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Question 1
Correct
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A 45-year old male, who was a chronic smoker presented to the clinic with backache and dry, incessant cough. On examination, he was found to have raised blood pressure, purplish striae on his abdomen, truncal obesity and tenderness over the lower thoracic spine. These findings are suggestive of which condition?
Your Answer: Small-cell anaplastic (oat cell) carcinoma
Explanation:The symptoms suggest Cushing syndrome due to increased glucocorticoid levels. One cause of Cushing syndrome is ectopic production of adrenocorticotrophic hormone from oat cell carcinoma. As oat cell carcinoma is known to be highly metastatic, the tenderness in lower back could represent metastatic involvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35 year-old man presents with high grade fever for 7 days after returning from a trip to India. He tested positive for widal test. What is the most likely organism that caused his fever?
Your Answer: Salmonella typhi
Explanation:Typhoid fever is caused by virulent bacteria called Salmonella typhi. Salmonella typhi spread through contaminated food or water and occasionally through direct contact with someone who is infected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 7 year old girl is taken to her family doctor because her mother is concerned that she has a small epithelial defect anterior to the left ear and it has been noted to discharge foul smelling material for the past 3 days. What is the most likely explanation?
Your Answer: Pre auricular sinus
Explanation:The preauricular sinus is a benign congenital malformation of the preauricular soft tissues. Mostly it is noted during routine ear, nose and throat examination, though can present as an infected and discharging sinus. Preauricular sinus is more often unilateral, only occasionally are bilateral forms inherited. The right side is more often involved and females more than males. Most sinuses are clinically silent, eventual, however not rare, appearance of symptoms is related to an infectious process. Erythema, swelling, pain and discharge are familiar signs and symptoms of infection. The most common pathogens causing infection are Staphylococcal species and, less frequently Proteus, Streptococcus and Peptococcus species.
Courses of treatment typically include the following:
– Draining the pus occasionally as it can build up a strong odour
– Antibiotics when infection occurs.
– Surgical excision is indicated with recurrent fistula infections, preferably after significant healing of the infection.
In case of a persistent infection, infection drainage is performed during the excision operation. The operation is generally performed by an appropriately trained specialist surgeon e.g. a otolaryngologist or a specialist General Surgeon.
The fistula can be excised as a cosmetic operation even though no infection appeared. The procedure is considered an elective operation in the absence of any associated complications. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Head And Neck Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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In the emergency room, a nurse was introducing a catheter into the patients femoral vein for rapid fluid therapy. The femoral vein is situated inside the femoral sheath. Which of the following is true about that sheath?
Your Answer: The lateral compartment of the femoral sheath contains the femoral vein
Correct Answer: The medial compartment is called the femoral canal
Explanation:The femoral sheath is situated ,4cm below the inguinal ligament. It is a prolongation of the abdominal fascia. The anterior wall is a prolongation of the transversalis fascia and the posterior wall, the iliac fascia. It is divided by two vertical septa into 3 compartments, lateral, intermediate, and medial. The medial compartment is known as the femoral canal and contains some lymphatic vessels. The lateral one contains the femoral artery and the intermediate one contains the femoral vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 5
Incorrect
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An 11 year old girl undergoes a delayed open reduction and fixation of a significantly displaced supracondylar fracture. She complains of paraesthesia of the hand and significant forearm pain. The radial pulse is normal. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer: Arrange repeat limb x-rays
Correct Answer: Fasciotomy
Explanation:Answer: Fasciotomy
Fasciotomy is a surgical procedure where the fascia is cut to relieve tension or pressure commonly to treat the resulting loss of circulation to an area of tissue or muscle. Fasciotomy is a limb-saving procedure when used to treat acute compartment syndrome. A delay in performing the procedure can lead to neurovascular complications or lead to the need for amputation of a limb. Complications can also involve the formation of scar tissue after the operation. A thickening of the surgical scars can result in the loss of mobility of the joint involved. This can be addressed through occupational or physical therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 6
Correct
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A 34-year-old female teacher is admitted with severe epigastric pain. Her blood reports show normal levels of serum amylase. In order to exclude a perforated viscus and determine whether pancreatitis is present, what should be the best course of action?
Your Answer: Request a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with intravenous contrast
Explanation:A CT scan with IV contrast is needed because a scan without contrast will exclude a perforated viscus but will not be able to determine the presence of pancreatitis.
Acute pancreatitis may be mild or life-threatening but it usually subsides. Gallstones and alcohol abuse are the main causes of acute pancreatitis. Severe abdominal pain is the predominant symptom.
For diagnosis of acute pancreatitis, serum lipase is both more sensitive and specific than serum amylase.
Serum amylase levels do not correlate with disease severity and may give both false positive and negative results. Three scoring systems are used to assess the severity of the disease, which are Glasgow pancreatitis score, Ranson criteria, and APACHE II scoring system.Management options are as follows:
1. There is very little evidence to support the administration of antibiotics to patients with acute pancreatitis. These may contribute to antibiotic resistance and increase the risks of antibiotic-associated diarrhoea.
2. Patients with acute pancreatitis due to gallstones should undergo early cholecystectomy.
3. Patients with obstructed biliary system due to stones should undergo early ERCP.
4. Patients with infected necrosis should undergo either radiological drainage or surgical necrosectomy. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Hepatobiliary And Pancreatic Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 39 year old woman is knocked off her bike on the way home and she is taken to the hospital. Her ankle is observed to be grossly deformed with bilateral malleolar tenderness, severe ankle swelling and tenting of the medial soft tissues. Which of the following would be the best option in initial management?
Your Answer: Surgical fixation
Correct Answer: Immediate reduction and application of backslab
Explanation:Ankle fractures most often occur by rotational mechanisms with the external forces transmitted through the foot via the talus to the malleoli. The specific pattern of fracture and ligamentous injury depends on the position of the foot and the direction of the force at the time of injury.
Reduce the ankle fracture as soon as possible once informed consent provided to the patient. Assess the neurovascular status of the limb before and after manipulation. Have splinting materials ready and measured out (use the uninjured, contralateral leg for measuring). Either a short leg splint or cast is applied based on fracture type, patient, surgical urgency, and surgeon preference.
Ensure adequate analgesia for the patient including NSAIDs, IV medications, hematoma block, or procedural sedation. Once reduced and splinted in place, recheck neurovascular status, elevate the leg and obtain a post-reduction X-ray.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Orthopaedics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an irregular pulse and shortness of breath. Electrocardiography findings show no P waves, normal QRS complexes and an irregularly irregular rhythm. The patient most probably has:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrial fibrillation
Explanation:Atrial fibrillation is one of the most common arrhythmias, characterised by an irregular and rapid heart rate. Due to the decreased cardiac output, atrial fibrillation increases the risk of heart failure. It can also lead to thrombus formation which may lead to thromboembolic events. Clinical findings include palpitations, shortness of breath, fatigue, chest pain and confusion. The diagnosis is made by electrocardiographic findings which include absent P wave, fibrillatory (f) waves between QRS complexes and irregularly irregular R-R intervals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The majority of gallstones are mainly composed of:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol
Explanation:Bile salts are formed out of cholesterol in the liver cells. Occasionally, precipitation of cholesterol occurs resulting into cholesterol stones developing in the gall bladder.
These cholesterol gallstones are the most common type and account for 80% of all gallstones. Another type, accounting for 20% gallstones is pigment stones which are composed of bilirubin and calcium salts. Occasionally, stones of mixed origin are also seen. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year old gentleman who suffered a stroke was brought to the emergency department by his relatives. The patient however denied the presence of paralysis of his left upper and lower limbs. What is the most likely site of the lesion in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right posterior parietal cortex
Explanation:A large injury to the non-dominant parietal cortex can make the patient neglect or refuse to acknowledge the presence of paralysis on the contralateral side. This can also involve the perception of the external world. Smaller injuries in this area which involve the precentral gyrus (primary motor cortex) or postcentral gyrus (primary sensory cortex) cause contralateral spastic paralysis or contralateral loss of tactile sensation respectively. A lesion in posterior inferior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe results in motor aphasia. Involvement of the posterior superior gyrus of the dominant frontal lobe produces sensory aphasia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A football player sustained an injury to his ankle. The wound went through the skin, subcutaneous tissue and flexor retinaculum. Which other structure passing under the retinaculum may be injured?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The flexor retinaculum is immediately posterior to the medial malleolus. The structures that pass under the flexor retinaculum from anterior to posterior are: tendon of the tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, posterior tibial artery (and vein), tibial nerve and tendon of flexor hallucis longus. The tibial nerve is the only one which lies behind the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The basilar artery arises from the confluence of which two arteries?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vertebral
Explanation:The basilar artery is part of the vertebrobasilar system. It is formed by the confluence of the two vertebral arteries which arise from the subclavian arteries. These two vertebral arteries merge at the level of cranial nerve VI at the junction between the pons and the medulla oblangata to form what is know as the basilar artery. This vertebrobasilar system supplies the upper spinal cord, brainstem, cerebellum, and posterior part of brain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Glucose is not secreted by the kidneys, and is filtered without a limit. What is the transport maximum for glucose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 300 mg/dl
Explanation:Transport maximum (or Tm) refers to the point at which increases in concentration do not result in an increase in movement of a substance across a membrane. Glucose is not secreted, thus excretion = filtration – reabsorption. Both filtration and reabsorption are directly proportional to the concentration of glucose in the plasma. However, reabsorption has a transport maximum of about 300 mg/dl in healthy nephrons, while filtration has effectively no limit (within reasonable physiological ranges). So, if the concentration rises above 300 mg/dl, the body cannot retain all the glucose, leading to glucosuria. Glucosuria is nearly always caused by elevated blood glucose levels, most commonly due to untreated diabetes mellitus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of these illnesses is most likely to precede Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Viral pneumonia
Explanation:Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS) is characterized by a rapid-onset muscle weakness caused by the immune system damaging the peripheral nervous system. In about two-thirds of patients, the syndrome begins 5 days to 3 weeks after an infectious disease, surgery or vaccination. Infection is the trigger in over 50% of patients; common pathogens include Campylobacter jejuni, enteric viruses, herpesviruses (including cytomegalovirus and those causing infectious mononucleosis) and Mycoplasma species. The underlying mechanism involves an autoimmune disorder in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks the peripheral nerves and damages their myelin insulation, although the cause for this is still unknown.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman presented with excessive bleeding after an inguinal hernia repair. Labs are suggestive of a primary haemostasis defect. Deficiency of which of the following is most likely to cause it?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Primary haemostatic control means the first line of defence against immediate bleeding. This is carried out by the platelets. They immediately form a haemostatic plug at the site of injury. Coagulation starts within 20s after an injury to the blood vessel which damage the endothelial cells. Secondary haemostasis follows which includes activation of the coagulation factors to form fibrin strands which mesh together forming the platelet plug. Platelets interact with platelet collagen receptor, glycoprotein Ia/IIa and to collagen fibres in the vascular endothelium. This adhesion is mediated by von Willebrand factor (vWF), which forms links between the platelet glycoprotein Ib/IX/V and collagen fibrils. The platelets are then activated and release the contents of their granules into the plasma, in turn activating other platelets and white blood cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Physiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding aqueous humour is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is the only source of nutrients for the lens of the eye
Explanation:The aqueous humour is a transparent, watery fluid similar to plasma, but containing low protein concentrations. It is secreted from the ciliary epithelium and fills both the anterior and the posterior chambers of the eye. It maintains the intraocular pressure and inflates the globe of the eye. It is this hydrostatic pressure which keeps the eyeball in a roughly spherical shape and keeps the walls of the eyeball taut. It provides nutrition (e.g. amino acids and glucose) for the avascular ocular tissues; posterior cornea, trabecular meshwork, lens, and anterior vitreous. It may serve to transport ascorbate into the anterior segment to act as an antioxidant agent. The presence of immunoglobulins indicate its role in immune response to defend against pathogens.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Cranial nerve XII, the hypoglossal nerve, innervates which one of the following muscles in the list?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyoglossus
Explanation:The cranial nerve XII, hypoglossal nerve, innervates all the intrinsic and extrinsic muscles of the tongue except the palatoglossus. The muscles of the tongue innervated by this nerve include the extrinsic muscles; hyoglossus, styloglossus, genioglossus and the intrinsic muscles; superior longitudinal, inferior longitudinal, vertical and transverse muscles. The salpingopharyngeus, palatoglossus and the palatopharyngeus muscles are innervated by the vagus nerve. The stylopharyngeus muscle is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the inferior alveolar nerve, a branch of the mandibular nerve. Finally, the geniohyoid muscle is innervated by the olfactory nerve (CN I) via the hypoglossal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old homosexual is admitted with diarrhoea of three-month duration. He is found to be HIV positive with a CD4 cell count <50/μL. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Based on the history and findings, the most likely causative organism is cryptosporidium. It can cause severe, chronic, and possibly fatal diarrhoea in immunocompromised patients.
In patients with HIV/AIDS, clinical manifestations of cryptosporidiosis vary with the degree of immune compromise. Those with CD4 cell counts above 180–200/μL may be asymptomatic or develop self-limiting diarrhoeal illness. However, patients with advanced AIDS (CD4 cell counts <50/μL) can have severe diarrhoea that can persist for several months, resulting in severe dehydration, weight loss and malnutrition, extended hospitalizations, and mortality. In addition, patients with advanced AIDS are at greater risk of developing extraintestinal infection, particularly of the biliary, pancreatic, and respiratory tracts.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Microbiology
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 69 Year old lady presented to the emergency department following a massive myocardial infarction. She was found to be in hypotensive shock with focal neurological signs. Unfortunately the patient demised. What would be the expected findings on the brain biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liquefactive necrosis
Explanation:Liquefactive necrosis is often associated with bacterial or fungal infections. However, hypoxic death of cells within the central nervous system can also result in liquefactive necrosis. The focal area is soft with a liquefied centre containing necrotic debris and dead white cells. This may later be enclosed by a cystic wall
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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What is the chief ligament preventing posterior sliding of the tibia on the femur ?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior cruciate
Explanation:The posterior cruciate ligament is attached to the posterior intercondyloid fossa of the tibia and the lateral and front part of the medial condyle of the femur. It resists sliding of the tibia posteriorly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 22
Incorrect
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An organ transplant patient may be at risk of developing which type of cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin cancer
Explanation:The most common malignancies encountered in the post–solid organ transplant setting are non-melanoma skin cancers, post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorders and Kaposi’s sarcoma (KS). The pathogenesis of these tumours is likely related to the immunosuppressive drugs used post-transplantation and subsequent viral infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The rotator cuff surrounds the shoulder joint and consists of the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, subscapularis and which one other muscle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Teres minor
Explanation:The correct answer is the teres minor muscle. These group of muscles play an important role in protecting the shoulder joint and keeping the head of the humerus in the glenoid fossa of the scapula. This fossa is somehow shallow and needs support to allow for the full mobility that the shoulder joint has.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements regarding the femoral artery is CORRECT?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has the femoral nerve lying lateral to it
Explanation:The femoral artery begins immediately behind the inguinal ligament, midway between the anterior superior spine of the ilium and the symphysis pubis. The first 4 cm of the vessel is enclosed, together with the femoral vein, in a fibrous sheath (the femoral sheath). The femoral nerve lies lateral to this.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 25
Incorrect
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T lymphocytes that express the MCH type II antigen are most likely to produce which of the following cytokines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gamma interferon
Explanation:Interferon gamma is a soluble cytokine previously known as the macrophage activating factor. It is the only member belonging to the type II class of the interferons. It is secreted by a number of cells taking part in the immune reaction including: T-helper cells (CD-4), cells with immunological memory (CD45PA), killer cells (CD8), dendrite cells (CD23,35), natural killer cells (CD16) and B lymphocytes (CD22,CD23). It has both a defending as well as a pathological effect. It induces differentiation in the myeloid cell in the bone marrow. If macrophages are infected by parasites it activates the macrophages to destroy them. IFN-γ strengthens the anti-tumour activities of the cytotoxic lymphocytes. Together with CD4 or CD8 toxins, produced by lymphocytes, it suppresses the growth of the tumour cells. along with these functions it increases the non specific response of the natural killer cells, causing changes in the cell membrane surface to prevent adhesion and penetration of a virus. It can either increase or decrease B cell response and it activates osteoclasts which increases bone resorption.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 54 year old man with end stage renal failure is undergoing a live donor renal transplant. The surgeon decides to implant the kidney in the left iliac fossa via a Rutherford Morrison incision. To which vessels should the transplanted kidney be anastomosed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: External iliac artery and vein
Explanation:For this procedure:
Following the preparation of the patient, a Rutherford-Morison incision was made at the right or left iliac fossa to access to the iliac vessels. Heparin (2500-4000 IU bolus) was given intravenously prior to the clamping of the iliac vessels. The renal artery was first anastomosed in an end-to-side fashion to the external iliac artery. The corner sutures (6/0 Prolene) were placed while the kidney allograft was first placed at the medial side of the incision. The lateral side of the renal artery was anastomosed by continuous suture using the 6/0 Prolene suture. The kidney allograft was then flipped to the lateral side and the medial side of the renal artery was anastomosed to the external iliac artery. The anastomosis was checked by placing a small vascular bulldog to the renal artery and the vascular clamp was released over the external iliac artery.Following the renal artery anastomosis, the renal vein was anastomosed in an end-to-side fashion to the external iliac vein. Two corner sutures (5/0 Prolene) were placed first, then the lateral side of renal vein anastomosis was performed with continuous sutures from inside the lumen, and then a medial side anastomosis was performed by continuous sutures from the outside of the lumen (Figure ​(Figure2).2). Similarly, the anastomosis was checked by placing a vascular clamp over the renal vein and then releasing the vascular clamp on the external iliac vein.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Generic Surgical Topics
- Organ Transplantation
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Question 27
Incorrect
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An abnormal opening of the urethra on the under surface of the penis (ventral surface) is known as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypospadias
Explanation:Hypospadias is the condition where the urethra opens along the underside or ventral aspect of penile shaft. First-degree hypospadias is seen in 50-75% cases, where the urethra open on the glans penis. Second-degree hypospadias is seen in 20% cases where the urethra opens on the shaft, and third-degree in 30% cases with the urethra opening on the perineum. The severe cases are usually associated with undescended testis (cryptorchidism) or chordee, where the penis is tethered downwards and not completely separated from the perineum.
It is a common male genital birth defect but varying incidences are noted in different countries. There is no obvious inheritance pattern noted. No exact cause has been determined, however several hypotheses include poor response to androgen, or interference by environmental factors. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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All the following statements are FALSE regarding the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest branch of the trigeminal nerve
Explanation:The ophthalmic nerve is the smallest of the three trigeminal divisions. The cutaneous branches of the ophthalmic nerve supply the conjunctiva, the skin over the forehead, the upper eyelid, and much of the external surface of the nose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man sustains a severe facial fracture, and reconstruction is planned. Which of the following investigations will facilitate preoperative planning?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Computerised tomography of the head
Explanation:Significant facial fractures may have an intracranial effect. Computerised tomography (CT) scan of the head allows delineation of the injury extent, and a 3D reconstruction of images can be done. An Orthopantomogram (OPT) provides good images of mandible and surrounding bony structures but cannot give intracranial details. X-ray of the skull lacks the details important in modern practice.
Craniomaxillofacial (CMF) injuries in the UK are due to:
1. Interpersonal violence (52%)
2. Motor vehicle accidents (16%)
3. Sporting injuries (19%)
4. Falls (11%) -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Emergency Medicine And Management Of Trauma
- Principles Of Surgery-in-General
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Question 30
Incorrect
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What are some of the derivatives of the second pharyngeal arch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stylohyoid muscle
Explanation:Also known as the hyoid arch, it forms the side and front of the neck. From its cartilage develops the styloid process, stylohyoid ligament and lesser cornu of the hyoid bone. The muscular derivatives include the muscles of facial expression, stapedius, stylohyoid and the posterior belly of the digastric. All these are innervated by cranial nerve VII but migrate into the area of the mandibular arch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Basic Sciences
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
