovary, and a thin unilocular cyst in the right ovary around 4 cm in size. The most likely cause of this ultrasound finding is?

      Your Answer: A follicular cyst.

      Explanation:

      If one believes that this cycle will last 35 days, the cyst in the left ovary was discovered at mid-cycle.
      It’s too huge to be a ruptured pre-ovulatory follicle, and it doesn’t exhibit the characteristics of a corpus luteum, a benign cystic teratoma, or an endometrioma.

      As a result, a follicular cyst is the most likely diagnosis.

      A benign cyst is almost always seen on ultrasound as a unilocular, thin-walled cystic formation.

      The presence of solid materials in a multiloculated cystic structure strongly suggests the presence of a malignant mass.
      In a 25-year-old woman, this would be unusual, but not unheard of.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 38 - A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes in for a prenatal appointment. She eats only vegetables. Which of the following is the most appropriate suggestion for folic acid supplementation?

      Your Answer: She should be started on folic acid 0.5 mg per day

      Explanation:

      Folate has been in the news because of its connection with a type of birth defect called neural tube defect. Studies have shown that women who have infants with neural tube defects have lower intakes of folate and lower blood folate levels than other women. Folate is needed early in pregnancy (before many women know they are pregnant) for normal neural tube development.

      Many vegan foods including enriched bread, pasta, and cold cereal; dried beans; green leafy vegetables; and orange juice are good sources of folate. Vegan diets tend to be high in folate, however, to be on the safe side, women capable of becoming pregnant should take a supplement or use fortified foods that provide 400 micrograms of folate daily.

      For the above mentioned reasons, all other options are incorrect.

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  • Question 39 - You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has...

    Correct

    • You're looking after a 24-year-old woman who is experiencing pelvic pain. She has one-sided pain that is widespread and mild, but can be intense at times. Menstruation has been regular. She denies having fever. With the exception of a smooth movable adnexal mass on the right side, her pelvic examination seems normal. Which of the following is the most likely reason for your discomfort?

      Your Answer: Ovarian cyst

      Explanation:

      An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign. Most patients with ovarian cysts are asymptomatic, with the cysts being discovered incidentally during ultrasonography or routine pelvic examination. Some cysts, however, may be associated with a range of symptoms, sometimes severe, including the following:

      Pain or discomfort in the lower abdomen

      Severe pain from torsion (twisting) or rupture – Cyst rupture is characterized by sudden, sharp, unilateral pelvic pain; this can be associated with trauma, exercise, or coitus. Cyst rupture can lead to peritoneal signs, abdominal distention, and bleeding (which is usually self-limited)
      Discomfort with intercourse, particularly deep penetration
      Changes in bowel movements such as constipation
      Pelvic pressure causing tenesmus or urinary frequency
      Menstrual irregularities
      Precocious puberty and early menarche in young children
      Abdominal fullness and bloating
      Indigestion, heartburn, or early satiety
      Endometriomas – These are associated with endometriosis, which causes a classic triad of painful and heavy periods and dyspareunia
      Tachycardia and hypotension – These may result from haemorrhage caused by cyst rupture
      Hyperpyrexia – This may result from some complications of ovarian cysts, such as ovarian torsion
      Adnexal or cervical motion tenderness

      Underlying malignancy may be associated with early satiety, weight loss
      achexia, lymphadenopathy, or shortness of breath related to ascites or pleural effusion

      The absence of fever or vaginal discharge rules out PID

      The absence of pain on the right lower quadrant, fever, nausea and vomiting rule out appendicitis.

      The patient has regular menses, no vaginal bleeding no signs of shock that rules out ectopic pregnancy.

      her symptoms are also not consistent with the presentation of leiomyoma. Leiomyoma presents with enlarged uterus, pelvic pressure. It early causes pain when it is complicated with red degeneration which usually occurs in pregnancy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 40 - 48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test...

    Incorrect

    • 48 hours after having unprotected intercourse, a 16-year-old female requested a pregnancy test from her GP. What advice can you give her regarding the reliability of pregnancy testing at this time?

      Your Answer: Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Even if conception has already occurred, beta hCG is likely to be normal. Beta hCG is made by syncytiotrophoblast cells following conception. It then activates the corpus luteum to continuously produce progesterone for implantation to happen. In week 10/40, levels of HCG peak and the placenta can produce adequate progesterone by itself. As a general rule, a beta HCG concentration >25 U/I or a doubling of levels of HCG within two days is required to diagnose pregnancy. A urine pregnancy test would only likely prove positive around 8 days to 2 weeks following conception.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 41 - A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She explains she has had 2...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old woman presents to the clinic. She explains she has had 2 episodes of postcoital bleeding. Her previous medical history reveals she is currently taking the oral contraceptive pill (OCP) and has never had an abnormal pap smear, including one that was performed a year ago. What is the most probable cause of her postcoital bleeding?

      Your Answer: A cervical ectropion

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her postcoital bleeding is cervical ectropion as suggested by her postcoital bleeding, normal pap smears and use of oral contraceptive pills.

      Cervical ectropion is a benign condition that occurs as a result of overexposure to oestrogen. Here, glandular cells (the columnar epithelium) lining the endocervix, begin to grow on the ectocervix, leading to exposure of the columnar cells to the vaginal environment.

      These columnar cells are prone to trauma and bleeding during coitus.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 42 - A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11...

    Correct

    • A young couple, both 26 years of age, presents to you with 11 months’ duration of infertility. On investigation, she is found to be ovulating, and her hysterosalpingogram is normal. On semen analysis, the following results were found: Semen volume 5mL (2-6 mL) Sperm count 1 million/mL * (>20 million) Motility 15% (>40%) Abnormal forms 95% (<60%) A second specimen three months later confirms the above results. Which would be the most suitable next step in management?

      Your Answer: Carry out in vitro fertilisation (IVF) using intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI).

      Explanation:

      Achieving spontaneous pregnancy is rare in cases where a couple have been infertile with abnormal semen analysis (count <5million/mL and reduced motility), hence there is generally an indication for treatment. FSH injection usually would not be expected to improve the semen specimen. Rate of pregnancy would be much lower if at the time of intrauterine insemination, the total motile count is less 5 million. In this case, his count is 1 million. Pregnancy is likely to be achieved with donor sperm but as it would not contain the husband’s genetic material, it would be only considered later on once all other methods involving his own sperm have failed. Out of all the options, IVF would most likely result in a pregnancy, in which it allows the husband’s sperm to spontaneously fertilise the oocyte. Rate of pregnancy would roughly be 2% per treatment cycle. This rate would increase to roughly 20% if ISCI is also used.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 43 - A 29 year old obese woman presents complaining of difficult or painful sexual...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 year old obese woman presents complaining of difficult or painful sexual intercourse and dysmenorrhea. She is requesting a reversible contraceptive method. Which of the following would be most suitable?

      Your Answer: Progestogen only pill (POP)

      Correct Answer: Mirena

      Explanation:

      Mirena is a form of contraception also indicated for the treatment of heavy menstrual bleeding and the management of dysmenorrhea, being able to reduce the latter considerably.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 44 - Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which is not part of post natal urinary incontinence management?

      Your Answer: Reduce caffeine intake

      Correct Answer: Good control of blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Thee good news in regard to incontinence after childbirth is that there are many treatment options. Some common treatment options are listed below.

      Food and drinks such as coffee, citrus, spicy foods and soda can all irritate the bladder. Cutting back on or eliminating these foods may help improve incontinence symptoms. Keeping weight within a healthy BMI range, and/or focusing on losing pregnancy weight, can also help with bladder control.

      Kegels strengthen the pelvic floor, giving more control over urinary urges. Pelvic floor physical therapy can also help build muscle memory and strength. The abdominal muscles, hip muscles and pelvic floor muscles work together when a woman performs strengthening exercises like Kegels. Physical therapists identify areas of weakness in those muscle groups to help a woman build a strong core and pelvic floor.

      The bladder is a muscle that should be regularly strengthened. Scheduling urination times and then gradually increasing the amount of time in between urination can increase bladder strength.

      Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation is a nonsurgical treatment for overactive bladder and a form of neuromodulation therapy. During PTNS treatments, a doctor places a slim needle in the ankle where the tibial nerve is located. The needle delivers electrical impulses to the tibial nerve, which sends signals to the sacral nerves in the spine that control bladder and pelvic floor function. Over time, these pulses block nerve signals that are not working properly to lessen urinary incontinence symptoms.

      Evaluating lifestyle factors. Excessive coughing due to smoking or being overweight can put unnecessary strain on the pelvic floor muscles. Certain drugs such as antidepressants and antihistamines can also have an impact on urinary incontinence.
      Pessary. A pessary is a device inserted into the vagina to provide support for vaginal tissues, in turn, aiding in bladder incontinence.

      Surgical treatment options can help support the pelvic floor and may be recommended for women who have completed childbearing and have not had success with conservative therapy.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 45 - A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old woman presents to the clinic complaining of a one week history of light vaginal bleeding. Her past medical history reveals she had a lumpectomy, postoperative radiotherapy, adjuvant chemotherapy and tamoxifen therapy 3 years ago as treatment for an oestrogen receptor-positive breast malignancy. She was prescribed tamoxifen in a dose of 10mg per day to take for the next five years. Since she completed her chemotherapy three years ago, she has no menstrual periods. What is the most probable cause of her current bleeding?

      Your Answer: An endometrial cancer produced by the tamoxifen.

      Correct Answer: Endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Explanation:

      The most likely cause of her bleeding is an endometrial polyp formation due to the tamoxifen.

      Tamoxifen is often prescribed to decrease risk of breast cancer recurrence in premenopausal women with oestrogen receptor-positive cancers.

      As with any medication, it has known side effects, which include endometrial polyp formation, subendometrial oedema and, rarely, endometrial carcinoma.

      A polyp or carcinoma can cause uterine bleeding, but a polyp is more likely to occur.

      Routine endometrial thickness screening is not recommended in all women taking tamoxifen. However, in cases of abnormal bleeding, ultrasound assessment of endometrial thickness, hysteroscopy and curettage are indicated to assess the endometrium in more detail.

      Tamoxifen is not associated with endometrial atrophy.

      Endometrial metastasis from a breast cancer is rare, and tamoxifen would not usually induce follicular development in a woman who has had chemotherapy and resultant amenorrhoea.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 46 - A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old known hypertensive female patient comes with a complaint of irritability around her period. Her breasts are tender, swollen and painful around the time which also contributes to her irritability. She is not active sexually and doesn't plan on having any relationships in the future. What is the next step in management?

      Your Answer: Oral contraceptive pills

      Correct Answer: Primrose oil

      Explanation:

      PMS is a condition, which is associated with somatic, emotional and behavioural symptoms during the women menstruation. Oenothera biennis with the common name of “evening primrose” is containing a valuable fixed oil with commercial name of EPO. Evening primrose oil has two types of omega-6-fatty acid including linoleic acid (60%–80%) and γ-linoleic acid (8%–14%). Essential fatty acids are considered as essential compounds for body health, especially among women. Evening primrose oil’s is effective in women health, but the immediate response should not be expected from it, therefore, it should be regularly used up to 4 or 6 months.

      Oral contraceptive pills are only used when other treatments fail.
      SSRI are only indicated in cases of persistent mood changes like depression.
      Local anaesthetics have no role in the management of PMS.

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      • Gynaecology
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  • Question 47 - A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old mother of three teenagers has been using the combination oestrogen/progestogen contraceptive pill for ten years and has had regular light menstrual cycles during that time. She stopped taking it three months ago. She hasn't had a period since then, except the one she had right after she stopped. She is quite worried and believes she is pregnant, even though she has no additional symptoms that point to this conclusion. A large retroverted uterus is discovered during a vaginal examination. Which of the following is the most appropriate piece of advice?

      Your Answer: Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level should be assessed

      Correct Answer: A pregnancy test should be performed.

      Explanation:

      Despite the fact that pregnancy at her age is uncommon, the best advise you can give her is to take a pregnancy test.

      If the test results show she is not pregnant, she can next decide whether to restart the oral contraceptive pill (0CP) or simply weep until the post-pill amenorrhoea goes away.

      Although an increased follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level may indicate ovarian failure, it does not guarantee that no more periods will occur and does not rule out the possibility of a future pregnancy.

      Obviously, she should be recommended to use a contraceptive method like condoms until the cause of her amenorrhoea is determined.
      Other hormonal tests, such as luteinizing hormone and prolactin testing, may be required.

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  • Question 48 - A44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago...

    Incorrect

    • A44-year-old woman underwent a cervical screening test at your clinic a week ago revealingInvasive squamous cell carcinoma. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Colposcopy at your clinic

      Correct Answer: Refer to a gynaecologist at tertiary hospital

      Explanation:

      If a cervical screening test reveals invasive squamous cell carcinoma or adenocarcinoma, refer the patient to a gynaecologist at a tertiary hospital right once for further treatment.
      Colposcopy at a GP practice is not appropriate in these situations. When it comes to the prospect of cancer, reassurance isn’t enough.

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  • Question 49 - An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most...

    Correct

    • An 18 year old girl presented with dysmenorrhea and irregular cycles. The most appropriate management in this case would be?

      Your Answer: Combined pill

      Explanation:

      Combined oral contraceptive pills have an anti ovulatory function and also reduce the pain of menstruation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old female with type I diabetes for 13 years, came for pre-pregnancy counselling. Which of the following is the most suitable advise for her?

      Your Answer: She should aim to have a pre-pregnancy HbA1c of <48 mmol/mol (6.5%)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines women with type I diabetes, who are expecting a child should aim to keep their HbA1c level[1] below 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) without causing problematic hypoglycaemia. Women with diabetes whose HbA1c level is above 86 mmol/mol (10%) should be strongly advised not to get pregnant because of the associated risks. The risks are higher with chronic diabetes. There is an increased risk to the foetus or mother due to diabetes in pregnancy. Women who are waiting to become pregnant should take folic acid (5 mg/day) until 12 weeks of gestation to reduce the risk of having a baby with a neural tube defect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      20.6
      Seconds

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