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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with chronic back pain and renal failure presents with the following blood test results:
Reference range
Ca2+ 2.10 2.15-2.55 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone 9.8 1-6.5 pmol/l
Phosphate 0.75 0.6-1.25 mmol/l
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Secondary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by elevated levels of PTH, while calcium levels are either normal or low. This condition occurs due to the parathyroid glands’ hyperplasia in response to chronic hypocalcemia or hyperphosphatemia, which is a natural physiological reaction. The body releases calcium from the kidneys, gastrointestinal system, and bones.
Parathyroid Glands and Disorders of Calcium Metabolism
The parathyroid glands play a crucial role in regulating calcium levels in the body. Hyperparathyroidism is a disorder that occurs when these glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to abnormal calcium metabolism. Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common form and is usually caused by a solitary adenoma. Secondary hyperparathyroidism occurs as a result of low calcium levels, often in the setting of chronic renal failure. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a rare condition that occurs when hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands persists after correction of underlying renal disorder.
Diagnosis of hyperparathyroidism is based on hormone profiles and clinical features. Treatment options vary depending on the type and severity of the disorder. Surgery is usually indicated for primary hyperparathyroidism if certain criteria are met, such as elevated serum calcium levels, hypercalciuria, and nephrolithiasis. Secondary hyperparathyroidism is typically managed with medical therapy, while surgery may be necessary for persistent symptoms such as bone pain and soft tissue calcifications. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism may resolve on its own within a year after transplant, but surgery may be required if an autonomously functioning parathyroid gland is present. It is important to consider differential diagnoses, such as benign familial hypocalciuric hypercalcaemia, which is a rare but relatively benign condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male is recovering from trans-sphenoidal surgery for a non-functioning pituitary adenoma. He reports excessive thirst and increased water intake to the doctors during the ward round, four days after the surgery. The patient's fluid chart shows a urine output of 7 litres in the past 24 hours, and his blood glucose level is 5.2mmol/L. To confirm the diagnosis, the doctors plan to conduct a water-deprivation test and a vasopressin test.
What are the expected results of the urine osmolality investigations, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: After fluid deprivation, low; after desmopressin, high
Explanation:The patient has developed cranial diabetes insipidus after pituitary surgery. Water deprivation testing showed low urine osmolality after fluid deprivation and high urine osmolality after desmopressin administration. This condition can also be caused by head trauma or occur idiopathically. Water deprivation testing can also be useful for investigating psychogenic polydipsia. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is the other main cause, where the kidneys cannot properly respond to vasopressin.
The water deprivation test is a diagnostic tool used to assess patients with polydipsia, or excessive thirst. During the test, the patient is instructed to refrain from drinking water, and their bladder is emptied. Hourly measurements of urine and plasma osmolalities are taken to monitor changes in the body’s fluid balance. The results of the test can help identify the underlying cause of the patient’s polydipsia. Normal results show a high urine osmolality after the administration of DDAVP, while psychogenic polydipsia is characterized by a low urine osmolality. Cranial DI and nephrogenic DI are both associated with high plasma osmolalities and low urine osmolalities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man with a long history of poorly controlled type-2 diabetes is prescribed a new medication that increases urinary glucose excretion. The doctor informs him that it belongs to the SGLT-2 inhibitor drug class.
Which of the following medications is classified as an SGLT-2 inhibitor?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dapagliflozin
Explanation:SGLT2 inhibitors are known as gliflozins.
Sulfonylurea refers to tolbutamide.
GLP-1 receptor agonist is exenatide.
DPP-4 inhibitor is linagliptin.
Understanding SGLT-2 Inhibitors
SGLT-2 inhibitors are medications that work by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased excretion of glucose in the urine. This mechanism of action helps to lower blood sugar levels in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examples of SGLT-2 inhibitors include canagliflozin, dapagliflozin, and empagliflozin.
However, it is important to note that SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have adverse effects. Patients taking these medications may be at increased risk for urinary and genital infections due to the increased glucose in the urine. Fournier’s gangrene, a rare but serious bacterial infection of the genital area, has also been reported. Additionally, there is a risk of normoglycemic ketoacidosis, a condition where the body produces high levels of ketones even when blood sugar levels are normal. Finally, patients taking SGLT-2 inhibitors may be at increased risk for lower-limb amputations, so it is important to closely monitor the feet.
Despite these potential risks, SGLT-2 inhibitors can also have benefits. Patients taking these medications often experience weight loss, which can be beneficial for those with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Overall, it is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of SGLT-2 inhibitors with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right hip pain following a fall at home. She is unable to bear weight and her right leg appears externally rotated and shorter. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis in her knee, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. She is currently being tapered off prednisolone for polymyalgia rheumatica which was diagnosed 2 years ago. Which medication in her regimen may have contributed to her increased risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Patients who take systemic corticosteroids over a long period of time are at a higher risk of developing osteoporosis and experiencing fractures. In this case, the patient’s hip fracture may have been caused by her pre-existing osteoporosis.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and started on carbimazole. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevents iodination of the tyrosine residue on thyroglobulin
Explanation:Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the hypertension clinic with refractory hypertension. She was diagnosed with hypertension at the age of 33 and has been on multiple antihypertensive medications without success. She reports experiencing intermittent headaches, flushes, and palpitations.
During the discussion of further treatment options, the patient reveals that her blood pressure dropped to an average of 100/65 mmHg when she was prescribed an alpha-blocker. This suggests that her hypertension may have a secondary cause.
What is the most likely anatomical location of the underlying issue?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adrenal medulla
Explanation:Although a 1.5cm difference in kidney size or a single occurrence of flash edema may prompt the initiation of an ACE inhibitor, the symptoms described in the patient’s medical history are more indicative of a phaeochromocytoma, which is likely originating from the adrenal medulla.
The Function of Adrenal Medulla
The adrenal medulla is responsible for producing almost all of the adrenaline in the body, along with small amounts of noradrenaline. Essentially, it is a specialized and enlarged sympathetic ganglion. This gland plays a crucial role in the body’s response to stress and danger, as adrenaline is a hormone that prepares the body for the fight or flight response. When the body perceives a threat, the adrenal medulla releases adrenaline into the bloodstream, which increases heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration, while also dilating the pupils and increasing blood flow to the muscles. This response helps the body to react quickly and effectively to danger. Overall, the adrenal medulla is an important component of the body’s stress response system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man was recently admitted to hospital with invasive meningococcal disease. He has no other medical history but is now complaining of extreme fatigue, light-headedness and rapid weight loss. He has also noticed his skin appears much more tanned than usual. His BP is 98/60 mmHg. Capillary glucose is found to be 2.2 mmol/L.
Hb 135 g/L Male: (130 - 180)
Platelets 280 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 5.5 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Na+ 128 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 5.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 19 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 125 µmol/L (55 - 120)
What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Waterhouse-Friedrichsen syndrome
Explanation:Understanding Waterhouse-Friderichsen Syndrome
Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome is a condition that occurs when the adrenal glands fail due to a previous adrenal haemorrhage caused by a severe bacterial infection. The most common cause of this condition is Neisseria meningitidis, but it can also be caused by other bacteria such as Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Escherichia coli, and Streptococcus pneumoniae.
The symptoms of Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome are similar to those of hypoadrenalism, including lethargy, weakness, anorexia, nausea and vomiting, and weight loss. Other symptoms may include hyperpigmentation, especially in the palmar creases, vitiligo, and loss of pubic hair in women. In severe cases, a crisis may occur, which can lead to collapse, shock, and pyrexia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman with a history of coeliac disease presents to the emergency department with palpitations, diaphoresis, and tremors. Upon examination, her vital signs reveal a heart rate of 110 bpm and respiratory rate of 24 per min. She displays hand tremors, bulging eyeballs, and diffuse swelling in her neck. Her blood tests show:
TSH 0.1 mU/l
Free T4 32.5 pmol/l
Free T3 12.5 pmol/l
What is the most probable underlying pathophysiology in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibodies to TSH receptors
Explanation:Graves’ disease is the most probable cause of thyrotoxicosis in a middle-aged woman, particularly if she exhibits exophthalmos. This autoimmune disorder is characterised by the presence of antibodies to the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) receptors.
Graves’ Disease: Common Features and Unique Signs
Graves’ disease is the most frequent cause of thyrotoxicosis, which is commonly observed in women aged 30-50 years. The condition presents typical features of thyrotoxicosis, such as weight loss, palpitations, and heat intolerance. However, Graves’ disease also displays specific signs that are not present in other causes of thyrotoxicosis. These include eye signs, such as exophthalmos and ophthalmoplegia, as well as pretibial myxoedema and thyroid acropachy. The latter is a triad of digital clubbing, soft tissue swelling of the hands and feet, and periosteal new bone formation.
Graves’ disease is characterized by the presence of autoantibodies, including TSH receptor stimulating antibodies in 90% of patients and anti-thyroid peroxidase antibodies in 75% of patients. Thyroid scintigraphy reveals a diffuse, homogenous, and increased uptake of radioactive iodine. These features help distinguish Graves’ disease from other causes of thyrotoxicosis and aid in its diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male comes to see you with worries about his weight. He has a BMI of 32 and you suspect he may have metabolic syndrome. What is one of the diagnostic criteria for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dyslipidaemia
Explanation:Metabolic syndrome is a group of risk factors for cardiovascular disease that are closely related to insulin resistance and central obesity.
The diagnostic criteria for metabolic syndrome vary widely, but the International Diabetes Federation (IDF) and American Heart Association (AHA) have established their own criteria, which are commonly used. A diagnosis is made if three or more of the following criteria are present: increased waist circumference (depending on ethnicity) or a BMI greater than 30, dyslipidemia with elevated triglycerides greater than 150 mg/dL or reduced HDL-cholesterol, hypertension, and impaired glucose tolerance.
The Physiology of Obesity: Leptin and Ghrelin
Leptin is a hormone produced by adipose tissue that plays a crucial role in regulating body weight. It acts on the hypothalamus, specifically on the satiety centers, to decrease appetite and induce feelings of fullness. In cases of obesity, where there is an excess of adipose tissue, leptin levels are high. Leptin also stimulates the release of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) and corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which further contribute to the regulation of appetite. On the other hand, low levels of leptin stimulate the release of neuropeptide Y (NPY), which increases appetite.
Ghrelin, on the other hand, is a hormone that stimulates hunger. It is mainly produced by the P/D1 cells lining the fundus of the stomach and epsilon cells of the pancreas. Ghrelin levels increase before meals, signaling the body to prepare for food intake, and decrease after meals, indicating that the body has received enough nutrients.
In summary, the balance between leptin and ghrelin plays a crucial role in regulating appetite and body weight. In cases of obesity, there is an imbalance in this system, with high levels of leptin and potentially disrupted ghrelin signaling, leading to increased appetite and weight gain.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with abdominal tenderness, steatorrhoea, and jaundice. Upon investigation, a somatostatinoma of the pancreas is discovered. What is the probable cell type from which this neoplasm originated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Delta-cells
Explanation:Somatostatin is secreted by the delta cells located in the pancreas. These cells are also present in the stomach, duodenum, and jejunum. In the pancreas, somatostatin plays a role in inhibiting the release of exocrine enzymes, glucagon, and insulin. In rare cases of large somatostatinomas, patients may experience mild diabetes mellitus.
The answer choices of alpha-cells, beta-cells, and S-cells are incorrect as they secrete glucagon, insulin, and secretin, respectively.
Somatostatin: The Inhibitor Hormone
Somatostatin, also known as growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH), is a hormone produced by delta cells found in the pancreas, pylorus, and duodenum. Its main function is to inhibit the secretion of growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon. It also decreases acid and pepsin secretion, as well as pancreatic enzyme secretion. Additionally, somatostatin inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
Somatostatin analogs are commonly used in the management of acromegaly, a condition characterized by excessive growth hormone secretion. These analogs work by inhibiting growth hormone secretion, thereby reducing the symptoms associated with acromegaly.
The secretion of somatostatin is regulated by various factors. Its secretion increases in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen, as well as glucagon. On the other hand, insulin decreases the secretion of somatostatin.
In summary, somatostatin plays a crucial role in regulating the secretion of various hormones and enzymes in the body. Its inhibitory effects on growth hormone, insulin, and glucagon make it an important hormone in the management of certain medical conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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What is the primary constituent of the colloid found in the thyroid gland?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroglobulin
Explanation:Thyroid Hormones and LATS in Graves Disease
Thyroid hormones are produced by the thyroid gland and include triiodothyronine (T3) and thyroxine (T4), with T3 being the major hormone active in target cells. The synthesis and secretion of these hormones involves the active concentration of iodide by the thyroid, which is then oxidized and iodinated by peroxidase in the follicular cells. This process is stimulated by thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which is released by the pituitary gland. The normal thyroid has approximately three months’ worth of reserves of thyroid hormones.
In Graves disease, patients develop IgG antibodies to the TSH receptors on the thyroid gland. This results in chronic and long-term stimulation of the gland with the release of thyroid hormones. As a result, individuals with Graves disease typically have raised thyroid hormones and low TSH levels. It is important to check for thyroid receptor autoantibodies in individuals presenting with hyperthyroidism, as they are present in up to 85% of cases. This condition is known as LATS (long-acting thyroid stimulator) and can lead to a range of symptoms and complications if left untreated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of gynaecomastia. He is currently undergoing treatment for heart failure and gastro-oesophageal reflux. Which medication that he is taking is the most probable cause of his gynaecomastia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Medications Associated with Gynaecomastia
Gynaecomastia, the enlargement of male breast tissue, can be caused by various medications. Spironolactone, ciclosporin, cimetidine, and omeprazole are some of the drugs that have been associated with this condition. Ramipril has also been linked to gynaecomastia, but it is a rare occurrence.
Aside from these medications, other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include digoxin, LHRH analogues, cimetidine, and finasteride. It is important to note that not all individuals who take these medications will develop gynaecomastia, and the risk may vary depending on the dosage and duration of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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An 8-year-old girl has been brought to the GP by her mother who is worried that her daughter may be starting puberty too early. The mother reports an enlargement in nipple size, some breast development, and the appearance of light hairs on the edge of the labia majora.
At what Tanner stage is the girl currently?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: II
Explanation:Puberty: Normal Changes in Males and Females
Puberty is a natural process that marks the transition from childhood to adolescence. In males, the first sign of puberty is testicular growth, which typically occurs around the age of 12. Testicular volume greater than 4 ml indicates the onset of puberty. The maximum height spurt for boys occurs at the age of 14. On the other hand, in females, the first sign of puberty is breast development, which usually occurs around the age of 11.5. The height spurt for girls reaches its maximum early in puberty, at the age of 12, before menarche. Menarche, or the first menstrual period, typically occurs at the age of 13, with a range of 11-15 years. Following menarche, there is only a slight increase of about 4% in height.
During puberty, it is normal for boys to experience gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue. Girls may also experience asymmetrical breast growth. Additionally, diffuse enlargement of the thyroid gland may be seen in both males and females. These changes are all part of the normal process of puberty and should not be a cause for concern.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old woman presents for her routine check-up. She has recently been prescribed insulin for management of her type 2 diabetes. While discussing her medical history, she reports experiencing numbness in her entire right foot. Upon examination, an ulcer is observed on the webbing between her fourth and fifth toes.
What would be the most appropriate next course of action to investigate this woman's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full neurovascular examination of the lower limbs
Explanation:The two main factors that contribute to diabetic foot disease are loss of sensation and peripheral arterial disease. When reviewing a diabetic patient who presents with a complication, it is crucial to recognize that those with a loss of protective sensation are at a high risk of developing diabetic foot disease. Therefore, any ulcers must be promptly managed to prevent severe infection.
Out of the given options, the most appropriate next step in managing this patient is to conduct a full neurovascular examination of their lower limbs. While checking the HbA1C levels is important, it is not the immediate concern for this patient. Similarly, examining foot sensation using a 10g monofilament is a crucial step, but it is only a part of a comprehensive neurovascular examination. Measuring C-peptide is not relevant to the current situation.
Diabetic foot disease is a significant complication of diabetes mellitus that requires regular screening. In 2015, NICE published guidelines on diabetic foot disease. The disease is caused by two main factors: neuropathy, which results in a loss of protective sensation, and peripheral arterial disease, which can cause macro and microvascular ischaemia. Symptoms of diabetic foot disease include loss of sensation, absent foot pulses, reduced ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI), intermittent claudication, calluses, ulceration, Charcot’s arthropathy, cellulitis, osteomyelitis, and gangrene.
All patients with diabetes should be screened for diabetic foot disease at least once a year. Screening for ischaemia involves palpating for both the dorsalis pedis pulse and posterial tibial artery pulse, while screening for neuropathy involves using a 10 g monofilament on various parts of the sole of the foot. NICE recommends that patients be risk-stratified into low, moderate, and high-risk categories based on factors such as deformity, previous ulceration or amputation, renal replacement therapy, and the presence of calluses or neuropathy. Patients who are moderate or high-risk should be regularly followed up by their local diabetic foot centre.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old male has been diagnosed with Cushing's disease due to a pituitary adenoma, resulting in elevated plasma cortisol levels. Which part of the adrenal gland is responsible for producing cortisol hormone?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata
Explanation:The adrenal gland comprises two primary parts: the cortex and medulla.
The adrenal medulla is accountable for the production of adrenaline and noradrenaline, which are catecholamines.
The adrenal cortex is divided into three layers: glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis. The glomerulosa primarily produces mineralocorticoids, while the reticularis mainly produces sex steroids. As a result, the Zona fasciculata is the primary source of glucocorticosteroids.
Cortisol: Functions and Regulation
Cortisol is a hormone produced in the zona fasciculata of the adrenal cortex. It plays a crucial role in various bodily functions and is essential for life. Cortisol increases blood pressure by up-regulating alpha-1 receptors on arterioles, allowing for a normal response to angiotensin II and catecholamines. However, it inhibits bone formation by decreasing osteoblasts, type 1 collagen, and absorption of calcium from the gut, while increasing osteoclastic activity. Cortisol also increases insulin resistance and metabolism by increasing gluconeogenesis, lipolysis, and proteolysis. It inhibits inflammatory and immune responses, but maintains the function of skeletal and cardiac muscle.
The regulation of cortisol secretion is controlled by the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis. The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol. The hypothalamus releases corticotrophin-releasing hormone (CRH), which stimulates the pituitary gland to release ACTH. Stress can also increase cortisol secretion.
Excess cortisol in the body can lead to Cushing’s syndrome, which can cause a range of symptoms such as weight gain, muscle weakness, and high blood pressure. Understanding the functions and regulation of cortisol is important for maintaining overall health and preventing hormonal imbalances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, and lethargy. The pain started suddenly 2 hours ago and is spread across her entire abdomen. She has a medical history of appendicectomy eight years ago and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Upon examination, her pH is 7.25 (normal range: 7.35-7.45) and bicarbonate is 9 mmol/L (normal range: 22-29mmol/L). What additional investigations are necessary to confirm the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood ketones
Explanation:Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which is the most probable diagnosis in this case. The patient’s symptoms, including abdominal pain, strongly suggest DKA. Blood ketones are the appropriate investigation as they are part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA, along with pH and bicarbonate.
Amylase could help rule out acute pancreatitis, but it is not the most likely diagnosis, so it would not confirm it. Pancreatitis typically presents with severe upper abdominal pain and vomiting. Polydipsia and polyuria are more indicative of DKA, and the patient’s known history of type 1 diabetes mellitus makes DKA more likely.
Beta-hCG would be an appropriate investigation for abdominal pain in a woman of childbearing age, but it is not necessary in this case as DKA is the most likely diagnosis.
Blood glucose levels would be useful if the patient were not a known type 1 diabetic, but they do not form part of the diagnostic criteria for DKA. Blood glucose levels would also be helpful in distinguishing between DKA and HHS, but HHS is unlikely in this case as it occurs in patients with type 2 diabetes.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 43-year-old woman with a history of severe ulcerative colitis (UC) presents to the emergency department with her fourth acute flare in the past 6 months. She has a past medical history of recreational drug use and depression. The patient is given IV hydrocortisone and appears to be responding well. She is discharged after a day of observation with a 7-day course of prednisolone, but the consultant is considering long-term steroid therapy due to the severity of her condition. Which of the following is associated with long-term steroid use?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increased risk of mania
Explanation:Long-term use of steroids can lead to a higher risk of psychiatric disorders such as depression, mania, psychosis, and insomnia. This risk is even greater if the patient has a history of recreational drug use or mental disorders. While proximal myopathy is a known adverse effect of long-term steroid use, distal myopathy is not commonly observed. However, some studies have reported it as a rare and uncommon adverse effect. Steroids are also known to increase appetite, leading to weight gain, making the last two options incorrect.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You are in charge of the care of a 23-year-old man who has come for a military medical evaluation. Based on his symptoms, you suspect that he has type 1 diabetes and has been secretly administering insulin. What clinical methods can you use to evaluate his endogenous insulin production?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C-peptide
Explanation:C-peptide is a reliable indicator of insulin production as it is secreted in proportion to insulin. It is often used clinically to measure endogenous insulin production.
Insulin is a hormone produced by the pancreas that plays a crucial role in regulating the metabolism of carbohydrates and fats in the body. It works by causing cells in the liver, muscles, and fat tissue to absorb glucose from the bloodstream, which is then stored as glycogen in the liver and muscles or as triglycerides in fat cells. The human insulin protein is made up of 51 amino acids and is a dimer of an A-chain and a B-chain linked together by disulfide bonds. Pro-insulin is first formed in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of pancreatic beta cells and then cleaved to form insulin and C-peptide. Insulin is stored in secretory granules and released in response to high levels of glucose in the blood. In addition to its role in glucose metabolism, insulin also inhibits lipolysis, reduces muscle protein loss, and increases cellular uptake of potassium through stimulation of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old patient visits their doctor complaining of dehydration caused by vomiting and diarrhoea. The kidneys detect reduced renal perfusion, leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. What is the specific part of the adrenal gland required for this system?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Zona glomerulosa
Explanation:Aldosterone is produced in the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal gland.
Renin is released by juxtaglomerular cells located in the nephron.
ACE is produced by the pulmonary endothelium in the lungs.
The adrenal gland is composed of the zona glomerulosa, fasciculata, and reticularis.
Glucocorticoids are produced in the zona fasciculata.
Adrenal Physiology: Medulla and Cortex
The adrenal gland is composed of two main parts: the medulla and the cortex. The medulla is responsible for secreting the catecholamines noradrenaline and adrenaline, which are released in response to sympathetic nervous system stimulation. The chromaffin cells of the medulla are innervated by the splanchnic nerves, and the release of these hormones is triggered by the secretion of acetylcholine from preganglionic sympathetic fibers. Phaeochromocytomas, which are tumors derived from chromaffin cells, can cause excessive secretion of both adrenaline and noradrenaline.
The adrenal cortex is divided into three distinct zones: the zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, and zona reticularis. Each zone is responsible for secreting different hormones. The outer zone, zona glomerulosa, secretes aldosterone, which regulates electrolyte balance and blood pressure. The middle zone, zona fasciculata, secretes glucocorticoids, which are involved in the regulation of metabolism, immune function, and stress response. The inner zone, zona reticularis, secretes androgens, which are involved in the development and maintenance of male sex characteristics.
Most of the hormones secreted by the adrenal cortex, including glucocorticoids and aldosterone, are bound to plasma proteins in the circulation. Glucocorticoids are inactivated and excreted by the liver. Understanding the physiology of the adrenal gland is important for the diagnosis and treatment of various endocrine disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with intense abdominal pain and a decreased Glasgow coma score (GCS). Over the past few weeks, he has been experiencing excessive urination, abnormal thirst, and weight loss. Laboratory results reveal:
Ketones 4.2 mmol/L (<0.6 mmol/L)
Glucose 20 mmol/L
pH 7.25
What is the probable cause of the acidosis and hyperketonemia in this case?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Uncontrolled lipolysis
Explanation:The likely cause of the patient’s condition is diabetic ketoacidosis, which is a result of uncontrolled lipolysis. This process leads to an excess of free fatty acids that are eventually converted into ketone bodies. It is important to note that proteolysis, the breakdown of proteins into smaller polypeptides, does not yield ketone bodies and is not the cause of this condition. While glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis are increased due to the lack of insulin and rise of glucagon, they do not result in acidosis or elevated levels of ketone bodies. It is ketogenesis, not ketolysis, that leads to the increased levels of ketone bodies.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which of the following will increase the volume of pancreatic exocrine secretions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholecystokinin
Explanation:The volume of pancreatic secretions is often increased by cholecystokinin.
Pancreatic Secretions and their Regulation
Pancreatic secretions are composed of enzymes and aqueous substances, with a pH of 8 and a volume of 1000-1500ml per day. The acinar cells secrete enzymes such as trypsinogen, procarboxylase, amylase, and elastase, while the ductal and centroacinar cells secrete sodium, bicarbonate, water, potassium, and chloride. The regulation of pancreatic secretions is mainly stimulated by CCK and ACh, which are released in response to digested material in the small bowel. Secretin, released by the S cells of the duodenum, also stimulates ductal cells and increases bicarbonate secretion.
Trypsinogen is converted to active trypsin in the duodenum via enterokinase, and trypsin then activates the other inactive enzymes. The cephalic and gastric phases have less of an impact on regulating pancreatic secretions. Understanding the composition and regulation of pancreatic secretions is important in the diagnosis and treatment of pancreatic disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman complains of fatigue after experiencing flu-like symptoms two weeks ago. Upon examination, she has a smooth, small goiter and a pulse rate of 68 bpm. Her lab results show a Free T4 level of 9.3 pmol/L (normal range: 9.8-23.1) and a TSH level of 49.3 mU/L (normal range: 0.35-5.50). What additional test would you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Thyroid peroxidase (TPO) antibodies
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Primary Hypothyroidism
The patient’s test results indicate a case of primary hypothyroidism, characterized by low levels of thyroxine (T4) and elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH). The most likely cause of this condition is Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, which is often accompanied by the presence of thyroid peroxidase antibodies. While the patient has a goitre, it appears to be smooth and non-threatening, so a thyroid ultrasound is not necessary. Additionally, a radio-iodine uptake scan is unlikely to show significant uptake and is therefore not recommended. Positive TSH receptor antibodies are typically associated with Graves’ disease, which is not the likely diagnosis in this case. For further information on Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, patients can refer to Patient.info.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A father brings his 14-year-old son to see you as he is concerned about his growth. He is taller than his peers, has not yet experienced puberty and has developed excessive body hair. He is referred to a specialist who diagnoses mild congenital adrenal hyperplasia.
What is the most frequent deficiency leading to this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 21-hydroxylase deficiency
Explanation:The most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is 21-hydroxylase deficiency, while 17-hydroxylase deficiency is a rare cause. 17β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase deficiency results in a rare condition of sexual development, while 5-alpha reductase deficiency affects male sexual development.
Understanding Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of genetic disorders that affect the production of adrenal steroids. It is an autosomal recessive disorder, which means that both parents must carry the gene for the disorder to be passed on to their child. The most common cause of congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a deficiency in the enzyme 21-hydroxylase, which is responsible for the production of cortisol and aldosterone. This deficiency leads to low levels of cortisol, which triggers the anterior pituitary gland to produce high levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). ACTH then stimulates the adrenal glands to produce excess androgens, which can cause virilization in female infants.
Other less common forms of congenital adrenal hyperplasia include 11-beta hydroxylase deficiency and 17-hydroxylase deficiency. These conditions also affect the production of adrenal steroids and can lead to similar symptoms.
It is important to diagnose and treat congenital adrenal hyperplasia early to prevent complications such as adrenal crisis, growth failure, and infertility. Treatment typically involves hormone replacement therapy to replace the deficient hormones and suppress the excess androgens. With proper management, individuals with congenital adrenal hyperplasia can lead healthy and normal lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 34-year-old male presents with tingling in his thumb, index, and middle finger, along with complaints of excessive fatigue and snoring. Upon examination, he displays a prominent brow ridge and significant facial changes over time. Following blood tests and an MRI scan, the patient is prescribed octreotide. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Somatostatin analogue
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition that results from excessive growth hormone production. The release of growth hormone is directly inhibited by somatostatin, which is why somatostatin analogues are used to treat acromegaly.
To answer the question, one must first recognize the symptoms of acromegaly, such as carpal tunnel syndrome, sleep apnea, and changes in facial features over time. The second part of the question involves identifying octreotide as a somatostatin analogue commonly used to treat acromegaly.
While dopamine agonists were previously used to treat acromegaly, they are no longer preferred due to the availability of more effective treatments. Dopamine antagonists have never been used to treat acromegaly. Pegvisomant is an example of a growth hormone antagonist, but antagonists for insulin growth factor-1 release have not yet been developed.
Acromegaly is a condition that can be managed through various treatment options. The first-line treatment for the majority of patients is trans-sphenoidal surgery. However, if the pituitary tumour is inoperable or surgery is unsuccessful, medication may be indicated. One such medication is a somatostatin analogue, which directly inhibits the release of growth hormone. Octreotide is an example of this medication and is effective in 50-70% of patients. Another medication is pegvisomant, which is a GH receptor antagonist that prevents dimerization of the GH receptor. It is administered once daily subcutaneously and is very effective, decreasing IGF-1 levels in 90% of patients to normal. However, it does not reduce tumour volume, so surgery is still needed if there is a mass effect. Dopamine agonists, such as bromocriptine, were the first effective medical treatment for acromegaly but are now superseded by somatostatin analogues and are only effective in a minority of patients. External irradiation may be used for older patients or following failed surgical/medical treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP after being prescribed carbimazole for Grave's disease. The GP must inform her of crucial side effects that require immediate medical attention if they occur. What is the most significant side effect?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sore throat
Explanation:Carbimazole, although generally safe, can have a rare but severe side effect of bone marrow suppression. This can lead to a weakened immune system due to low white blood cells, specifically neutrophils, resulting in neutropenia and agranulocytosis. The most common symptom of this is a sore throat, and if this occurs, treatment with carbimazole should be discontinued.
Hair loss and headaches are common side effects but are not considered harmful to the patient’s health. Other reported side effects include nausea, stomach pains, itchy skin, rashes, and muscle and joint pain.
It is important to note that chest pain and changes in vision are not known side effects of carbimazole.
Carbimazole is a medication used to treat thyrotoxicosis, a condition where the thyroid gland produces too much thyroid hormone. It is usually given in high doses for six weeks until the patient’s thyroid hormone levels become normal, after which the dosage is reduced. The drug works by blocking thyroid peroxidase, an enzyme that is responsible for coupling and iodinating the tyrosine residues on thyroglobulin, which ultimately leads to a reduction in thyroid hormone production. In contrast, propylthiouracil has a dual mechanism of action, inhibiting both thyroid peroxidase and 5′-deiodinase, which reduces the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.
However, carbimazole is not without its adverse effects. One of the most serious side effects is agranulocytosis, a condition where the body’s white blood cell count drops significantly, making the patient more susceptible to infections. Additionally, carbimazole can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus, although it may be used in low doses during pregnancy under close medical supervision. Overall, carbimazole is an effective medication for managing thyrotoxicosis, but its potential side effects should be carefully monitored.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to a consultant endocrinologist for a discussion regarding her thyroid function test outcomes. The results are as follows:
- Elevated TSH
- Decreased FT4
- Decreased FT3
- Positive Anti-TPO
What is the association of her condition with any of the following options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: MALT lymphoma
Explanation:The development of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is linked to
Understanding Hashimoto’s Thyroiditis
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is a chronic autoimmune disorder that affects the thyroid gland. It is more common in women and is typically associated with hypothyroidism, although there may be a temporary period of thyrotoxicosis during the acute phase. The condition is characterized by a firm, non-tender goitre and the presence of anti-thyroid peroxidase (TPO) and anti-thyroglobulin (Tg) antibodies.
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is often associated with other autoimmune conditions such as coeliac disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and vitiligo. Additionally, there is an increased risk of developing MALT lymphoma with this condition. It is important to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase, as shown in the Venn diagram. Understanding the features and associations of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis can aid in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A patient with a recent diagnosis of schizophrenia at the age of 40 is prescribed risperidone. During their consultation with the doctor, they are informed that some of the potential side effects are caused by elevated levels of prolactin.
What is the mechanism behind this occurrence?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of dopamine activity
Explanation:Dopamine plays a crucial role in inhibiting the release of prolactin. As atypical antipsychotics like risperidone block dopamine activity, they can lead to increased levels of prolactin. While these drugs may also inhibit histamine and serotonin to varying degrees, it is the inhibition of dopamine that is directly linked to prolactin release. Stimulation of dopamine or serotonin activity would not interfere with prolactin release in the same way that dopamine inhibition does.
Understanding Prolactin and Its Functions
Prolactin is a hormone that is produced by the anterior pituitary gland. Its primary function is to stimulate breast development and milk production in females. During pregnancy, prolactin levels increase to support the growth and development of the mammary glands. It also plays a role in reducing the pulsatility of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) at the hypothalamic level, which can block the action of luteinizing hormone (LH) on the ovaries or testes.
The secretion of prolactin is regulated by dopamine, which constantly inhibits its release. However, certain factors can increase or decrease prolactin secretion. For example, prolactin levels increase during pregnancy, in response to estrogen, and during breastfeeding. Additionally, stress, sleep, and certain drugs like metoclopramide and antipsychotics can also increase prolactin secretion. On the other hand, dopamine and dopaminergic agonists can decrease prolactin secretion.
Overall, understanding the functions and regulation of prolactin is important for reproductive health and lactation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old patient presents to his GP with concerns about his physical development. The patient reports feeling self-conscious about his body shape and experiencing bullying at school. On examination, the patient is noted to have gynaecomastia and microorchidism. The patient is referred to a paediatrician, who subsequently refers the patient to the genetics team. As part of their assessment, the genetics team orders a karyotype.
What karyotype results would be expected for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)
Explanation:Understanding Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that is characterized by an extra X chromosome, resulting in a karyotype of 47, XXY. Individuals with this syndrome often have a taller than average stature, but lack secondary sexual characteristics. They may also have small, firm testes and be infertile. Gynaecomastia, or the development of breast tissue, is also common in individuals with Klinefelter’s syndrome, and there is an increased risk of breast cancer. Despite elevated levels of gonadotrophins, testosterone levels are typically low.
Diagnosis of Klinefelter’s syndrome is made through karyotyping, which involves analyzing an individual’s chromosomes. It is important for individuals with this condition to receive appropriate medical care and support, as well as genetic counseling for family planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood test is requested to check PTH levels, serum calcium, phosphate and vitamin D.
Which of the following levels also need to be specifically checked?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Magnesium
Explanation:The correct answer is magnesium, as it is necessary for the secretion and function of parathyroid hormone. Adequate magnesium levels are required for the hormone to have its desired effects. CRP, urea, and platelets are not relevant to this situation and do not need to be tested.
Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects
Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.
The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.
Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male visits his GP for an insurance medical. The GP observes that the patient has rough facial features, an enlarged tongue, and greasy skin. The patient is also experiencing profuse sweating. Which hormone excess is likely to be accountable for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Growth hormone
Explanation:Acromegaly is a condition that results from an excess of growth hormone, which can cause a person to have a coarse facial appearance, a larger tongue, and excessive sweating and oily skin. This condition is often caused by a pituitary adenoma.
If a person has an excess of insulin, they may experience hypoglycemia and confusion. This can occur in cases of factitious illness, over-administration of insulin in diabetics, and insulinomas (neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors).
An excess of glucagon can cause hyperglycemia. Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas and is often elevated in cases of glucagonomas (neuroendocrine pancreatic tumors).
An excess of thyroid-stimulating hormone can be seen in cases of primary hypothyroidism and secondary hyperthyroidism.
Acromegaly is a condition characterized by excess growth hormone, which is usually caused by a pituitary adenoma in over 95% of cases. However, in some cases, it can be caused by ectopic GHRH or GH production by tumors, such as those found in the pancreas. The condition is associated with a number of physical features, including a coarse facial appearance, spade-like hands, and an increase in shoe size. Other features include a large tongue, prognathism, interdental spaces, excessive sweating, and oily skin, which are caused by sweat gland hypertrophy. In some cases, patients may also experience hypopituitarism, headaches, bitemporal hemianopia, and raised prolactin levels, which can lead to galactorrhea. Approximately 6% of patients with acromegaly also have MEN-1.
Complications associated with acromegaly include hypertension, diabetes (which affects over 10% of patients), cardiomyopathy, and colorectal cancer. It is important to diagnose and treat acromegaly early to prevent these complications from developing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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