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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS), has been struggling with persistent hirsutism and acne since her teenage years. She expresses that this is now impacting her self-confidence and she has not seen any improvement with over-the-counter acne treatments. When asked about her menstrual cycles, she reports that they are still irregular and she has no plans to conceive at the moment. What is the most suitable next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Desogestrel
Correct Answer: Co-cyprindiol
Explanation:Co-cyprindiol is a medication that combines cyproterone acetate and ethinyl estradiol. It is commonly used to treat women with PCOS who have hirsutism and acne. Cyproterone acetate is an anti-androgen that reduces sebum production, leading to a reduction in acne and hirsutism. It also inhibits ovulation and induces regular withdrawal bleeds. However, it should not be used solely for contraception due to its higher risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other conventional contraceptives.
Topical retinoids are a first-line treatment for mild to moderate acne. They can be used alone or in combination with benzoyl peroxide.
Clomiphene citrate is a medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It has been associated with increased rates of pregnancy.
Desogestrel is a progesterone-only pill that induces regular bleeds and provides contraception. However, its effect on improving acne and hirsutism is inferior to combination drugs like co-cyprindiol.
Isotretinoin is a medication that regulates epithelial cell growth and is used to treat severe acne resistant to other treatments. It is highly teratogenic and should only be started by an experienced dermatologist in secondary care. Adequate contraceptive cover is necessary, and patients should avoid conception for two years after completing treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has been discharged from hospital with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with antiphospholipid antibodies. Her antibodies remained positive at 12 weeks and she is now on hydroxychloroquine monotherapy. She has a healthy BMI and blood pressure, does not smoke, and has no personal or family history of venous or arterial thrombosis or breast cancer. She is requesting to restart the combined pill. How would you advise her on this?
Your Answer: There is an unacceptably high clinical risk and she cannot use the pill anymore
Explanation:The appropriate answer is that the woman cannot use the pill anymore due to an unacceptably high clinical risk. She has developed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with positive antiphospholipid antibodies, which is classified as UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use UKMEC 4, meaning it is an absolute contraindication. The risks of arterial and venous thrombosis would be too high if she were to restart the combined pill, and alternative contraceptive options should be considered. It is important to note that both SLE with positive antiphospholipid antibodies and isolated presence of antiphospholipid antibodies are classified as UKMEC 4 conditions, but not the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. The advantages of using the pill generally outweigh the risks is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 2. The correct answer would be applicable if the woman did not test positive for any of the three antiphospholipid antibodies or if she did not test positive again after 12 weeks. The risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the combined pill is also incorrect, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 3. Lastly, there is no risk or contraindication to her restarting the combined pill is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 1.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 52-year-old woman has been referred for colposcopy after her recent cervical smear cytology showed high-grade (moderate) abnormalities and tested positive for high-risk (HR) human papillomavirus (HPV). She underwent a loop excision of the cervix, and the histology report revealed cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia 1 + 2. What is the next best course of action for her treatment?
Your Answer: HPV test of cure in six months, if negative recall in three years
Explanation:Management of Women after Treatment for Cervical Intra-epithelial Neoplasia
After treatment for cervical intra-epithelial neoplasia (CIN) at colposcopy, women undergo a repeat smear six months later to check for any residual disease. The management plan following this test of cure depends on the results.
HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Three Years
If the test is negative for dyskaryosis and high-risk HPV (HR HPV), the woman is recalled in three years, regardless of her age. If the test remains negative at the three-year mark, she can return to routine screening based on her age group.
HPV Test of Cure in Six Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years
Even if the patient is 54 years old, women who have a negative HPV test of cure at six months are recalled for a smear three years later. If this is negative, she will then be returned to routine recall every five years.
HPV Test of Cure in Three Months, If Negative Recall in Five Years
The screening test should not be repeated at three months, as this is not enough time for the cervical tissue to heal. Reactive/healing changes in the cytological sample may give a false impression of dyskaryosis. Instead, a HPV test of cure is performed at six months, and if negative, the woman is recalled for routine screening every five years.
Refer Back to Routine Screening, Repeat in Three/Five Years
If the HPV test of cure is positive for HPV or there is evidence of moderate/severe dyskaryosis, the woman is referred back to colposcopy for further investigation. If the test is negative, she is referred back to routine screening and recalled in three or five years, depending on the scenario.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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Sarah is a 26-year-old trans female who wants to discuss contraception options with you. She is in a committed relationship with another woman and they have regular unprotected intercourse. Sarah has no medical history and is currently undergoing gender reassignment using oestrogen and antiandrogen therapy, but has not had any surgical interventions yet. What would be the most suitable form of contraception to recommend for Sarah?
Your Answer: Barrier methods such as condoms
Explanation:If a patient was assigned male at birth and is undergoing treatment with oestradiol, GNRH analogs, finasteride or cyproterone, there may be a decrease or cessation of sperm production. However, this cannot be considered a reliable method of contraception. In the case of a trans female patient, who was assigned male at birth, hormonal treatments cannot be relied upon for contraception. There is a possibility of her female partner becoming pregnant, and therefore, barrier methods are recommended. Hormonal contraceptives are not suitable for this patient, and the copper IUD is not an option as she does not have a uterus.
Contraceptive and Sexual Health Guidance for Transgender and Non-Binary Individuals
The Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare has released guidance on contraceptive choices and sexual health for transgender and non-binary individuals. The guidance emphasizes the importance of sensitive communication and offering options that consider personal preferences, co-morbidities, and current medications or therapies.
For individuals engaging in vaginal sex where there may be a risk of pregnancy and/or sexually transmitted infections, condoms and dental dams are recommended. Cervical screening and human papillomavirus vaccinations should also be offered to sexually active individuals with a uterus. Those engaging in anal sex and rimming should be advised of the risk of hepatitis A & B and offered vaccinations. Individuals at risk of HIV transmission should be advised of the availability of pre-exposure prophylaxis and post-exposure prophylaxis as required.
For patients seeking permanent contraception, a fallopian tube occlusion or a vasectomy may be the most appropriate solution and neither would be affected by hormonal therapy. Testosterone therapy does not provide protection against pregnancy, and oestrogen-containing regimes are not recommended in patients undergoing testosterone therapy. Progesterone-only contraceptives are considered safe, and the intrauterine system and injections may also suspend menstruation. Non-hormonal intrauterine devices do not interact with hormonal regimes but can exacerbate menstrual bleeding.
In patients assigned male at birth, there may be a reduction or cessation of sperm production with certain therapies, but the variability of effects means they cannot be relied upon as a method of contraception. Condoms should be recommended in those patients engaging in vaginal sex wishing to avoid the risk of pregnancy. Emergency contraception may be required in patients assigned female at birth following unprotected vaginal intercourse, and either of the available oral emergency contraceptive options may be considered. The non-hormonal intrauterine device may also be an option, but it may have unacceptable side effects in some patients.
Overall, the guidance stresses the importance of individualized care and communication in contraceptive and sexual health decisions for transgender and non-binary individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with abdominal distension and shortness of breath. A chest x-ray reveals a right pleural effusion. Following the removal of an ovarian mass, it is determined to be benign on histology. What is the name of this syndrome?
Your Answer: Meig's syndrome
Explanation:Meig’s syndrome is characterized by the presence of a non-cancerous ovarian tumor, as well as ascites and pleural effusion. This condition is uncommon and typically affects women who are 40 years of age or older, with the ovarian tumor usually being a fibroma. Treatment involves surgical removal of the tumor, although drainage of the ascites and pleural effusion may be necessary beforehand to alleviate symptoms and improve lung function prior to anesthesia. The prognosis for Meig’s syndrome is favorable due to the benign nature of the tumor.
Types of Ovarian Tumours
Ovarian tumours can be classified into four main types: surface derived tumours, germ cell tumours, sex cord-stromal tumours, and metastatic tumours. Surface derived tumours are the most common, accounting for around 65% of ovarian tumours, and include the greatest number of malignant tumours. Examples of surface derived tumours include serous cystadenoma, serous cystadenocarcinoma, mucinous cystadenoma, mucinous cystadenocarcinoma, and Brenner tumour.
Germ cell tumours, which are more common in adolescent girls, account for 15-20% of tumours and have similar cancer types to those seen in the testicle. Examples of germ cell tumours include teratoma, dysgerminoma, yolk sac tumour, and choriocarcinoma.
Sex cord-stromal tumours represent around 3-5% of ovarian tumours and often produce hormones. Examples of sex cord-stromal tumours include granulosa cell tumour, Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour, and fibroma.
Metastatic tumours account for around 5% of tumours and occur when cancer cells from other parts of the body spread to the ovaries. An example of a metastatic tumour is Krukenberg tumour, which is a mucin-secreting signet-ring cell adenocarcinoma that results from metastases from a gastrointestinal tumour.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with breast cancer and is awaiting surgery. She has started a new relationship and is seeking advice on contraception. In her previous relationship, she used the depo injection and is interested in restarting it. She is a non-smoker, has no history of migraines or venous thromboembolism, and has a BMI of 23 kg/m². Which contraception option would be most suitable for her?
Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer due to contraindications. This applies to all hormonal contraceptive options, including Depo-Provera, which are classified as UKMEC 4. The copper intrauterine device is the only suitable contraception option in such cases.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old mother of three presents to the Gynaecology Clinic, having been referred by her general practitioner. She describes a dragging sensation and the feeling of a lump in her vagina. In addition, she also reports several embarrassing incidences of incontinence following coughing and sneezing. The clinician performs an examination which reveals a cystourethrocele. Both medical and surgical treatment options are discussed with the patient.
Which of the following surgical procedures could be treatment options for this patient?Your Answer: Sacrocolpopexy
Correct Answer: Anterior colporrhaphy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cystourethrocele: Conservative and Surgical Approaches
Cystourethrocele, the descent of the anterior part of the vagina attached to the urethra and the base of the bladder, can cause disruption of the continence mechanism and stress incontinence. Conservative measures such as pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, and oestrogen therapy may be used prior to surgery or as a therapeutic test to improve symptoms. However, the surgical treatment of choice is an anterior repair, also known as anterior colporrhaphy, which involves making a midline incision through the vaginal skin, reflecting the underlying bladder off the vaginal mucosa, and placing lateral supporting sutures into the fascia to elevate the bladder and bladder neck. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy is a procedure to surgically correct lacerations or tears in the vagina and perineum. Sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation are not relevant for this patient. Approximately 50% of patients may experience post-operative urinary retention following anterior colporrhaphy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Does PCOS elevate the risk of certain conditions in the long run?
Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a prevalent disorder that is often complicated by chronic anovulation and hyperandrogenism. This condition can lead to long-term complications such as subfertility, diabetes mellitus, stroke and transient ischemic attack, coronary artery disease, obstructive sleep apnea, and endometrial cancer. These complications are more likely to occur in patients who are obese. Women with oligo/amenorrhea and pre-menopausal levels of estrogen are at an increased risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma. This risk is highest in those with menstrual cycle lengths of over three months. However, it can be reduced by inducing a withdrawal bleed every one to three months using a combined contraceptive pill or cyclical medroxyprogesterone or by inserting a mirena coil. Overweight patients can regulate their menstrual cycles and reduce the risk of endometrial hyperplasia by optimizing their BMI. Unlike in other conditions, there is no increased risk of osteoporosis in PCOS because there is no estrogen deficiency. The RCOG Greentop guidelines provide more information on the long-term consequences of polycystic ovary syndrome.
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is believed to involve both high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia, with some overlap with the metabolic syndrome. PCOS is characterized by a range of symptoms, including subfertility and infertility, menstrual disturbances such as oligomenorrhea and amenorrhea, hirsutism, acne, obesity, and acanthosis nigricans.
To diagnose PCOS, a range of investigations may be performed, including pelvic ultrasound to detect multiple cysts on the ovaries. Other useful baseline investigations include FSH, LH, prolactin, TSH, testosterone, and sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). While a raised LH:FSH ratio was once considered a classical feature of PCOS, it is no longer thought to be useful in diagnosis. Testosterone may be normal or mildly elevated, but if markedly raised, other causes should be considered. SHBG is typically normal to low in women with PCOS, and impaired glucose tolerance should also be checked.
To formally diagnose PCOS, other conditions must first be excluded. The Rotterdam criteria state that a diagnosis of PCOS can be made if at least two of the following three criteria are present: infrequent or no ovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound scan. Polycystic ovaries are defined as the presence of at least 12 follicles measuring 2-9 mm in diameter in one or both ovaries, and/or an increased ovarian volume of over 10 cm³.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP for a routine smear test and is found to be HPV positive. A follow-up cytology swab reveals normal cells. She is asked to return for a second HPV swab after 12 months, which comes back negative. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat HPV test in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 5 years
Explanation:If the 2nd repeat smear at 24 months shows a negative result for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient can return to routine recall for cervical cancer screening. Since the patient is over 50 years old, a smear test should be taken every 5 years as part of routine recall. It is not necessary to perform a cytology swab or refer the patient to colposcopy as a negative HPV result does not indicate the presence of cervical cancer. Additionally, repeating the HPV test in 3 years is not necessary for this patient as it is only the routine recall protocol for patients aged 25-49.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing postcoital bleeding for the past three months. She denies any pain during intercourse and has not noticed any abnormal vaginal discharge except for the bleeding. She continues to have regular menstrual cycles. What is the most probable diagnosis in this scenario?
Your Answer: Uterine fibroids
Correct Answer: Cervical polyps
Explanation:Postcoital Bleeding
Postcoital bleeding is a condition that occurs when there is trauma to superficial lesions within the vaginal tract. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including cervical trauma, cervical polyps, endometrial and cervical carcinoma, cervicitis, and vaginitis. In some cases, invasive cervical carcinoma may be found in those who are referred to the hospital, accounting for 3.8% of cases.
Vaginitis is also a possibility, but it is more common in elderly patients with low estrogen levels. On the other hand, salpingo-oophoritis, which is usually caused by pelvic inflammatory disease from sexually transmitted infections, typically presents with deep dyspareunia and purulent vaginal discharge. However, post-coital bleeding is highly unlikely to be caused by salpingo-oophoritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman, who has never been pregnant, complains of chronic pain in her pelvis and sacrum during her menstrual cycle. Her temperature is 37.2 degrees Celsius. During the examination, there is tenderness in her posterior vaginal fornix and uterine motion tenderness. A pelvic ultrasound shows no abnormalities. What is the subsequent diagnostic test recommended?
Your Answer: Laparoscopy
Explanation:When it comes to patients with suspected endometriosis, laparoscopy is considered the most reliable investigation method.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old woman, with a history of fibromyalgia, presents to her General Practitioner with a 6-month history of a constant soreness in the pelvic and perineal area. She reports it is there most of the time, and she struggles to carry on with her daily activities and sleep. She is tearful and fatigued. She tried paracetamol and ibuprofen, but these have not worked. She denies any postmenopausal bleeding or vaginal discharge.
Examination is unremarkable. She had a recent abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan for investigation of acute diverticulitis that revealed no abnormality in the uterus and ovaries.
Which of the following is the next step in the patient’s management?Your Answer: Referral to the Pain team
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline
Explanation:Management of Unprovoked Vulvodynia: Medications, Referrals, and Other Modalities
Unprovoked vulvodynia is a chronic pain syndrome characterized by chronic vulvovaginal pain lasting at least three months, without identifiable cause. The pain can be localized or generalized, has no triggers, and cannot be provoked by light touch on examination. In addition, there is associated dyspareunia. The intensity of the pain and the impact on the patient varies greatly between cases. The mainstay of first-line treatment is pain-modifying medication such as amitriptyline, an oral tricyclic antidepressant medication, which is also used in the management of depression, migraines, and chronic pain. However, if an adequate trial of amitriptyline fails to improve symptoms or if the side-effects are not tolerated by the patient, then gabapentin or pregabalin can be offered as second line. Other modalities that should be considered in the management of unprovoked vulvodynia include cognitive behavioural therapy, acupuncture, and pelvic floor exercise training. Severe unprovoked vulvodynia that persists despite the above measurements should be dealt with in secondary care by the pain team. Referral to the Gynaecology team is unnecessary unless there are concerning factors in the history or examination to point towards causes like carcinoma, sexually transmitted infections, or chronic inflammatory skin conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 28-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her left lower quadrant. Upon conducting a pregnancy test, it is discovered that she is pregnant. Her medical history reveals that she had an appendectomy at the age of 18 due to a ruptured appendix.
After undergoing a vaginal ultrasound, it is revealed that she has an unruptured tubal pregnancy on the left side. The ultrasound also shows adhesions at the distal end of the right fallopian tube.
What would be the most appropriate course of action for management?Your Answer: salpingostomy
Explanation:When a woman with risk factors for infertility, such as damage to the contralateral tube, has an ectopic pregnancy requiring surgical management, it is recommended to consider salpingostomy instead of salpingectomy. In this case, the woman has a left-sided ectopic pregnancy and a damaged right tube, making salpingostomy a more appropriate option to preserve her fertility. Methotrexate is not suitable for this case due to the severity of pain, and monitoring for 48 hours is not appropriate either. Expectant management is only recommended for small, asymptomatic ectopic pregnancies without cardiac activity.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old patient is worried about her amenorrhea for the past 3 months. She has a body mass index of 33 kg/m² and severe acne. A pregnancy test came back negative. Upon testing, her results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Testosterone 3.5 nmol/l 0.21-2.98 nmol/l
Luteinizing hormone (LH) 31 u/l 3-16 u/l
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 5 u/l 2-8 u/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Secondary Amenorrhoea: Polycystic Ovary Syndrome, Cushing’s Syndrome, Primary Ovarian Failure, Hypothalamic Disease, and Adrenal Tumour
Secondary amenorrhoea, the cessation of menstruation after previously menstruating, can have various causes. In a patient who is overweight, has acne, and slightly elevated testosterone and LH levels, polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a likely diagnosis. PCOS is characterized by small cysts in the ovaries and is linked to insulin resistance, hypertension, lipid abnormalities, and increased risk for cardiovascular disease. Hirsutism is also common in PCOS.
Cushing’s syndrome is a potential differential diagnosis for this patient, but blood results would show suppression of LH and FSH, not elevation. Primary ovarian failure is much rarer than PCOS and would show elevated serum FSH levels. Hypothalamic disease is less likely in this patient with multiple risk factors for PCOS, as it would result in decreased production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone and lower than normal detectable serum levels of LH and FSH. An adrenal tumour, particularly an adenoma, could rarely lead to amenorrhoea, but would also present with other symptoms such as palpitations and weight loss. Other adrenal tumours that secrete sex hormones are even rarer and would also be associated with weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes to your clinic with a positive urine pregnancy test result. She underwent a medical termination of pregnancy using mifepristone and misoprostol three weeks ago when she was eight weeks pregnant. She reports no ongoing pregnancy symptoms and only slight vaginal bleeding since the procedure. What advice would you give her?
Your Answer: Refer for direct access transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer: Reassure and repeat urine pregnancy test at 4 weeks post termination
Explanation:It is common for HCG levels to remain positive for several weeks after a termination of pregnancy. HCG levels are typically measured every two days, and a positive result beyond four weeks may indicate a continuing pregnancy. However, in most cases, HCG levels will return to normal within four weeks.
In this scenario, the appropriate course of action is to repeat the urine pregnancy test in one week, as the patient is currently only three weeks post-termination. There is no need for further referrals or imaging at this time, as a positive test result is unlikely to indicate a continuing pregnancy, and the patient does not exhibit any urgent symptoms such as infection or hemorrhage.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking advice after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse the previous night. She took a dose of levonorgestrel 1.5mg (Levonelle) as emergency contraception about 12 hours after the act. Today is the 12th day of her menstrual cycle, and she is worried about the possibility of getting pregnant. She wants to start taking a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) to prevent similar situations in the future. When can she begin taking the COCP?
Your Answer: Immediately
Explanation:Levonorgestrel emergency contraception (Levonelle) does not affect the effectiveness of hormonal contraception, so it can be started immediately after use. However, ulipristal acetate emergency contraception (EllaOne) should not be used concurrently with hormonal contraception, and patients should wait 5 days after taking it before starting a COCP regimen. The COCP must be taken within a 24-hour window each day to ensure effectiveness, while levonorgestrel emergency contraception must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. The interval to wait before starting or restarting hormonal contraception after using ulipristal acetate emergency contraception is 5 days. Day 1 of the menstrual cycle is the preferred day to start a COCP regimen for immediate protection against pregnancy, but it is not the earliest option in this scenario.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old mother of two presents to her general practitioner with depression. She explains that for the last 4 months, she has been unable to leave her house or socialize with friends due to an embarrassing and uncomfortable incontinence problem.
What is the most common type of urinary incontinence in women?Your Answer: Overactive bladder
Correct Answer: Genuine stress incontinence
Explanation:Understanding the Different Types of Urinary Incontinence in Women
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and treatment options. The most common type of incontinence in women is genuine stress incontinence, which is caused by sphincter incompetence and leads to leakage of small amounts of urine on stress, such as sneezing, standing, laughing, and coughing.
To diagnose incontinence, common investigations include a midstream urine specimen, frequency volume chart, filling urodynamic assessment, and voiding urodynamic assessment. Treatment options vary depending on the patient’s wishes, desire for future children, and severity of symptoms. Conservative treatment involves pelvic floor exercises, vaginal cones, and drugs such as estrogen. Surgery is the most effective way of restoring continence, with a cure rate of 80-90%. Procedures include burch colposuspension, anterior repair and bladder buttress, tension-free vaginal tape, and suburethral sling.
Other types of urinary incontinence in women include fistula, which is a rare cause of incontinence caused by pelvic surgery, overactive bladder, which is the second most common type of incontinence, retention with overflow, which is a rare cause of incontinence more common in men, and congenital abnormalities, which is a rare cause of incontinence that is often apparent since early life.
It is important for women to understand the different types of urinary incontinence and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms. With proper diagnosis and treatment, urinary incontinence can be effectively managed, improving quality of life and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman visits her GP six weeks after giving birth, seeking advice on contraception. She prefers to use the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), which she has used before. She has been engaging in unprotected sexual activity since week three postpartum. Currently, she is breastfeeding her baby about 60% of the time and supplementing with formula for the remaining 40%. What recommendation should the GP give to the patient?
Your Answer: A pregnancy test is required . The COCP is contraindicated in this situation, so discuss other forms of contraception.
Correct Answer: A pregnancy test is required. The COCP can be prescribed in this situation
Explanation:This question involves two components. Firstly, the lady in question is seven weeks postpartum and has had unprotected intercourse after day 21, putting her at risk of pregnancy. Therefore, she must have a pregnancy test before receiving any form of contraception. Secondly, the safety of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) at 7 weeks postpartum is being considered. While the COCP is contraindicated for breastfeeding women less than 6 weeks postpartum, this lady falls into the 6 weeks – 6 months postpartum category where the benefits of prescribing the COCP generally outweigh the risks. Therefore, it would be suitable to prescribe the COCP for her. It is important to note that even if a woman is exclusively breastfeeding, the lactational amenorrhea method (LAM) is only effective for up to 6 months postpartum. Additionally, while the progesterone only pill is a good form of contraception, it is not necessary to recommend it over the COCP in this case.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Correct
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You are in your GP practice and are counselling a 24-year-old female about the contraceptive patch.
What are the proper steps to ensure the effective use of the contraceptive patch?Your Answer: Change patch weekly with a 1 week break after 3 patches
Explanation:The contraceptive patch regime involves wearing one patch per week for three weeks, followed by a patch-free week. This method is gaining popularity due to its flexibility, as the patch can be changed up to 48 hours late without the need for backup contraception. Additionally, the patch’s transdermal absorption eliminates the need for extra precautions during episodes of vomiting or diarrhea. Similar to the pill, this method involves three weeks of contraceptive use followed by a one-week break, during which the woman will experience a withdrawal bleed.
The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman presents with an ectopic pregnancy that has been confirmed by ultrasound. However, the ultrasound report only mentions that the ectopic pregnancy is located in the 'left fallopian tube' without providing further details. To ensure appropriate management, you contact the ultrasound department to obtain more specific information. Which location of ectopic pregnancy is most commonly associated with a higher risk of rupture?
Your Answer: Ampulla
Correct Answer: Isthmus
Explanation:The risk of rupture is higher in ectopic pregnancies that are located in the isthmus of the fallopian tube. This is because the isthmus is not as flexible as other locations and cannot expand to accommodate the growing embryo/fetus. It should be noted that ectopic pregnancies can occur in various locations, including the ovary, cervix, and even outside the reproductive organs in the peritoneum.
Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: The Pathophysiology
Ectopic pregnancy is a medical condition where the fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. According to statistics, 97% of ectopic pregnancies occur in the fallopian tube, with most of them happening in the ampulla. However, if the implantation occurs in the isthmus, it can be more dangerous. The remaining 3% of ectopic pregnancies can occur in the ovary, cervix, or peritoneum.
During ectopic pregnancy, the trophoblast, which is the outer layer of the fertilized egg, invades the tubal wall, leading to bleeding that may dislodge the embryo. The natural history of ectopic pregnancy involves three possible outcomes: absorption, tubal abortion, or tubal rupture.
Tubal abortion occurs when the embryo dies, and the body expels it along with the blood. On the other hand, tubal absorption occurs when the tube does not rupture, and the blood and embryo are either shed or converted into a tubal mole and absorbed. However, if the tube ruptures, it can lead to severe bleeding, shock, and even death.
In conclusion, understanding the pathophysiology of ectopic pregnancy is crucial in diagnosing and managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Early detection and prompt treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding cervical ectropion is incorrect?
Your Answer: Describes an increased area of columnar epithelium
Correct Answer: Is less common in women who use the combined oral contraceptive pill
Explanation:Understanding Cervical Ectropion
Cervical ectropion is a condition that occurs when the columnar epithelium of the cervical canal extends onto the ectocervix, where the stratified squamous epithelium is located. This happens due to elevated levels of estrogen, which can occur during the ovulatory phase, pregnancy, or with the use of combined oral contraceptive pills. The term cervical erosion is no longer commonly used to describe this condition.
Cervical ectropion can cause symptoms such as vaginal discharge and post-coital bleeding. However, ablative treatments such as cold coagulation are only recommended for those experiencing troublesome symptoms. It is important to understand this condition and its symptoms in order to seek appropriate medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding the use of supplements or medication. She has no significant medical or family history and has previously given birth to two healthy children in the past three years without complications. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a BMI of 31 kg/m2. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: 5mg of folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400 micrograms. Therefore, the lifestyle and dietary advice given to this patient is incorrect. Additionally, prescribing 75 mg of aspirin is not appropriate for this patient as it is typically given to women with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors for pre-eclampsia, and a BMI over 35 would only qualify as a single moderate-risk factor. While 150 mg of aspirin is an alternative dose for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis, 75 mg is more commonly used in practice.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 42-year-old female smoker visits her GP seeking advice on contraception. She believes she has reached menopause as her last menstrual period was 15 months ago. What is the most suitable form of contraception for her?
The menopause is typically diagnosed retrospectively, 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who experience menopause before the age of 50 require contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period, while those over 50 require only 1 year of contraception. Given her age and smoking status, prescribing the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) for only 12 months would not be appropriate. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) should not be used solely as a form of contraception, and barrier methods are less effective than other options. Therefore, the most suitable form of contraception for this patient would be the intrauterine system (IUS), which can be used for up to 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period.Your Answer: The intrauterine system (IUS)
Explanation:The menopause is diagnosed retrospectively and occurs 12 months after the last menstrual period. Women who experience menopause before the age of 50 need contraception for at least 2 years after their last menstrual period, while those over 50 require only 1 year of contraception. Therefore, it would be incorrect to assume that this woman does not need contraception because she is protected. Prescribing the COCP for only 12 months would also be inappropriate, especially since she is a smoker over the age of 35. Hormone replacement therapy should not be used as a sole form of contraception, and barrier methods are less effective than other types of contraception. The most appropriate option is the IUS, which can be used for 7 years (off-licence) or 2 years after her last menstrual period and will take her through menopause. This information is based on the FSRH’s guidelines on contraception for women aged over 40 (July 2010).
Understanding Menopause and Contraception
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.
It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old multiparous woman presents to a specialist clinic with menorrhagia. She has multiple fibroids that distort the uterine cavity and has already completed a 3-month trial of tranexamic acid, which did not improve her symptoms. On examination, you notice that she appears pale and her uterus is equivalent to 16 weeks of pregnancy. The patient expresses her frustration and desire for a definitive treatment. A negative urinary pregnancy test is obtained. What would be the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient's menorrhagia?
Your Answer: Uterine artery embolisation
Correct Answer: Hysterectomy
Explanation:Hysterectomy is the most effective treatment for menorrhagia caused by large fibroids, which are benign tumors of smooth muscle that can grow in response to hormones. Risk factors for fibroids include obesity, early menarche, African-American origin, and a family history of fibroids. Symptoms of fibroids include heavy periods, anemia, abdominal discomfort, and pressure symptoms. Diagnosis is made through pelvic ultrasound. Medical management with NSAIDs or tranexamic acid can be tried first, but if it fails, surgical management is necessary. Uterine-sparing surgeries like myomectomy or uterine artery embolization can be considered for women who want to preserve their fertility, but hysterectomy is the definitive method of treatment for women who have completed their family or have severe symptoms. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is not recommended for women with large fibroids causing uterine distortion. Mefenamic acid is less effective than tranexamic acid for fibroid-related menorrhagia. Myomectomy is not a definitive method of management as fibroids can recur. Uterine artery embolization is an option for women who want to preserve their uterus but not their fertility, but its effect on fertility and pregnancy is not well established.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits her GP for her routine cervical smear, which is performed without any complications. She receives a notification that her cervical smear is negative for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV).
What should be the next course of action?Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 months
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years
Explanation:If the sample is negative for high-risk strains of human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the patient should return to routine recall for their next cervical smear in 3 years, according to current guidance. Cytological examination is not necessary in this case as it is only performed if the hrHPV test is positive. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 months or 5 years is not appropriate as these are not the recommended timeframes for recall. Repeating the cervical smear after 12 months is only indicated if the previous smear was hrHPV positive but without cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman at 16 week gestation presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with complaints of light vaginal bleeding, fevers for 2 days, and increasing abdominal pain for 6 hours. On examination, she has diffuse abdominal tenderness and foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Her temperature is 39.2ºC and blood pressure is 112/78 mmHg. Her full blood count shows Hb of 107 g/L, platelets of 189 * 109/L, and WBC of 13.2 * 109/L. An ultrasound confirms miscarriage. What is the most appropriate management?
Your Answer: Manual vacuum aspiration under local anaesthetic
Explanation:If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of haemorrhage, expectant management is not a suitable option for miscarriage. In such cases, NICE recommends either medical management (using oral or vaginal misoprostol) or surgical management (including manual vacuum aspiration). In this particular case, surgical management is the only option as the patient has evidence of infection, possibly due to septic miscarriage. Syntocinon is used for medical management of postpartum haemorrhage, while methotrexate is used for medical management of ectopic pregnancy. Oral mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol for termination of pregnancy, but it is not recommended by NICE for the management of miscarriage.
Management Options for Miscarriage
Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.
Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.
Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.
It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except that she has not menstruated. A pelvic examination reveals a mobile mass in her left labium major and a shallow, blind-ending vagina without a cervix, but otherwise normal female external genitalia. Ultrasound reveals no cervix, uterus or ovaries. Karyotype analysis reveals 46,XY.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)
Explanation:Disorders of Sexual Development: An Overview
Disorders of sexual development (DSD) are a group of conditions that affect the development of the reproductive system. Here are some of the most common DSDs:
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)
AIS is a condition where cells cannot respond to androgens, resulting in disrupted sexual development. Patients with complete AIS have a female phenotype with male internal genitalia, while those with partial or mild AIS may have a mix of male and female characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a condition where patients are missing all or part of an X chromosome, resulting in premature ovarian failure and delayed puberty. Patients are phenotypically female with normal external genitalia.Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where patients have an extra copy of an X chromosome, resulting in hypogonadism and infertility. Patients are phenotypically male with normal external genitalia.Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later present with symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome or hyperpigmentation.5-α Reductase Deficiency
5-α reductase deficiency is a condition where patients have a mutation in the SDR5A2 gene, resulting in disrupted formation of external genitalia before birth. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later show virilisation during puberty. Patients are infertile.Treatment for DSDs involves hormone replacement therapy and supportive care. It is important to provide psychosocial support for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of left-sided pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia at 16 weeks of pregnancy. She has not experienced any vaginal bleeding, discharge, or dysuria. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated so far, and she has a gravid uterus that is large for her gestational age. Her vital signs are stable, with a temperature of 37.1ºC, blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg, heart rate of 70 beats/min, and respiratory rate of 18 breaths/minute. She had an intrauterine system for menorrhagia before conception and has no other medical history. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Growth of pre-existing fibroids due to increased oestrogen
Explanation:During pregnancy, uterine fibroids may experience growth. These fibroids are common and often do not show any symptoms. However, in non-pregnant women, they can cause menorrhagia. In early pregnancy, they grow due to oestrogen and can cause pelvic pain and pressure. If they grow too quickly and surpass their blood supply, they may undergo ‘red degeneration’. This patient’s symptoms, including pelvic pain and a history of menorrhagia, suggest that the growth of pre-existing fibroids due to oestrogen may be the cause. However, further investigation with ultrasound is necessary to confirm this diagnosis. Ectopic pregnancies are rare in the second trimester and are typically detected during routine ultrasound scans. This patient is unlikely to have an ectopic pregnancy as her first ultrasound scan would have confirmed an intrauterine pregnancy. Pelvic inflammatory disease is not the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms as it is associated with additional symptoms such as vaginal discharge and dysuria, and the patient would likely be febrile. The growth of pre-existing fibroids due to decreased progesterone is incorrect as progesterone, like oestrogen, is increased during pregnancy. This patient does not exhibit symptoms of dysuria, renal angle tenderness, or pyrexia.
Understanding Fibroid Degeneration
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 22-year-old female patient comes to see her doctor, 2 weeks after undergoing a medical abortion. She has concerns that the procedure may not have been successful as her home pregnancy test still shows a positive result. What is the expected timeframe for the pregnancy test to become negative if the abortion was effective?
Your Answer: Negative 2 weeks from today
Explanation:After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. If the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it may indicate an incomplete abortion or persistent trophoblast. In this case, the correct answer to when the pregnancy test should be negative is 2 weeks from now, as the termination occurred 2 weeks ago. A negative result one week ago is not relevant, and 4 weeks from today or 8 weeks from today are both incorrect as they fall outside of the 4-week window.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about her upcoming vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair. What is a potential long-term complication of this procedure?
Your Answer: Vaginal vault prolapse
Explanation:Long-Term Complications of Vaginal Hysterectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair is a common surgical procedure for women. However, it may lead to long-term complications such as enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse. These conditions occur when the pelvic organs shift and push against the vaginal wall, causing discomfort and pain. While urinary retention may occur immediately after the surgery, it is not typically a chronic complication.
It is important for women who undergo vaginal hysterectomy to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider. Regular check-ups and pelvic exams can help detect any issues early on and prevent further complications. Additionally, women can take steps to reduce their risk of developing these conditions by maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding heavy lifting, and practicing pelvic floor exercises. By being proactive and informed, women can minimize the impact of long-term complications and enjoy a better quality of life after surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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