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Question 1
Incorrect
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In endurance athletes, which of the following physiological adaptations to exercise is the best predictor of performance?
Your Answer: Reduction in heart rate for a given exercise intensity
Correct Answer: Velocity of blood lactate accumulation
Explanation:Multiple regression analysis revealed that velocity of lactate accumulation (VOBLA) accounted for 92 percent of the variation in marathon running velocity (VM), and VOBLA plus training volume prior to the marathon accounted for 96 percent of the variation. Percent ST muscle fibre distribution (r = 0.55-0.69) and capillary density (r = 052-0.63) were found to be positively correlated with all performance variables. As a result, marathon running performance was linked to VOBLA and the ability to run at a pace close to it during the race. The percent ST, capillary density, and training volume were all related to these properties.
Another metabolic adaptation compared to normal people is the early selection of fat for oxidation by muscle, especially when glucose availability is limited during high-intensity exercise. This helps to delay the onset of muscle fatigue, but it does not prevent VOBLA.
For a given level of exercise, training can also result in cardiovascular adaptation, such as increased heart size, increased contractility, and a slower heart rate. All of these factors contribute to an increase in maximal oxygen consumption (VO2 max), but genetic factors, despite intensive training, play a large role in an athlete’s performance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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An air ambulance brought a young boy involved in a fight to the emergency department. On examination, his blood pressure cannot be recorded. He suffers a stab wound to his chest that has penetrated the left atrium and the artery that supplies it. Which artery is most likely damaged in this scenario?
Your Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Correct Answer: Left coronary artery
Explanation:The left atrium is supplied by the left coronary artery and its major branch the left circumflex.
The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
The left marginal artery, a branch of the circumflex artery, supplies the left ventricle.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending arteryThe right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. It also supplies the atrioventricular node + sinoatrial node in most patients. The posterior descending artery supplies the posterior third of the interventricular septum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 3
Correct
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During a fight, a 20-year-old male is stabbed in the thigh with a bottle. He is admitted for treatment. Which feature, if present, suggests an injury to the femoral nerve?
Your Answer: Loss of knee reflex
Explanation:Femoral nerve lesion (L2,L3 and L4) is characterised by weakness of the quadriceps femoris muscle. This results in weakness of extension of the knee, loss of sensation over the front of the thigh, and loss of the knee jerk reflex.
The skin over the lateral aspect of the thigh and knee, and the lower lateral quadrant of the buttock is supplied by the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh (L1,2).
The adductors of the hip are supplied by the obturator nerve (L2-4). This nerve also supplies sensation to the inner thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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While inspecting the caecum, what structure will be identified at the point at which all the taeniae coli converge?
Your Answer: Appendix base
Explanation:The taeniae coli are the three outer muscular bands of the cecum, ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon.
The taeniae coli converge at the base of the appendix in the cecum where they form a complete longitudinal layer. In the ascending and descending colon, the bands are located anteriorly, posteromedially, and posterolateral.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 5
Correct
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A 64-year old lady has been diagnosed with hypertension. Her GP explains how this occurs, and that blood pressure is determined by multiple factors which include action by the heart, nervous system and the diameter of the blood vessels. This lady's cardiac output (CO) is 4L/min. Her exam today revealed a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 140 mmHg. Using these values, her systemic vascular resistance (SVR) is which of these?
Your Answer: 35mmHg‹…min‹…mL-1
Explanation:Impaired ventricular relaxation reduces diastolic filling and therefore preload.
Decreased blood volume decreases preload due to reduced venous return.
Heart failure is characterized by reduced ejection fraction and therefore stroke volume.
Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate
Left ventricular ejection fraction = (stroke volume / end diastolic LV volume ) x 100%
Stroke volume = end diastolic LV volume – end systolic LV volume
Pulse pressure (is increased by stroke volume) = Systolic Pressure – Diastolic Pressure
Systemic vascular resistance = mean arterial pressure / cardiac output
Factors that increase pulse pressure include:
-a less compliant aorta (this tends to occur with advancing age)
-increased stroke volume
Aortic stenosis would decrease stroke volume as end systolic volume would increase.
This is because of an increase in afterload, an increase in resistance that the heart must pump against due to a hard stenotic valve. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 6
Correct
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A patient's ECG is abnormal, with an abnormal broad complex QRS complexes. This means either a ventricular origin problem or aberrant conduction. The normal resting membrane potential of the heart's ventricular contractile fibres is which of the following?
Your Answer: -90mV
Explanation:The cardiac muscle’s contractile fibres have a much more stable resting potential than its conductive fibres. In the ventricular fibres it is -90mV and in the atrial fibres it is -80mV.
The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few ms. (QRS complex)Phase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology And Biochemistry
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old girl complains of right iliac fossa pain, and a provisional diagnosis of appendicitis is made. Which of the following embryological structures gives rise to the appendix?
Your Answer: Vitello-intestinal duct
Correct Answer: Midgut
Explanation:The midgut gives rise to the appendix.
At week 6, the caecal diverticulum appears and is the precursor for the cecum and vermiform appendix. The cecum and appendix undergo rotation and descend into the right lower abdomen. The appendix can take up various positions:
1. Retrocecal appendix: behind the cecum
2. Retrocolic appendix: behind the ascending colon
3. Pelvic appendix: appendix descends into the pelvisThe appendix grows in length so that at birth, it is long and worm-shaped, or vermiform. After birth, the caecal wall grows unequally, and the appendix comes to lie on its medial side.
The midgut develops into the distal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, appendix, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of the transverse colon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 8
Correct
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Which of the following facts about T cells is true?
Your Answer: Secrete IL-2 when activated
Explanation:T cells function as a part of the body’s adaptive immune system. There are different types of T cells, including:
Cytotoxic T cells: Function as killer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules into the membrane of targeted cells.
T-Helper cells: When activated, they function to activate other immune cell types, assist in antibody production with B cells and releasing cytokines including IL-2.
Memory T cells: Function as to provide immune memory against already encountered antigens.
T cells possess specific glycoproteins and receptors on their surface.
T-Helper cells work with HLA class II antigens on the cell surfaces in order to recognise foreign antigens
T cells survive ranges from a few weeks, to a lifetime depending on the subtype in question.
Immunoglobulins are expressed on the surface of, and secreted by B-lymphocytes.
Native antigens are recognised by B cells. T cells only recognise antigens that have been processed by the cells and presented on the surface of the cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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The ED95 of muscle relaxants is the dose required to reduce twitch height by 95% in half of the target population. The dose of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants used for intubation is 2-3 times the ED95. For procedures that need a short duration of muscle relaxation and abrupt recovery, the short-acting drug Mivacurium is given at less than 2 times the ED95. What is the explanation for Mivacurium being an exception to this rule?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dose related histamine release occurs which frequently leads to tachycardia and hypotension
Explanation:Mivacurium, when administered at doses greater than 0.2 mg/kg,increases the risk for hypotension, tachycardia, and erythema. This is due to the ability of mivacurium to release histamine with increasing dose. Contrary to this fact, anaphylaxis is rare for mivacurium because of the short duration of histamine release.
The effective dose 50 (ED50) of mivacurium is between 0.08-0.15 mg/kg. It is administered slowly to prevent and decrease the risk of developing adverse effects.
Mivacurium has a high potency thus a longer duration of action, however this is not the answer that we are looking for.
Although drug metabolism takes longer for mivacurium than succinylcholine, it has no effect on the dose required for intubation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A mercury manometer can be used to check blood pressure. The SI units of length(mm) are used to measure pressure. Why is pressure expressed in millimetres of mercury (mmHg)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pressure is directly proportional to length of the mercury column and is variable
Explanation:A mercury barometer can be used to determine absolute pressure. A glass tube with one closed end serves as the barometer. The open end is inserted into a mercury-filled open vessel. The mercury in the container is pushed into the tube by atmospheric pressure exerted on its surface. Absolute pressure is the distance between the tube’s meniscus and the mercury surface.
Pressure is defined as force in newtons per unit area (F) (A).
Mass of mercury = area (A) × density (�) × length (L)
Pressure = ((A × � × L) × 9.8 m/s2)/A
Pressure = � × L x 9.8
Pressure is proportional to LThe numerator and denominator of the above equation, area (A), cancel out. The constants are density and the gravitational acceleration value.
The length is proportional to the applied pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which of the statements below best describe the total cerebral flow (CBF) in an adult?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Accounts for 15% of the cardiac output
Explanation:While the brain only weighs 3% of the body weight, 15% of the cardiac output goes towards the brain.
Between mean arterial pressures (MAP) of 60-130 mmHg, autoregulation of cerebral blood flow (CBF) occurs. Exceeding this, the CBF is maintained at a constant level. This is controlled mainly by the PaCO2 level, and the autonomic nervous system has minimal role.
Beyond these limits, the CBF is directly proportional to the MAP, not the systolic blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true regarding Entonox?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder (under normal working conditions)
Explanation:Entonox is a gas that consists of 50% oxygen and 50% Nitrous oxide. Nitrous oxide is sometimes used for anaesthetics but in this combination, it works as a short-acting painkiller.
Under normal working conditions, it exists only in gaseous form in a cylinder. The gauge pressure of a full Entonox cylinder is 137 bar.
Entonox cylinders should be stored horizontally at a temperature above 100 C
Pseudocritical temperature and pseudocritical pressure can be defined as the molal average critical temperature and pressure of mixture components. In other words, the pseudo-critical temperature is the temperature at which the two gases separate. The pseudo-critical temperature of Entonox is approximately -5.50 C
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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After establishing a cardiopulmonary bypass, the right atrium is opened to repair the tricuspid valve. Out of the following, which is NOT a part of the right atrium?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trabeculae carnae
Explanation:The right atrium receives blood supply from the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus. It forms the right border of the heart.
The interior of the right atrium has 5 distinct features:
1. Sinus venarum – smooth, thin-walled posterior part of the right atrium where the SVC, IVC, and coronary sinus open
2. Musculi pectinati – an anterior rough, wall of pectinate muscles
3. Tricuspid valve orifice – the opening through which the right atrium empties blood into the right ventricle
4. Crista terminalis – separates the rough (musculi pectinati) from the smooth (sinus venarum) internally
5. Fossa ovalis – a thumbprint size depression in the interatrial septum which is a remnant of the oval foramen and its valve in the foetusThe trabeculae carneae are irregular muscular elevations that form the interior of the right ventricle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A patient is evaluated for persistent dysphonia six months after undergoing a subtotal thyroidectomy. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the change in this patient's voice?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Damage to recurrent laryngeal nerve
Explanation:After thyroid surgery, about 10-15% of patients experience a temporary subjective voice change of varying degrees. A frog in the throat or cracking of the voice, or a weak voice, are common descriptions. These modifications are only temporary, lasting a few days to a few weeks.
Swelling of the muscles in the area of the dissection, as well as inflammation and oedema of the larynx due to the dissection, or minor trauma from the tracheal tube, are all suspected causes.
On both sides of the thyroid gland, the superior laryngeal nerve (EBSLN) runs along the upper part. The muscles that fine-tune the vocal cords are innervated by these nerves. The quality of their voice is usually normal if they are injured, but making high-pitched sounds may be difficult. Injury to the EBSLN occurs in about 2% of the population.
Injuries to the recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) have been reported to occur in 1 percent to 14 percent of people. Except for the cricothyroid muscle, the RLN supplies all of the laryngeal intrinsic muscles.
This complication is usually unilateral and temporary, but it can also be bilateral and permanent, and it can be intentional or unintentional. The most common complication following thyroid surgery is a permanent lesion of damaged RLN, which manifests as an irreversible phonation dysfunction.
The crico-arytenoid joint dislocation is a relatively uncommon complication of tracheal intubation and blunt neck trauma. The probability is less than one in a thousand.
Vocal cord polyps affect 0.8 percent of people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A cannula is inserted into the cephalic vein of a 30-year-old man. Which of the following structures does the cephalic vein pass through?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clavipectoral fascia
Explanation:The cephalic vein is one of the primary superficial veins of the upper limb. The superficial group of upper limb veins begin as an irregular dorsal arch on the back of the hand.
The cephalic vein originates in the anatomical snuffbox from the radial side of the arch and travels laterally up, within the superficial fascia to join the basilic vein via the median cubital vein at the elbow.
Near the shoulder, it passes between the deltoid and pectoralis major muscles. It pierces the coracoid membrane (continuation of the clavipectoral fascia) to terminate in the axillary vein’s first part.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Regarding amide local anaesthetics, which one factor has the most significant effect on its duration of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Protein binding
Explanation:When drugs are bound to proteins, drugs cannot cross membranes and exert their effect. Only the free (unbound) drug can be absorbed, distributed, metabolized, excreted and exert pharmacologic effect. Thus, when amide local anaesthetics are bound to α1-glycoproteins, their duration of action are reduced.
The potency of local anaesthetics are affected by lipid solubility. Solubility influences the concentration of the drug in the extracellular fluid surrounding blood vessels. The brain, which is high in lipid content, will dissolve high concentration of lipid soluble drugs. When drugs are non-ionized and non-polarized, they are more lipid-soluble and undergo more extensive distribution. Hence allowing these drugs to penetrate the membrane of the target cells and exert their effect.
Tissue pKa and pH will determine the degree of ionization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for day case cataract surgery under local anaesthesia. She has no cardiac or respiratory problems. Lisinopril is being used to treat her hypertension, which is under control. Which of the following preoperative investigations are the most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigations
Explanation:Because the patient has mild systemic disease, he is ASA 2 and the procedure will be performed under local anaesthesia.
The following factors should be considered when requesting preoperative investigations:
Indications derived from a preliminary clinical examination
Whether or not a general anaesthetic will be used, the possibility of asymptomatic abnormalities, and the scope of the surgery.No special investigations are needed if the patient has no history of significant systemic disease and no abnormal findings on examination during the nurse-led assessment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Measurement
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following statement is true regarding the mechanism of action of doxycycline?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibit 30S subunit of ribosomes
Explanation:Doxycycline belongs to the family of tetracyclines and inhibits protein synthesis through reversible binding to bacterial 30s ribosomal subunits, which prevent binding of new incoming amino acids (aminoacyl-tRNA) and thus interfere with peptide growth.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which type of muscle contains the highest amount of mitochondria?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardiac muscle
Explanation:Among the types of muscles, cardiac muscles have the greatest number if mitochondria due to the heart energy requirements.
Approximately 35% of the cardiac muscle volume is due to the mitochondria. While in skeletal and smooth muscles, it comprises 3-8% of the muscle volume.
Type I muscle fibre has a slow contraction velocity, with a red fibre colour, and predominantly uses oxidative phosphorylation to produce a sustained contraction. It contains more mitochondria and myoglobin than type II, and is often used for endurance training.
Type II muscle fibre has a fast contraction velocity, a white fibre colour, and predominantly uses anaerobic glycolysis. It has fewer mitochondria and myoglobin, and is often used for weight or resistance training and sprinting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a feature of a central venous pressure waveform?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: An a wave due to atrial contraction
Explanation:The central venous pressure (CVP) waveform depicts changes of pressure within the right atrium. Different parts of the waveform are:
A wave: which represents atrial contraction. It is synonymous with the P wave seen during an ECG. It is often eliminated in the presence of atrial fibrillation, and increased tricuspid stenosis, pulmonary stenosis and pulmonary hypertension.
C wave: which represents right ventricle contraction at the point where the tricuspid valve bulges into the right atrium. It is synonymous with the QRS complex seen on ECG.
X descent: which represents relaxation of the atrial diastole and a decrease in atrial pressure, due to the downward movement of the right ventricle as it contracts. It is synonymous with the point before the T wave on ECG.
V wave: which represents an increase in atrial pressure just before the opening of the tricuspid valve. It is synonymous with the point after the T wave on ECG. It is increased in the background of a tricuspid regurgitation.
Y descent: which represents the emptying of the atrium as the tricuspid valve opens to allow for blood flow into the ventricle in early diastole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain that radiates to the jaw in the emergency department. He has associated symptoms of nausea and diaphoresis. A 12 lead ECG is performed. ST-elevation is observed in leads V2-V4. The diagnosis of anteroseptal ST-elevation myocardial infarction is made. Which coronary vessel is responsible for this condition and runs in the interventricular septum on the anterior surface of the heart to reach the apex?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left anterior descending artery
Explanation:The heart receives blood supply from coronary arteries. The right and left coronary arteries branch off the aorta and supply oxygenated blood to all heart muscle parts.
The left main coronary artery branches into:
1. Circumflex artery – supplies the left atrium, side, and back of the left ventricle. The left marginal artery arises from the left circumflex artery. It travels along the obtuse margin of the heart.
2. Left Anterior Descending (LAD) artery – supplies the front and bottom of the left ventricle and front of the interventricular septumThe left anterior descending coronary artery is the largest coronary artery. It courses anterior to the interventricular septum in the anterior interventricular groove, extending from the base of the heart to its apex. Around the apex, the LAD anastomosis with the terminal branches of the posterior descending artery (branch of the right coronary artery).
Atherosclerosis or thrombotic occlusion of LAD causes myocardial infarction in large areas of the anterior, septal, and apical portions of the heart muscle. It can lead to a serious deterioration in heart performance.Occlusion of the LAD causes anteroseptal myocardial infarction, which is evident on the ECG with changes in leads V1-V4. Occlusion of the left circumflex artery causes lateral, posterior, or anterolateral MI. However, as it does not run towards the apex in the interventricular septum of the heart, it is not the correct answer for this question.
The right coronary artery branches into:
1. Right marginal artery
2. Posterior descending arteryThe right coronary artery supplies the right atrium, right ventricle, interatrial septum, and the inferior posterior third of the interventricular septum. Occlusion of the right coronary artery causes inferior MI, which is indicated on ECG with changes in leads II, III, and aVF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Standard error of the mean can be defined as:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Standard deviation / square root (number of patients)
Explanation:The standard error of the mean (SEM) is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations – i.e. how ‘accurate’ the calculated sample mean is from the true population mean. The relationship between the standard error of the mean and the standard deviation is such that, for a given sample size, the standard error of the mean equals the standard deviation divided by the square root of the sample size.
SEM = SD / square root (n)
where SD = standard deviation and n = sample size
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Statistical Methods
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true regarding a laryngoscope?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes
Explanation:Direct laryngoscopy are performed using laryngoscopes and they can be classed according to the shape of the blade as curved or straight.
Miller, Soper, Wisconsin and Seward are examples of straight blade laryngoscopes. Straight blades are commonly used for intubating neonates and infants but can be used in adults too.
The tip of the miller blade is advanced over the epiglottis to the tracheal entrance then lifted in order to view the vocal cords.
The RIGHT-SIDED Macintosh blade is used in adults while the left-sided blade may be used in conditions that make intubation with standard blade difficult e.g. facial deformities.
The McCoy laryngoscope is based on the STANDARD MACINTOSH blade not Robertshaw’s. It has a lever operated hinged tip, which improves the view during laryngoscopy.
Polio blade is mounted at an angle of 120-135 degrees to the handle. Originally designed for use during the polio epidemic €‹in intubation patients within iron lung ventilators, it is now useful in patients with conditions like breast hypertrophy, barrel chest, and restricted neck mobility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old female, presents to the emergency department via ambulance. She has just been involved in a car accident. She is examined and undergoes various diagnostic investigations. Her X-ray report states that a fracture was noted on the surgical neck of her humerus. What structure is most likely to the damaged as a result of a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:Fractures to the surgical neck of the humerus are common place as it is the weakest point of the proximal humerus bone.
The structures most likely to be damaged are the axillary nerve and the posterior circumflex humeral artery as they surround the surgical neck.
The radial nerve runs along the radial groove, so injury to it would likely occur with a mid-shaft fracture of the humerus.
The brachial artery is most likely to be injured as a result of a supracondylar fracture of the humerus which increases the risk of volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
Injury to the musculocutaneous nerve is least likely to happen and it very uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 25
Incorrect
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The action potential in a muscle fibre is initiated by which of these ions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium ions
Explanation:The cardiac action potential has several phases which have different mechanisms of action as seen below:
Phase 0: Rapid depolarisation – caused by a rapid sodium influx.
These channels automatically deactivate after a few msPhase 1: caused by early repolarisation and an efflux of potassium.
Phase 2: Plateau – caused by a slow influx of calcium.
Phase 3 – Final repolarisation – caused by an efflux of potassium.
Phase 4 – Restoration of ionic concentrations – The resting potential is restored by Na+/K+ATPase.
There is slow entry of Na+into the cell which decreases the potential difference until the threshold potential is reached. This then triggers a new action potentialOf note, cardiac muscle remains contracted 10-15 times longer than skeletal muscle.
Different sites have different conduction velocities:
1. Atrial conduction – Spreads along ordinary atrial myocardial fibres at 1 m/sec2. AV node conduction – 0.05 m/sec
3. Ventricular conduction – Purkinje fibres are of large diameter and achieve velocities of 2-4 m/sec, the fastest conduction in the heart. This allows a rapid and coordinated contraction of the ventricles
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Under general anaesthesia, a 48-year-old patient is scheduled for some dental extractions. He tells you that he has a heart murmur and that he has always received antibiotic prophylaxis at the dentist. There are no allergies that he is aware of. Which antibiotic prophylaxis strategy is most appropriate for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylactic antibiotics are unnecessary for this patient
Explanation:The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published guidelines on infective endocarditis prophylaxis (IE). The goal was to create clear guidelines for antibiotic prophylaxis in patients undergoing dental procedures as well as certain non-dental interventional procedures. A number of studies have found an inconsistent link between recent interventional procedures and the development of infective endocarditis in both dental and non-dental procedures.
Antibiotic prophylaxis against infective endocarditis is not advised or required in the following situations:
Dental patients undergoing procedures
Patients undergoing procedures involving the upper and lower gastrointestinal tracts, the genitourinary tract (including urological, gynaecological, and obstetric procedures, as well as childbirth), and the upper and lower respiratory tract (including ear, nose and throat procedures and bronchoscopy).Antibiotic resistance can be exacerbated by the indiscriminate use of prophylactic antibiotics, but this is not the primary reason for avoiding their use in these situations.
To reduce the risk of endocarditis, any patient who is at risk of developing IE should be investigated and treated as soon as possible. Patients with the following conditions are at risk of developing IE:
acquired valvular heart disease with regurgitation or stenosis
previous valve replacement
structural congenital heart disease
past history of IE, or
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM)It would also be appropriate for high-risk dental procedures and those with severe gingival disease.
Although this patient may not have structural heart disease, ABs should be administered on a case-by-case basis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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International colour coding is used on medical gas cylinders. Other characteristics also play a role in determining the gas's identity within a cylinder. Which of the following options best describes a cylinder containing analgesics for obstetrics?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blue body, blue/white shoulder, full cylinder; 13700 KPa, gas mixture, requires a dual stage pressure regulator
Explanation:The body of the Entonox cylinder is usually blue (occasionally white), with blue and white shoulders. Entonox contains a 50:50 mixture of oxygen and nitrous oxide, with a full cylinder pressure of 13700 KPa (137 bar). The cylinder is equipped with a two-stage pressure regulator for safe operation.
The cylinder body and shoulder of nitrous oxide are (French) blue.
In today’s anaesthetic workstations, carbon dioxide cylinders are no longer used.
The body of an oxygen cylinder is black, with a white shoulder.
The white Heliox (21 percent oxygen and 79 percent helium) cylinder has a brown and white shoulder. The administration of this gas mixture, which is less dense than air, is used to reduce turbulence (stridor) of inspiratory flow in patients with upper airway obstruction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Regarding the Manley MP3 ventilator, which statement is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Is a minute volume divider
Explanation:It’s a minute volume divider – True
The Manley MP3 ventilator is classed as a minute volume divider. The entire fresh gas flow or minute volume is delivered to the patient, having been divided into readily set tidal volumes.Can efficiently ventilate patients with poor pulmonary compliance – False
Ventilating patients with poor pulmonary compliance is not easily achieved, which makes it an unsuitable ventilator for a modern ICU.Can generate tidal volume up to 1500ml – False
It can generate tidal volumes up to 1000 ml (not 1500 ml), and the inflation pressure can be adjusted by sliding a weight along a rail.Functions like a Mapleson A system during spontaneous ventilation – False
The ventilator functions like a Mapleson D breathing system (not Mapleson A) during spontaneous ventilation.Has three sets of bellows – False
The fresh gas flow drives the ventilator which allows rapid detection of gas supply failure. It has two sets of bellows (not three) and three unidirectional valves. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia Related Apparatus
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Question 29
Incorrect
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The following is true about the extracellular fluid (ECF) in a normal adult woman weighing 60 kg.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Has a total volume of about 12 litres
Explanation:Total body water (TBW) is about 50% to 70% in adults depending on how much fat is present. ECF is relatively contracted in an obese person.
The simple rule is 60-40-20. (60% of weight = total body water, 40% of body weight is ICF and 20% is ECF)
For this woman, the total body water is 36 litres (0.6 × 60). ECF is 12 litres (1/3 of TBW) and 24 litres (2/3 of TBW) is intracellular fluid .
Sodium concentration is approximately 135-145 mmol/L in the ECF.
The ECF is made up of both intravascular and extravascular fluid and plasma proteins is found in both.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following combinations of signs seen in a patient would most likely confirm ingestion of substances with anticholinesterase effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bradycardia and miosis
Explanation:An acetylcholinesterase inhibitor or anticholinesterase is a chemical that inhibits the cholinesterase enzyme from breaking down acetylcholine (ACh) therefore increasing the level and duration of action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine(ACh).
ACh stimulates postganglionic receptors to produce the following effects:
Salivation
Lacrimation
Defecation
Micturition
Sweating
Miosis
Bradycardia, and
Bronchospasm.Since these effects are produced by muscarine, they are referred to as muscarinic effects, and the postganglionic receptors are called muscarine receptors.
SLUD (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation – and emesis) is usually encountered only in cases of drug overdose or exposure to nerve gases. It is a syndrome of pathological effects indicating massive discharge of the parasympathetic nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pathophysiology
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