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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with symptoms of dizziness, headache, and mild confusion. Her family members also report experiencing similar symptoms that have been developing slowly over the past few weeks. Upon testing, her arterial blood gas reveals a COHb level of 13% (normal < 0.5%) and a measured SpO2 of 86%, despite the oxygen saturation probe indicating 100%.
Assuming the diagnosis is correct, what effect would you anticipate on the oxygen dissociation curve?Your Answer: Shift to the right
Correct Answer: Shift to the left and downwards
Explanation:The correct answer is that carbon monoxide poisoning causes a shift to the left and downwards in the oxygen dissociation curve. This is because CO binds to haemoglobin with a much higher affinity than oxygen, leading to a reduced oxygen-binding capacity and increased affinity for subsequent molecules of oxygen. The downward shift reflects this reduced capacity, while the leftward shift reflects the increased affinity for oxygen. A shift to the right and downwards is not correct, as this would reflect a reduced affinity for oxygen, which is not the case with CO poisoning.
Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs when carbon monoxide binds to haemoglobin and myoglobin, leading to tissue hypoxia. Symptoms include headache, nausea, vomiting, vertigo, confusion, and in severe cases, pink skin and mucosae, hyperpyrexia, arrhythmias, extrapyramidal features, coma, and death. Diagnosis is made through measuring carboxyhaemoglobin levels in arterial or venous blood gas. Treatment involves administering 100% high-flow oxygen via a non-rebreather mask for at least six hours, with hyperbaric oxygen therapy considered for more severe cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A young adult with a history of psychosis and mood disorder is experiencing frequent urination and is ultimately diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. Which medication is the probable culprit?
Your Answer: Clozapine
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:Common Side Effects of Lithium
Lithium is a medication that is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. However, it can also cause a number of side effects. One of the most common side effects is gastrointestinal disturbance, which can include nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. Another common side effect is fine tremor, which can affect the hands and fingers. Weight gain and oedema (swelling) are also possible side effects of lithium.
In addition, lithium can cause goitre, which is an enlargement of the thyroid gland. If taken in excess, it can also lead to blurred vision, ataxia (loss of coordination), drowsiness, and coarse tremor. One of the more unique side effects of lithium is that it causes antidiuretic hormone (ADH) resistance, which can lead to the production of large volumes of dilute urine. Overall, while lithium can be an effective treatment for bipolar disorder, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old male visits a tuberculosis clinic to discuss his medication as his disease has become resistant to one of the drugs he is taking. The doctor explains that the drug is metabolized differently in each person and it is possible that the patient metabolizes the drug too quickly, leading to its rapid clearance from his system. The drug in question is metabolized by N-acetyltransferase, an enzyme in the liver, and has three distinct phenotypes that determine the rate of clearance and clinical response. What is the name of the drug that the patient has developed resistance to?
Your Answer: Streptomycin
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:Isoniazid’s metabolism in the liver is influenced by acetylator status. Fast acetylators may develop resistance due to rapid clearance, while slow acetylators are at higher risk of hepatotoxicity due to delayed clearance. Ethambutol is metabolized through oxidation, pyrazinamide through oxidation in the liver, and rifampicin is activated through deacetylation in the liver before being excreted in bile and urine.
Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions
Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.
First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status
First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.
Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.
Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of excessive vaginal bleeding. After undergoing an ultrasound scan and uterine biopsy, it is revealed that she has an endometrial tumor located in the uterine fundus. Which group of nearby lymph nodes will be the primary location for lymphatic metastasis of this tumor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Para-aortic lymph nodes
Explanation:The lymphatic drainage of the uterine fundus is similar to that of the ovaries, running alongside the ovarian vessels and draining into the para-aortic lymph nodes. Therefore, option 4 is correct. Options 1, 2, and 5 are incorrect as they refer to the drainage of the cervix and uterine body, which is different from that of the uterine fundus. Option 3 is also incorrect as the external iliac lymph nodes are not involved in the drainage of the uterine fundus.
Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs
The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has just been diagnosed with HIV and is now taking a drug regimen that includes multiple medications. One of these drugs is designed to inhibit the virus from integrating its DNA into cells.
What drug is most likely being taken by this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raltegravir
Explanation:Integrating HIV drugs that end with -gravir is significant because they are integrase inhibitors, while enfuvirtide functions as an entry inhibitor.
Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.
Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A senior citizen has been diagnosed with Parkinson's disease and has been referred to the neurology clinic. Based on the underlying pathology, what class of drugs is expected to be prescribed initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dopamine agonist
Explanation:The primary approach to treating Parkinson’s disease is to increase dopamine levels and dopaminergic transmission, as the disease is caused by the loss of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra. While monoamine oxidase inhibitors can achieve this, their numerous interactions and side effects make dopamine agonists a better option. Typically, patients are first prescribed dopamine agonists before levodopa, as the latter has more complex side effects that require careful management.
Understanding Dopamine: Its Production, Effects, and Role in Diseases
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is produced in the substantia nigra pars compacta, a region in the brain that is responsible for movement control. It plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including movement, motivation, and reward. Dopamine is also associated with feelings of pleasure and satisfaction, which is why it is often referred to as the feel-good neurotransmitter.
However, dopamine levels can be affected by certain diseases. For instance, patients with schizophrenia have increased levels of dopamine, which can lead to symptoms such as hallucinations and delusions. On the other hand, patients with Parkinson’s disease have depleted levels of dopamine in the substantia nigra, which can cause movement problems such as tremors and rigidity.
Aside from its effects on the brain, dopamine also has an impact on the kidneys. It causes renal vasodilation, which means that it widens the blood vessels in the kidneys, leading to increased blood flow and improved kidney function.
In summary, dopamine is a vital neurotransmitter that affects various bodily functions. Its production and effects are closely linked to certain diseases, and understanding its role can help in the development of treatments for these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A glazier in his 40s slipped and cut his wrist on a piece of glass a few months ago. He did not seek medical advice at the time.
What signs of ulnar nerve damage would you expect to find on examination?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wasting of the interossei
Explanation:Lesion of the Ulnar Nerve at the Wrist
A lesion of the ulnar nerve at the wrist does not result in sensory loss as the dorsal cutaneous branch of the ulnar nerve remains unaffected. Additionally, the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is also spared, which means that wrist flexion is not affected. However, wasting and weakness are limited to the interossei and adductor pollicis muscle, while the hypothenar muscles are usually spared.
It is important to note that sensory loss of the lateral part of the hand occurs in a median nerve injury, while sensory loss of the dorsal surface of the thumb occurs in a radial nerve injury. Furthermore, weakness of wrist flexion occurs when the ulnar or median nerve is damaged, but not at the wrist. these distinctions can aid in the diagnosis and treatment of nerve injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old woman is admitted with confusion and started on an IV infusion after blood tests are taken. Her admission blood results indicate dehydration and elevated potassium levels, with a subsequent increase to 5.9. Which intravenous therapy is likely causing her hyperkalaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hartmann’s
Explanation:Fluid Therapy Guidelines for Junior Doctors
Fluid therapy is a common task for junior doctors, and it is important to follow guidelines to ensure patients receive the appropriate amount of fluids. The 2013 NICE guidelines recommend 25-30 ml/kg/day of water, 1 mmol/kg/day of potassium, sodium, and chloride, and 50-100 g/day of glucose for maintenance fluids. For the first 24 hours, NICE recommends using sodium chloride 0.18% in 4% glucose with 27 mmol/l potassium. However, the amount of fluid required may vary depending on the patient’s medical history. For example, a post-op patient with significant fluid loss will require more fluid, while a patient with heart failure should receive less fluid to avoid pulmonary edema.
It is important to consider the electrolyte concentrations of plasma and the most commonly used fluids when prescribing intravenous fluids. 0.9% saline can lead to hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis if large volumes are used. Hartmann’s solution contains potassium and should not be used in patients with hyperkalemia. By following these guidelines and considering individual patient needs, junior doctors can ensure safe and effective fluid therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of sudden left leg pain, redness, and swelling. She recently traveled from Australia and denies any history of trauma or family history of similar symptoms. What underlying risk factor may make her more susceptible to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycythaemia rubra vera
Explanation:The risk of venous thromboembolism is elevated in individuals with polycythaemia due to the abnormal overproduction of red blood cells, which leads to increased blood viscosity and slower flow rate, increasing the likelihood of clot formation. Conversely, low BMI does not increase the risk of VTE, while obesity is a known risk factor. Additionally, thrombophilia, not haemophilia, is a risk factor for VTE.
Risk Factors for Venous Thromboembolism
Venous thromboembolism (VTE) is a condition where blood clots form in the veins, which can lead to serious complications such as pulmonary embolism (PE). While some common predisposing factors include malignancy, pregnancy, and the period following an operation, there are many other factors that can increase the risk of VTE. These include underlying conditions such as heart failure, thrombophilia, and nephrotic syndrome, as well as medication use such as the combined oral contraceptive pill and antipsychotics. It is important to note that around 40% of patients diagnosed with a PE have no major risk factors. Therefore, it is crucial to be aware of all potential risk factors and take appropriate measures to prevent VTE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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To evaluate the effectiveness of a home cholesterol testing kit, a group of 500 individuals under the age of 40 were recruited. Each participant provided a blood sample for analysis. The results showed that 480 individuals had normal cholesterol levels and 20 individuals had high cholesterol levels. What is the sensitivity of the test?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 98%
Explanation:Specificity in Medical Testing
Specificity is a crucial concept in medical testing that refers to the accuracy of a test in identifying individuals who do not have a particular condition. In simpler terms, it measures the proportion of people who are correctly identified as not having the condition by the test. For instance, if a test has a specificity of 98%, it means that 98 out of 100 people who do not have the condition will be correctly identified as negative by the test.
To calculate specificity, we use the formula: Specificity = True Negative / (False Positive + True Negative). This means that we divide the number of true negatives (people who do not have the condition and are correctly identified as negative) by the sum of false positives (people who do not have the condition but are incorrectly identified as positive) and true negatives.
It is important to note that highly specific tests are useful for ruling conditions in, which means that if the test is positive, the person is very likely to have the disease. However, it is rare to find tests with 100% sensitivity and/or specificity, including pregnancy tests. Therefore, it is crucial to interpret test results in conjunction with other clinical information and to consult with a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment.
In summary, specificity is essential in medical testing as it helps to determine the accuracy of a test in identifying individuals who do not have a particular condition. By using the formula and interpreting test results in conjunction with other clinical information, healthcare professionals can make informed decisions about diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old male is admitted to hospital with dehydration. Blood tests are sent to assess his renal function. The results are below. He is diagnosed with an acute kidney injury.
Na+ 143 mmol/l
K+ 4.8 mmol/l
Urea 32 mmol/l
Creatinine 383 mmol/l
eGFR 15 ml/min
What electrolyte should be monitored closely?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Potassium
Explanation:The nephron plays a crucial role in maintaining the balance of electrolytes in the bloodstream, particularly potassium and hydrogen ions, which are regulated in the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) and collecting duct (CD).
Dehydration-induced acute kidney injury (AKI) is considered a pre-renal cause that reduces the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). In response, the kidney attempts to reabsorb as much fluid as possible to compensate for the body’s fluid depletion. As a result, minimal filtrate reaches the DCT and CD, leading to reduced potassium excretion. High levels of potassium can be extremely hazardous, especially due to its impact on the myocardium. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels is crucial in such situations, which can be done quickly through a venous blood gas (VBG) test.
Hyperkalaemia is a condition where there is an excess of potassium in the blood. The levels of potassium in the plasma are regulated by various factors such as aldosterone, insulin levels, and acid-base balance. When there is metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia can occur as hydrogen and potassium ions compete with each other for exchange with sodium ions across cell membranes and in the distal tubule. The ECG changes that can be seen in hyperkalaemia include tall-tented T waves, small P waves, widened QRS leading to a sinusoidal pattern, and asystole.
There are several causes of hyperkalaemia, including acute kidney injury, drugs such as potassium sparing diuretics, ACE inhibitors, angiotensin 2 receptor blockers, spironolactone, ciclosporin, and heparin, metabolic acidosis, Addison’s disease, rhabdomyolysis, and massive blood transfusion. Foods that are high in potassium include salt substitutes, bananas, oranges, kiwi fruit, avocado, spinach, and tomatoes.
It is important to note that beta-blockers can interfere with potassium transport into cells and potentially cause hyperkalaemia in renal failure patients. In contrast, beta-agonists such as Salbutamol are sometimes used as emergency treatment. Additionally, both unfractionated and low-molecular weight heparin can cause hyperkalaemia by inhibiting aldosterone secretion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman is expecting her first baby. During routine midwife appointments, it was discovered that she has hypertension and proteinuria, which are signs of pre-eclampsia. To prevent respiratory distress syndrome, a complication of prematurity caused by inadequate pulmonary surfactant production, she will require steroid doses before induction of preterm labor. Which cell type is being targeted by corticosteroids in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Type 2 pneumocytes
Explanation:Types of Pneumocytes and Their Functions
Pneumocytes are specialized cells found in the lungs that play a crucial role in gas exchange. There are two main types of pneumocytes: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 pneumocytes are very thin squamous cells that cover around 97% of the alveolar surface. On the other hand, type 2 pneumocytes are cuboidal cells that secrete surfactant, a substance that reduces surface tension in the alveoli and prevents their collapse during expiration.
Type 2 pneumocytes start to develop around 24 weeks gestation, but adequate surfactant production does not take place until around 35 weeks. This is why premature babies are prone to respiratory distress syndrome. In addition, type 2 pneumocytes can differentiate into type 1 pneumocytes during lung damage, helping to repair and regenerate damaged lung tissue.
Apart from pneumocytes, there are also club cells (previously termed Clara cells) found in the bronchioles. These non-ciliated dome-shaped cells have a varied role, including protecting against the harmful effects of inhaled toxins and secreting glycosaminoglycans and lysozymes. Understanding the different types of pneumocytes and their functions is essential in comprehending the complex mechanisms involved in respiration.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female visits her GP complaining of visual disturbance that has been ongoing for 2 days. She reports experiencing blurry vision in her left eye and pain when moving it. She denies having any signs of infection. About 4 months ago, she had a brief episode of weakness and tingling in her left arm that resolved on its own.
What is the probable diagnosis for this patient, and which cells are likely to be targeted by her immune system in this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oligodendrocytes
Explanation:The production of myelin in the CNS is the responsibility of oligodendrocytes.
The nervous system is composed of various types of cells, each with their own unique functions. Oligodendroglia cells are responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system (CNS) and are affected in multiple sclerosis. Schwann cells, on the other hand, produce myelin in the peripheral nervous system (PNS) and are affected in Guillain-Barre syndrome. Astrocytes provide physical support, remove excess potassium ions, help form the blood-brain barrier, and aid in physical repair. Microglia are specialised CNS phagocytes, while ependymal cells provide the inner lining of the ventricles.
In summary, the nervous system is made up of different types of cells, each with their own specific roles. Oligodendroglia and Schwann cells produce myelin in the CNS and PNS, respectively, and are affected in certain diseases. Astrocytes provide physical support and aid in repair, while microglia are specialised phagocytes in the CNS. Ependymal cells line the ventricles. Understanding the functions of these cells is crucial in understanding the complex workings of the nervous system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman visits her GP after experiencing painless frank haematuria. She reports that this happened two days ago and her urine looked like port wine. She has a smoking history of 30 pack-years and denies drinking alcohol.
The patient is urgently referred for cystoscopy, which reveals a 2x3cm ulcerated lesion adjacent to the left ureteric orifice. The lesion is biopsied and diagnosed as transitional cell carcinoma.
Which venous structure transmits blood from the tumour to the internal iliac veins?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vesicouterine plexus
Explanation:The vesicouterine plexus is responsible for draining the bladder in females.
Bladder Anatomy and Innervation
The bladder is a three-sided pyramid-shaped organ located in the pelvic cavity. Its apex points towards the symphysis pubis, while the base lies anterior to the rectum or vagina. The bladder’s inferior aspect is retroperitoneal, while the superior aspect is covered by peritoneum. The trigone, the least mobile part of the bladder, contains the ureteric orifices and internal urethral orifice. The bladder’s blood supply comes from the superior and inferior vesical arteries, while venous drainage occurs through the vesicoprostatic or vesicouterine venous plexus. Lymphatic drainage occurs mainly to the external iliac and internal iliac nodes, with the obturator nodes also playing a role. The bladder is innervated by parasympathetic nerve fibers from the pelvic splanchnic nerves and sympathetic nerve fibers from L1 and L2 via the hypogastric nerve plexuses. The parasympathetic fibers cause detrusor muscle contraction, while the sympathetic fibers innervate the trigone muscle. The external urethral sphincter is under conscious control, and voiding occurs when the rate of neuronal firing to the detrusor muscle increases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy with juvenile idiopathic arthritis is visiting the eye clinic for a screening.
What is the purpose of his visit and what complication is he being screened for?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic anterior uveitis
Explanation:Complications of Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis
Patients with Juvenile Idiopathic Arthritis (JIA) are regularly screened for chronic anterior uveitis, which can lead to scarring and blindness if left untreated. However, this condition may be asymptomatic in some cases, making annual screening using a slit-lamp essential.
One of the long-term complications of JIA is the development of flexion contractures of joints due to persistent joint inflammation. This occurs because pain is partly related to increased intra-articular pressure, which is at its lowest when joints are held at 30-50 degrees.
While corticosteroids may be used to manage joint inflammation, they are used sparingly in children due to the risk of cataract development. Conjunctivitis is not typically associated with JIA, but reactive arthritis. Keratitis, on the other hand, tends to be an infective process caused by bacteria or viruses.
Lastly, pterygium is an overgrowth of the conjunctiva towards the iris and is often seen in individuals exposed to windy or dusty conditions, such as surfers.
In summary, JIA can lead to various complications, including chronic anterior uveitis, joint contractures, and cataract development. Regular screening and management are crucial to prevent long-term damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A man in his early 50s arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of abdominal pain and haematemesis. Upon diagnosis, he is found to have a peptic ulcer. During his treatment, he reveals that he has been taking ibuprofen for several years. His physician informs him that this may have caused the bleeding and recommends taking omeprazole, a gastroprotective medication, in addition to his ibuprofen to lower his chances of recurrence. What is the mechanism of action of omeprazole?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric parietal cell H+/K+-ATPase inhibition
Explanation:The irreversible blockade of H+/K+ ATPase is caused by PPIs.
Parietal cells contain H+/K+-ATPase, which is inhibited by omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor. Therefore, any answer indicating chief cells or H+/K+-ATPase stimulation is incorrect and potentially harmful.
Ranitidine is an example of a different class of gastroprotective drugs that inhibits H2 receptors.
Understanding Proton Pump Inhibitors
Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are medications that work by blocking the H+/K+ ATPase in the stomach’s parietal cells. This action is irreversible and helps to reduce the amount of acid produced in the stomach. Examples of PPIs include omeprazole and lansoprazole.
Despite their effectiveness in treating conditions such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) and peptic ulcers, PPIs can have adverse effects. These include hyponatremia and hypomagnesemia, which are low levels of sodium and magnesium in the blood, respectively. Prolonged use of PPIs can also increase the risk of osteoporosis, leading to an increased risk of fractures. Additionally, there is a potential for microscopic colitis and an increased risk of C. difficile infections.
It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of PPIs with your healthcare provider and to use them only as directed. Regular monitoring of electrolyte levels and bone density may also be necessary for those on long-term PPI therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A mother takes her 4-year-old son to the pediatrician. He is experiencing mouth sores, a fever, and blisters on his hands and feet. The pediatrician identifies the illness as hand, foot and mouth disease. What is the causative agent of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coxsackievirus A16
Explanation:Coxsackievirus A16 and enterovirus are the most common causes of hand, foot and mouth disease. This condition is frequently seen in children and is typically managed conservatively without the need for isolation from school.
Cytomegalovirus is a virus that usually only causes illness in individuals with weakened immune systems. However, it can also lead to congenital infections that may result in long-term effects such as slowed growth, sensorineural deafness, encephalitis, and a distinctive blueberry muffin appearance.
Human herpesvirus 6 is responsible for roseola infantum, a common rash that typically affects children under the age of two. This condition is self-limiting and can be managed conservatively.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes AIDS, which can present in a variety of ways depending on the individual’s CD4 cell count, concurrent infections, and disease progression. While HIV may initially cause symptoms such as fever, sore throat, and rash, it does not typically lead to hand, foot and mouth disease.
Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease: A Contagious Condition in Children
Hand, foot and mouth disease is a viral infection that commonly affects children. It is caused by intestinal viruses from the Picornaviridae family, particularly coxsackie A16 and enterovirus 71. This condition is highly contagious and often occurs in outbreaks in nurseries.
The clinical features of hand, foot and mouth disease include mild systemic upset such as sore throat and fever, followed by the appearance of oral ulcers and vesicles on the palms and soles of the feet.
Symptomatic treatment is the only management option available, which includes general advice on hydration and analgesia. It is important to note that there is no link between this disease and cattle, and children do not need to be excluded from school. However, the Health Protection Agency recommends that children who are unwell should stay home until they feel better. If there is a large outbreak, it is advisable to contact the agency for assistance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 5-year-old boy, Max, is brought to the pediatrician by his father who is worried about his son's health over the past 3 days. The father reports that Max has been experiencing a loss of appetite, complaining of joint pain and headaches, and is generally not his usual self. Despite his love for school, Max seems content with staying home as he has been playing with his new puppy and has a few scratches. What is the probable pathogen responsible for Max's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bartonella henselae
Explanation:Bartonella henselae bacteria can be carried asymptomatically on the claws of cats and transmitted to humans through scratches.
Falciparum malaria is caused by Plasmodium falciparum and typically presents with fluctuating temperatures, headache, arthralgia, and sweating. A history of exposure to mosquito bites in a malaria endemic area is also common.
Brucellosis is caused by Brucella melitensis, a bacteria found in unpasteurized milk. Symptoms include transient arthralgia and a history of exposure to contaminated milk, cheese, or meat.
Understanding Cat Scratch Disease
Cat scratch disease is a condition that is typically caused by a type of bacteria known as Bartonella henselae, which is a Gram-negative rod. The disease is characterized by several features, including fever, a history of being scratched by a cat, regional lymphadenopathy, headache, and malaise.
Individuals who have been scratched by a cat may develop this disease, which can cause a range of symptoms that can be uncomfortable and disruptive. The fever and malaise can make it difficult to carry out daily activities, while the regional lymphadenopathy can cause swelling and discomfort in the lymph nodes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient complains of cough and difficulty breathing. During examination, a mid-diastolic murmur is detected and the patient has a flushed face. What past infection could have caused these symptoms 10-20 years ago?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes
Explanation:Rheumatic Heart Disease and Mitral Stenosis
Rheumatic heart disease is the leading cause of mitral stenosis, a condition characterized by shortness of breath and a mid-diastolic murmur in the heart. This disease is an immune response to a Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcal infection, such as streptococcus pyogenes. Acute rheumatic fever can occur within two weeks of the initial infection and can lead to a pan carditis, along with other symptoms like erythema marginatum and arthritis. If left untreated, chronic carditis may develop, which can result in mitral stenosis.
Diphtheria is caused by Corynebacterium diptheriae, while Enterococcus faecalis is a group G streptococcal organism that can cause urinary tract and intra-abdominal infections. Neisseria meningitidis is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis, and Staphylococcus aureus can cause skin, bone, and joint infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old child has sustained a supracondylar fracture of the right humerus. After undergoing closed reduction, the child reports experiencing tingling sensations in their first and second fingers on the right hand, as well as difficulty moving their thumb. Which nerve is the most probable culprit for this injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The median nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the lateral part of the palm and the palmar surface of the three most lateral digits. It is commonly injured at the elbow after supracondylar fractures of the humerus or at the wrist.
The ulnar nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the palmar surface of the fifth digit and medial part of the fourth digit, along with their associated palm region.
The musculoskeletal nerve only has one sensory branch, the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm, which provides sensation to the lateral aspect of the forearm. Therefore, damage to the musculocutaneous nerve cannot explain tingling sensations or compromised movements of any of the digits.
The medial cutaneous nerve of the forearm does not run near supracondylar humeral fractures and its branches only reach as far as the wrist, so it cannot explain tingling sensations in the digits.
The radial nerve is not typically injured at supracondylar humeral fractures and would cause altered sensations localized at the dorsal side of the palm and digits if it were damaged.
Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve
The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.
The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.
Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense pelvic pain on the left side and absence of menstruation. During the physical examination, the doctor discovers tenderness in the pelvic area. A pregnancy test confirms a positive result, and a transvaginal ultrasound is conducted, revealing a tubal ectopic pregnancy with a fetal heartbeat. As a result, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is carried out.
In which anatomical structure is this condition most likely located?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Broad ligament
Explanation:The Broad ligament is where the Fallopian tubes are located. If a tubal ectopic pregnancy is detected with a fetal heartbeat, the recommended treatment is a laparoscopic salpingectomy. This surgical procedure involves removing the affected Fallopian tube by accessing it within the Broad ligament. However, if there are other risk factors for infertility, a laparoscopic salpingotomy may be performed instead.
On the other hand, the Cardinal ligament contains the uterine vessels and is not involved in ectopic pregnancy. It may be operated on in cases of uterine fibroids through a laparoscopic myomectomy.
The Ovarian ligament attaches the ovaries to the uterus but does not contain any structures. Meanwhile, the Round ligament attaches the uterine fundus to the labia majora but also does not contain any structures.
Pelvic Ligaments and their Connections
Pelvic ligaments are structures that connect various organs within the female reproductive system to the pelvic wall. These ligaments play a crucial role in maintaining the position and stability of these organs. There are several types of pelvic ligaments, each with its own unique function and connection.
The broad ligament connects the uterus, fallopian tubes, and ovaries to the pelvic wall, specifically the ovaries. The round ligament connects the uterine fundus to the labia majora, but does not connect to any other structures. The cardinal ligament connects the cervix to the lateral pelvic wall and is responsible for supporting the uterine vessels. The suspensory ligament of the ovaries connects the ovaries to the lateral pelvic wall and supports the ovarian vessels. The ovarian ligament connects the ovaries to the uterus, but does not connect to any other structures. Finally, the uterosacral ligament connects the cervix and posterior vaginal dome to the sacrum, but does not connect to any other structures.
Overall, pelvic ligaments are essential for maintaining the proper position and function of the female reproductive organs. Understanding the connections between these ligaments and the structures they support is crucial for diagnosing and treating any issues that may arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old girl relies on her inhaler whenever she experiences wheezing and tightness in her chest during physical education classes. How does the medication work to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It binds to β2 receptors, causing smooth muscle relaxation
Explanation:Adrenergic receptors, including α1, β1, and β2, are present in different tissues of the body and are associated with specific muscle types. When a catecholamine such as epinephrine binds to a receptor, it can cause either muscle contraction or relaxation. Pharmaceutical agents have been developed to mimic the effects of catecholamines on these receptors and their associated muscles.
β2 receptors are primarily found in the smooth muscle of the lungs and, when activated, cause relaxation of this muscle. Short-acting β2 agonists (SABAs) such as salbutamol, which are commonly used in reliever inhalers, mimic the effects of catecholamines by binding to β2 receptors and causing bronchodilation. This allows for increased airflow through the airways and can provide relief from asthma symptoms.
In contrast, β1 receptors are mainly found in cardiac muscle and do not have an effect on the airways. Activation of β1 receptors leads to cardiac muscle contraction.
Similarly, α1 receptors are primarily found in arterial smooth muscle and, when activated, cause vasoconstriction rather than bronchodilation. This does not have an impact on asthma symptoms.
Adrenergic receptors are a type of G protein-coupled receptors that respond to the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine. These receptors are primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system. There are four types of adrenergic receptors: α1, α2, β1, and β2. Each receptor has a different potency order and primary action. The α1 receptor responds equally to norepinephrine and epinephrine, causing smooth muscle contraction. The α2 receptor has mixed effects and responds equally to both catecholamines. The β1 receptor responds equally to epinephrine and norepinephrine, causing cardiac muscle contraction. The β2 receptor responds much more strongly to epinephrine than norepinephrine, causing smooth muscle relaxation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old male comes to the emergency department with sudden onset double vision. During the examination, you observe that his right eye is in a 'down and out' position. You suspect that he may be experiencing a third nerve palsy.
What is the most probable cause of this condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:A possible cause of the patient’s third nerve palsy is an aneurysm in the posterior communicating artery. However, diabetes insipidus is not related to this condition, while diabetes mellitus may be a contributing factor. Nystagmus is a common symptom of lateral medullary syndrome, while lateral pontine syndrome may cause facial paralysis and deafness on the same side of the body. A stroke in the middle cerebral artery can result in sensory loss and weakness on the opposite side of the body.
Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features
Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.
There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A research lab is exploring a novel therapy for beta thalassaemia that involves manipulating the RNA splicing process within the cells of affected individuals.
Where does this process primarily occur within the organelles?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nucleus
Explanation:RNA splicing occurs primarily within the nucleus.
The nucleus is where RNA splicing takes place, which involves removing non-coding introns from pre-mRNA and joining coding exons to form mRNA. Alternative splicing can also occur, resulting in different configurations of exons and the ability for a single gene to code for multiple proteins.
Proteasomes are organelles found in eukaryotic cells that break down large proteins.
Ribosomes are responsible for translating mRNA into peptide structures.
Proteins are folded into their proper shape within the rough endoplasmic reticulum.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum is involved in the synthesis of steroids and lipids.
Functions of Cell Organelles
The functions of major cell organelles can be summarized in a table. The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is responsible for the translation and folding of new proteins, as well as the manufacture of lysosomal enzymes. It is also the site of N-linked glycosylation. Cells such as pancreatic cells, goblet cells, and plasma cells have extensive RER. On the other hand, the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is involved in steroid and lipid synthesis. Cells of the adrenal cortex, hepatocytes, and reproductive organs have extensive SER.
The Golgi apparatus modifies, sorts, and packages molecules that are destined for cell secretion. The addition of mannose-6-phosphate to proteins designates transport to lysosome. The mitochondrion is responsible for aerobic respiration and contains mitochondrial genome as circular DNA. The nucleus is involved in DNA maintenance, RNA transcription, and RNA splicing, which removes the non-coding sequences of genes (introns) from pre-mRNA and joins the protein-coding sequences (exons).
The lysosome is responsible for the breakdown of large molecules such as proteins and polysaccharides. The nucleolus produces ribosomes, while the ribosome translates RNA into proteins. The peroxisome is involved in the catabolism of very long chain fatty acids and amino acids, resulting in the formation of hydrogen peroxide. Lastly, the proteasome, along with the lysosome pathway, is involved in the degradation of protein molecules that have been tagged with ubiquitin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl falls and suffers a growth plate fracture in her left wrist. What system is utilized to categorize the injury?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salter - Harris system
Explanation:The Salter-Harris system is widely utilized, but it can be problematic as Type 1 and Type 5 injuries may exhibit similar radiological indications. This is unfortunate because Type 5 injuries have poor outcomes and may go undetected.
Genetic Conditions Causing Pathological Fractures
Osteogenesis imperfecta and osteopetrosis are genetic conditions that can cause pathological fractures. Osteogenesis imperfecta is a congenital condition that results in defective osteoid formation, leading to a lack of intercellular substances like collagen and dentine. This can cause translucent bones, multiple fractures, particularly of the long bones, wormian bones, and a trefoil pelvis. There are four subtypes of osteogenesis imperfecta, each with varying levels of collagen quantity and quality.
Osteopetrosis, on the other hand, causes bones to become harder and more dense. It is an autosomal recessive condition that is most common in young adults. Radiology can reveal a lack of differentiation between the cortex and the medulla, which is described as marble bone.
It is important to consider these genetic conditions when evaluating paediatric fractures, especially if there is a delay in presentation, lack of concordance between the proposed and actual mechanism of injury, or injuries at sites not commonly exposed to trauma. Prompt diagnosis and management can help prevent further fractures and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A healthy woman in her 30s has a blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg and an intra cranial pressure of 17 mmHg. What is the estimated cerebral perfusion pressure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 76 mmHg
Explanation:To calculate cerebral perfusion pressure, subtract the intra cranial pressure from the mean arterial pressure. The mean arterial pressure can be determined using the formula MAP= Diastolic pressure+ 0.333(Systolic pressure- Diastolic pressure). For example, if the mean arterial pressure is 93 and the intra cranial pressure is 17, the cerebral perfusion pressure would be 76.
Understanding Cerebral Perfusion Pressure
Cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) refers to the pressure gradient that drives blood flow to the brain. It is a crucial factor in maintaining optimal cerebral perfusion, which is tightly regulated by the body. Any sudden increase in CPP can lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP), while a decrease in CPP can result in cerebral ischemia. To calculate CPP, one can subtract the ICP from the mean arterial pressure.
In cases of trauma, it is essential to carefully monitor and control CPP. This may require invasive methods to measure both ICP and mean arterial pressure (MAP). By doing so, healthcare professionals can ensure that the brain receives adequate blood flow and oxygenation, which is vital for optimal brain function. Understanding CPP is crucial in managing traumatic brain injuries and other conditions that affect cerebral perfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which food is a rich source of vitamin D in the diet?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oily fish
Explanation:Sources of Vitamin D
Vitamin D is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that can be found in certain foods such as cheese, butter, eggs, and oily fish. However, vegetable sources of vitamin D are limited, although some foods are fortified with this vitamin. For instance, 100 grams of sundried shiitake mushrooms contain 1600 IU of vitamin D, while one egg contains 20 IU. Wild salmon is also a good source of vitamin D, with 100 grams containing 800 IU, while farmed salmon contains 200 IU.
Aside from food sources, sunlight is also a good source of vitamin D. Exposure of arms and legs to sunlight for 10-15 minutes can provide 3000 IU of vitamin D. However, it is difficult to obtain the daily requirement of 25-50 IU of vitamin D through sunlight alone, especially for people living in temperate climates. As a result, many people may have insufficient vitamin D levels. It is important to ensure that we get enough vitamin D through a combination of food sources and sunlight exposure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 28
Incorrect
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What significance do linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids hold?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are essential fatty acids
Explanation:The Importance of Essential Fatty Acids in the Diet
Essential fatty acids, such as linoleic and alpha-linolenic acids, are crucial components of a healthy diet. Although they are only required in small amounts, they play several important roles in the body. These fatty acids are necessary for the synthesis of phospholipids, which are essential components of cell membranes. They also help regulate cholesterol transport and synthesis, and serve as precursors for omega-3 fatty acids and arachidonic acid. Additionally, essential fatty acids are important for the synthesis of prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and thromboxanes.
A lack of adequate essential fatty acids in the diet can have negative consequences, particularly for brain growth in infancy. It can also lead to alopecia, dermatitis, and fatty liver. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the diet includes sources of these essential fatty acids, such as certain types of fish, nuts, and seeds. By doing so, individuals can support their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Basic Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a haemoglobin level of 72 g/dL. The haematology lab performed a blood film and found numerous schistocytes and occasional reticulocytes, with no other erythrocyte abnormalities. Neutrophils and platelets were normal. The patient has a mid-line sternotomy scar, bruising to the arms, a metallic click to the first heart sound, and a resting tremor in the left hand. What is the most likely cause of his anaemia?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravascular haemolysis
Explanation:Schistocytes on a blood film are indicative of intravascular haemolysis, which is the most likely cause in this clinical scenario. The presence of a mid-line sternotomy scar, metallic click to the first heart sound, and warfarin prescription suggests a metal heart valve, which can cause sheering of red blood cells and subsequent intravascular haemolysis. Vasculitis, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), and B12 deficiency are less likely causes in this case.
Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films
Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.
Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.
In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has remarried and desires to have children with her new Caucasian husband. However, she already has a 5-year-old child with cystic fibrosis from her previous marriage. She is concerned about the likelihood of having another affected child with her new partner. Can you provide an estimated risk?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 1 in 100 chance
Explanation:Cystic Fibrosis Inheritance
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that is inherited in an autosomal recessive pattern. This means that both copies of the gene in each cell have mutations. Individuals with only one copy of the mutated gene are carriers and typically do not show signs or symptoms of the condition.
In the case of a female carrier for the CF gene, there is a 1 in 2 chance of producing a gamete carrying the CF gene. If her new partner is also a carrier, he has a 1 in 25 chance of having the CF gene and a 1 in 50 chance of producing a gamete with the CF gene. Therefore, the chance of producing a child with cystic fibrosis is 1 in 100.
It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of cystic fibrosis to make informed decisions about family planning and genetic testing. This knowledge can help individuals and families better understand the risks and potential outcomes of having children with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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