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Question 1
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A 85-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after collapsing at home. He has a history of hypertension and poorly controlled type 2 diabetes. During examination, he complains of right-sided facial pain and left-sided arm pain, and mentions that the room appears to be spinning. The patient also has reduced temperature sensation on the right side of his face and the left side of his body, an ataxic gait, and vomits during the examination. Which artery is the most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Posterior inferior cerebellar artery
Explanation:The correct diagnosis for a patient presenting with sudden onset vertigo and vomiting, dysphagia, ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, contralateral limb pain and temperature loss, and ataxia is posterior inferior cerebellar artery. This constellation of symptoms is consistent with lateral medullary syndrome, also known as Wallenberg syndrome, which is caused by ischemia of the lateral medulla. This condition is associated with involvement of the trigeminal nucleus, lateral spinothalamic tract, cerebellum, and nucleus ambiguus, resulting in the aforementioned symptoms.
The anterior spinal artery, basilar artery, middle cerebral artery, and posterior cerebral artery are not associated with lateral medullary syndrome and would present with different symptoms.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her concerned partner due to her recent bizarre behavior. The partner reports an increase in confusion, hypersexuality, putting objects in her mouth, constant eating, and difficulty recognizing her parents. The neurological exam shows only mild neck stiffness, and routine observations are normal except for a high temperature of 38ºC. A CT scan is normal, but a lumbar puncture reveals a high lymphocyte count and slightly elevated protein. T2 weighted MRI shows hyperintensities in which area of the temporal lobe is likely affected?
Your Answer: Amygdala
Explanation:The correct option for the brain area affected in the case of herpes simplex meningoencephalitis with Kluver-Bucy syndrome is the amygdala. Lesions in this area may cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which can be diagnosed if the patient presents with three or more of the following symptoms: docility, dietary changes and hyperphagia, hyperorality, hypersexuality, and visual agnosia.
The caudate nucleus, hippocampus, and internal capsule are incorrect options as they are not associated with Kluver-Bucy syndrome. The caudate nucleus is involved in motor function and learning processes, the hippocampus is involved in memory, and the internal capsule provides passage to ascending and descending fibres running to and from the cerebral cortex.
Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Correct
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Samantha is a 42-year-old woman with a lengthy history of alcohol misuse. She visits her physician complaining of ongoing abdominal discomfort, steatorrhea, and weight loss. There is no jaundice present. Tests indicate an increased lipase level and a normal amylase level. An ERCP is performed to examine the biliary system and pancreas.
What is the most probable finding in the pancreas during the ERCP?Your Answer: 'Chain of lakes' appearance
Explanation:Chronic pancreatitis can be diagnosed based on several factors, including alcohol abuse, elevated lipase levels, and normal amylase levels. An ERCP can confirm the diagnosis by revealing the characteristic chain of lakes appearance of the dilated and twisted main pancreatic duct. The absence of systemic symptoms makes a pancreatic abscess or necrosis unlikely, while a normal or absent pancreas is highly improbable.
Understanding Chronic Pancreatitis
Chronic pancreatitis is a condition characterized by inflammation that can affect both the exocrine and endocrine functions of the pancreas. While alcohol excess is the leading cause of this condition, up to 20% of cases are unexplained. Other causes include genetic factors such as cystic fibrosis and haemochromatosis, as well as ductal obstruction due to tumors, stones, and structural abnormalities.
Symptoms of chronic pancreatitis include pain that worsens 15 to 30 minutes after a meal, steatorrhoea, and diabetes mellitus. Abdominal x-rays and CT scans are used to detect pancreatic calcification, which is present in around 30% of cases. Functional tests such as faecal elastase may also be used to assess exocrine function if imaging is inconclusive.
Management of chronic pancreatitis involves pancreatic enzyme supplements, analgesia, and antioxidants. While there is limited evidence to support the use of antioxidants, one study suggests that they may be beneficial in early stages of the disease. Overall, understanding the causes and symptoms of chronic pancreatitis is crucial for effective management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Correct
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A 54-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of experiencing shortness of breath during physical activity. He denies any chest pain or coughing and has never smoked. During cardiac auscultation, an ejection systolic murmur is detected. Although a valvular defect is suspected as the cause of his symptoms, echocardiography reveals an atrial septal defect (ASD) instead. An ASD allows blood to flow between the left and right atria. During fetal development, what structure connects the left and right atria?
Your Answer: Foramen ovale
Explanation:The foramen ovale is an opening in the wall between the two upper chambers of the heart that allows blood to flow from the right atrium to the left atrium. Normally, this opening closes shortly after birth. However, if it remains open, it can result in a condition called patent foramen ovale, which is an abnormal connection between the two atria. This can lead to an atrial septal defect, where blood flows from the left atrium to the right atrium. This condition may be detected early if there are symptoms or a heart murmur is heard, but it can also go unnoticed until later in life.
During fetal development, the ductus venosus is a blood vessel that connects the umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava, allowing oxygenated blood to bypass the liver. After birth, this vessel usually closes and becomes the ligamentum venosum.
The ductus arteriosus is another fetal blood vessel that connects the pulmonary artery to the aorta, allowing blood to bypass the non-functioning lungs. This vessel typically closes after birth and becomes the ligamentum arteriosum. If it remains open, it can result in a patent ductus arteriosus.
The coronary sinus is a vein that receives blood from the heart’s coronary veins and drains into the right atrium.
The mitral valve is a valve that separates the left atrium and the left ventricle of the heart.
The umbilical vein carries oxygenated blood from the placenta to the fetus during development. After birth, it typically closes and becomes the round ligament of the liver.
Understanding Patent Foramen Ovale
Patent foramen ovale (PFO) is a condition that affects approximately 20% of the population. It is characterized by the presence of a small hole in the heart that may allow an embolus, such as one from deep vein thrombosis, to pass from the right side of the heart to the left side. This can lead to a stroke, which is known as a paradoxical embolus.
Aside from its association with stroke, PFO has also been linked to migraine. Studies have shown that some patients experience an improvement in their migraine symptoms after undergoing PFO closure.
The management of PFO in patients who have had a stroke is still a topic of debate. Treatment options include antiplatelet therapy, anticoagulant therapy, or PFO closure. It is important for patients with PFO to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 72-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of increasing dyspnoea, especially during physical activity. During the examination, the doctor observes a raised JVP and malar flush. On auscultation of the heart, a diastolic murmur is heard, which is most audible at the apex.
What is the most frequent cause of the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Rheumatic fever
Explanation:Understanding Mitral Stenosis
Mitral stenosis is a condition where the mitral valve, which controls blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle, becomes obstructed. This leads to an increase in pressure within the left atrium, pulmonary vasculature, and right side of the heart. The most common cause of mitral stenosis is rheumatic fever, but it can also be caused by other rare conditions such as mucopolysaccharidoses, carcinoid, and endocardial fibroelastosis.
Symptoms of mitral stenosis include dyspnea, hemoptysis, a mid-late diastolic murmur, a loud S1, and a low volume pulse. Severe cases may also present with an increased length of murmur and a closer opening snap to S2. Chest x-rays may show left atrial enlargement, while echocardiography can confirm a cross-sectional area of less than 1 sq cm for a tight mitral stenosis.
Management of mitral stenosis depends on the severity of the condition. Asymptomatic patients are monitored with regular echocardiograms, while symptomatic patients may undergo percutaneous mitral balloon valvotomy or mitral valve surgery. Patients with associated atrial fibrillation require anticoagulation, with warfarin currently recommended for moderate/severe cases. However, there is an emerging consensus that direct-acting anticoagulants may be suitable for mild cases with atrial fibrillation.
Overall, understanding mitral stenosis is important for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female has received a pan proctocolectomy and ileoanal pouch due to familial adenomatous polyposis coli. What is the most frequent non-colonic manifestation of this condition?
Your Answer: Fibrocystic disease of the breast
Correct Answer: Duodenal polyps
Explanation:Polyposis syndromes are a group of genetic disorders that cause the development of multiple polyps in the colon and other parts of the gastrointestinal tract. These polyps can increase the risk of developing cancer, and therefore, early detection and management are crucial. There are several types of polyposis syndromes, each with its own genetic defect, features, and associated disorders.
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is caused by a mutation in the APC gene and is characterized by the development of over 100 colonic adenomas, with a 100% risk of cancer. Screening and management involve regular colonoscopies and resectional surgery if polyps are found. FAP is also associated with gastric and duodenal polyps and abdominal desmoid tumors.
MYH-associated polyposis is caused by a biallelic mutation of the MYH gene and is associated with multiple colonic polyps and an increased risk of right-sided cancers. Attenuated phenotype can be managed with regular colonoscopies, while resection and ileoanal pouch reconstruction are recommended for those with multiple polyps.
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is caused by a mutation in the STK11 gene and is characterized by multiple benign intestinal hamartomas, episodic obstruction, and an increased risk of GI cancers. Screening involves annual examinations and pan-intestinal endoscopy every 2-3 years.
Cowden disease is caused by a mutation in the PTEN gene and is characterized by macrocephaly, multiple intestinal hamartomas, and an increased risk of cancer at any site. Targeted individualized screening is recommended, with extra surveillance for breast, thyroid, and uterine cancers.
HNPCC (Lynch syndrome) is caused by germline mutations of DNA mismatch repair genes and is associated with an increased risk of colorectal, endometrial, and gastric cancers. Colonoscopies every 1-2 years from age 25 and consideration of prophylactic surgery are recommended, along with extra colonic surveillance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 7
Correct
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A 26-year-old gardener presents to her GP with a two week history of elbow swelling. She reports a gradual onset of the swelling, with no apparent triggers, and experiences pain and warmth upon touch. She denies any swelling in other areas and is generally in good health.
The patient has a medical history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is currently taking methotrexate. There are no other known medical conditions.
During the physical examination, a tender, soft, fluctuant mass is palpated on the posterior aspect of the patient's elbow.
Based on the above information, what is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Understanding Olecranon Bursitis
Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. The inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, which is often the only symptom. Some patients may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. On the other hand, patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-coloured bursal fluid favours a non-infective cause. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and signs of olecranon bursitis can help in its diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician with complaints of fatigue and trouble staying alert while watching TV or reading, particularly in the evenings. Upon examination, she is diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. What is the underlying mechanism for this condition?
Your Answer: Partial inhibition of acetylcholine release from from the presynaptic membrane
Correct Answer: Antibodies are produced against acetylcholine receptors
Explanation:The accurate explanation is that myasthenia gravis involves the production of antibodies against acetylcholine receptors, leading to a decrease in the amount of available acetylcholine for use in the neuromuscular junction.
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the eyes, face, neck, and limbs. It is more common in women and is associated with thymomas and other autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis is made through electromyography and testing for antibodies to acetylcholine receptors. Treatment includes acetylcholinesterase inhibitors and immunosuppression, and in severe cases, plasmapheresis or intravenous immunoglobulins may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old female patient who underwent tubal ligation presents to her general practitioner with complaints of abdominal pain, flank pain, visible blood in her urine, and involuntary urinary leakage. She has a history of lithotripsy for renal calculi one year ago. A CT scan of her abdomen and pelvis reveals an intra-abdominal fluid collection. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Incomplete clearance of calculi
Correct Answer: Ureter injury
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms and CT findings suggest that they may have suffered iatrogenic damage to their ureters, which are retroperitoneal organs. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space, causing haematuria, abdominal/flank pain, and incontinence. While calculi and lithotripsy can damage the ureter mucosal lining, they are unlikely to have caused fluid accumulation in the intra-abdominal cavity, especially since the lithotripsy was performed a year ago. Pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections can cause similar symptoms, but their CT findings would be different.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Considering the pituitary gland, which of the following statements is incorrect?
Your Answer: The anterior pituitary secretes thyroid stimulating hormone
Correct Answer: The pituitary is in direct contact with the optic chiasm
Explanation:While the pituitary gland is in close proximity to the optic chiasm, craniopharyngiomas can cause bitemporal hemianopia by exerting pressure on this structure. However, a dural fold separates it from the chiasm.
The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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