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  • Question 1 - What characteristic distinguishes mania from hypomania? ...

    Correct

    • What characteristic distinguishes mania from hypomania?

      Your Answer: Delusions of grandeur

      Explanation:

      While psychotic symptoms such as delusions and hallucinations can manifest during mania, they are not a requirement for diagnosis. Hypomania, on the other hand, is a milder form of mania that does not involve psychotic symptoms.

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A teenager who has recently dropped out of school has started to abuse...

    Correct

    • A teenager who has recently dropped out of school has started to abuse drugs. His friend brings him to A&E as he started behaving strangely and appeared to be experiencing hallucinations. As he walks into the cubicle you note a very unsteady gait and further questions reveal a sense of muscle rigidity. Which of the following do you expect he has been using?

      Your Answer: Ketamine

      Explanation:

      Illicit drugs, also known as illegal drugs, are substances that are prohibited by law and can have harmful effects on the body and mind. Some of the most commonly used illicit drugs in the UK include opioids, amphetamines, cocaine, MDMA (ecstasy), cannabis, and hallucinogens.

      Opioids, such as heroin, are highly addictive and can cause euphoria, drowsiness, constipation, and respiratory depression. Withdrawal symptoms may include piloerection, insomnia, restlessness, dilated pupils, yawning, sweating, and abdominal cramps.

      Amphetamines and cocaine are stimulants that can increase energy, cause insomnia, hyperactivity, euphoria, and paranoia. Withdrawal symptoms may include hypersomnia, hyperphagia, depression, irritability, agitation, vivid dreams, and increased appetite.

      MDMA, also known as ecstasy, can cause increased energy, sweating, jaw clenching, euphoria, enhanced sociability, and increased response to touch. Withdrawal symptoms may include depression, insomnia, depersonalisation, and derealisation.

      Cannabis, also known as marijuana of weed, can cause relaxation, intensified sensory experience, paranoia, anxiety, and injected conjunctiva. Withdrawal symptoms may include insomnia, reduced appetite, and irritability.

      Hallucinogens, such as LSD, can cause perceptual changes, pupillary dilation, tachycardia, sweating, palpitations, tremors, and incoordination. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for hallucinogens.

      Ketamine, also known as Vitamin K, Super K, Special K, of donkey dust, can cause euphoria, dissociation, ataxia, and hallucinations. There is no recognised withdrawal syndrome for ketamine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      33
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A teenage boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The father...

    Correct

    • A teenage boy is brought to the clinic by his father. The father is worried about his son's frequent use of alcohol, but the son does not see it as a problem and thinks his father is being too strict. Based on the stages of change model, what stage is the son currently in?

      Your Answer: Pre-contemplation

      Explanation:

      The person is presently in the precontemplation stage of change as they are not contemplating any changes. At this stage, individuals may not be aware of any issues that require modification.

      Stages of Change Model

      Prochaska and DiClemente’s Stages of Change Model identifies five stages that individuals go through when making a change. The first stage is pre-contemplation, where the individual is not considering change. There are different types of precontemplators, including those who lack knowledge about the problem, those who are afraid of losing control, those who feel hopeless, and those who rationalize their behavior.

      The second stage is contemplation, where the individual is ambivalent about change and is sitting on the fence. The third stage is preparation, where the individual has some experience with change and is trying to change, testing the waters. The fourth stage is action, where the individual has started to introduce change, and the behavior is defined as action during the first six months of change.

      The final stage is maintenance, where the individual is involved in ongoing efforts to maintain change. Action becomes maintenance once six months have elapsed. Understanding these stages can help individuals and professionals in supporting behavior change.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A teenager presents with a three-year history of feeling sad for most of...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents with a three-year history of feeling sad for most of the day for approximately 2-3 weeks every month. Low mood is accompanied by reduced concentration and mild insomnia. They deny alterations in appetite, low self-worth, and any marked loss of interest of pleasure. They deny that their condition has ever been more severe than this. They report brief periods of feeling okay in between these episodes of low mood. There is no evidence of any history of elevated mood states, and they are otherwise fit and well with no issues of substance misuse. They claim to function reasonably well but emphasise that this requires significant effort when they are feeling down.
      Which of the following ICD-11 diagnosis is most suggested by this description?:

      Your Answer: Bipolar type II disorder

      Correct Answer: Dysthymic disorder

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient report, it appears that they are experiencing symptoms consistent with Dysthymic Disorder. There is no indication that they have experienced a depressive episode that meets the criteria for a diagnosis of either single of recurrent depression. Additionally, there is no evidence of extended periods without symptoms, which would exclude a diagnosis of Dysthymic Disorder. The absence of elevated mood suggests that neither Cyclothymic Disorder nor Bipolar Disorder Type I of II are likely diagnoses.

      Depression is diagnosed using different criteria in the ICD-11 and DSM-5. The ICD-11 recognizes single depressive episodes, recurrent depressive disorder, dysthymic disorder, and mixed depressive and anxiety disorder. The DSM-5 recognizes disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, major depressive disorder, persistent depressive disorder, and premenstrual dysphoric disorder.

      For a diagnosis of a single depressive episode, the ICD-11 requires the presence of at least five characteristic symptoms occurring most of the day, nearly every day during a period lasting at least 2 weeks. The DSM-5 requires the presence of at least five symptoms during the same 2-week period, with at least one of the symptoms being either depressed mood of loss of interest of pleasure.

      Recurrent depressive disorder is characterized by a history of at least two depressive episodes separated by at least several months without significant mood disturbance, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires at least two episodes with an interval of at least 2 consecutive months between separate episodes in which criteria are not met for a major depressive episode.

      Dysthymic disorder is diagnosed when a person experiences persistent depressed mood lasting 2 years of more, according to the ICD-11. The DSM-5 requires depressed mood for most of the day, for more days than not, for at least 2 years, along with the presence of two or more additional symptoms.

      Mixed depressive and anxiety disorder is recognized as a separate code in the ICD-11, while the DSM-5 uses the ‘with anxious distress’ qualifier. The ICD-11 requires the presence of both depressive and anxiety symptoms for most of the time during a period of 2 weeks of more, while the DSM-5 requires the presence of both depressive and anxious symptoms during the same 2-week period.

      Overall, the criteria for diagnosing depression vary between the ICD-11 and DSM-5, but both require the presence of characteristic symptoms that cause significant distress of impairment in functioning.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      14.5
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  • Question 5 - What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most frequently observed symptom in individuals diagnosed with schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Lack of insight

      Explanation:

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      3.5
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  • Question 6 - What causes a mutation in the HPRT gene? ...

    Correct

    • What causes a mutation in the HPRT gene?

      Your Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lesch-Nyhan Syndrome: A Rare Genetic Disorder

      Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is a rare genetic disorder that causes the overproduction and accumulation of uric acid in the body, leading to various health problems such as gouty arthritis, kidney stones, and subcutaneous tophi. The condition primarily affects males and is caused by mutations in the HPRT gene located on the X-chromosome.

      People with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome typically experience motor disability, including severe dystonia, hypotonia, and choreoathetosis, which can make it difficult of impossible for them to walk of sit without assistance. They may also exhibit self-injurious behavior, such as biting and head-banging, which is the most common and distinctive behavioral problem associated with the condition. Intellectual disability is common, but severe cognitive impairment is rare.

      The absence of the HPRT enzyme, which is responsible for recycling purine bases, leads to the accumulation of uric acid and affects the development of specific neural pathways in the brain, particularly the mesotelencephalic dopamine pathways. This disruption is likely responsible for the motor disability and behavioral peculiarities associated with the condition.

      Treatment for self-injurious behavior typically involves the use of protective restraints applied to the limbs, trunk, of head to prevent self-hitting of self-biting. Dental extraction may be necessary in cases of lip of tongue biting. Behavior modification methods that involve extinction may also be used, but neuroleptics may be required during particularly stressful of difficult behavior periods. However, these medications should only be used transiently due to their sedative effects and potential side-effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a: ...

    Correct

    • A worldwide epidemic of influenza is known as a:

      Your Answer: Pandemic

      Explanation:

      Epidemiology Key Terms

      – Epidemic (Outbreak): A rise in disease cases above the anticipated level in a specific population during a particular time frame.
      – Endemic: The regular of anticipated level of disease in a particular population.
      – Pandemic: Epidemics that affect a significant number of individuals across multiple countries, regions, of continents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is the difference between rapid cycling and non-rapid cycling bipolar disorder? ...

    Correct

    • What is the difference between rapid cycling and non-rapid cycling bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Rapid cycling is more common in women

      Explanation:

      Bipolar Disorder Diagnosis

      Bipolar and related disorders are mood disorders characterized by manic, mixed, of hypomanic episodes alternating with depressive episodes. The lifetime risk of suicide in individuals with bipolar disorder is estimated to be at least 15 times that of the general population. Under the ICD-11, there are three subtypes of bipolar disorder: Bipolar I, Bipolar II, and Cyclothymic disorder.

      Bipolar I disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one manic of mixed episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and manic of mixed episodes. Onset of the first mood episode most often occurs during the late teen years, but onset of bipolar type I can occur at any time through the life cycle. The lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorder is estimated to be around 2.1%.

      Bipolar II disorder is diagnosed when an individual has a history of at least one hypomanic episode and at least one depressive episode. The typical course of the disorder is characterized by recurrent depressive and hypomanic episodes. Onset of bipolar type II most often occurs during the mid-twenties. The number of lifetime episodes tends to be higher for bipolar II disorder than for major depressive disorder of bipolar I disorder.

      Cyclothymic disorder is diagnosed when an individual experiences mood instability over an extended period of time characterized by numerous hypomanic and depressive periods. The symptoms are present for more days than not, and there is no history of manic or mixed episodes. The course of cyclothymic disorder is often gradual and persistent, and onset commonly occurs during adolescence of early adulthood.

      Rapid cycling is not a subtype of bipolar disorder but instead is a qualifier. It is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode. Rapid cycling is associated with an increased risk of suicide and tends to be precipitated by stressors such as life events, alcohol abuse, use of antidepressants, and medical disorders.

      Overall, the diagnosis of bipolar disorder requires careful evaluation of an individual’s symptoms and history. Treatment typically involves a combination of medication and psychotherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - For what purpose was the SUSS test created to assess? ...

    Correct

    • For what purpose was the SUSS test created to assess?

      Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      The SUSS test was created to aid in the evaluation and assessment of anorexia nervosa by providing a more precise method of measuring power. Traditional neurological examinations of anorexia patients often miss significant power deficiencies caused by muscle loss. The test requires patients to transition from lying down to sitting up, then squatting, and finally standing up again, with a structured scoring system in place.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      2.3
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  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman confides in you that she experienced protracted and recurrent childhood sexual abuse. Which one of the following features is not a characteristic feature of post-traumatic stress disorder?

      Your Answer: Loss of inhibitions

      Explanation:

      PTSD can develop from a single traumatic event, such as a car accident, of from ongoing and repeated trauma, such as childhood abuse. The latter is known as complex PTSD. However, there is some discussion about whether complex PTSD and borderline personality disorder are distinct conditions, as they have many similar symptoms.

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      67.8
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  • Question 11 - What measures should be taken to address erratic compliance in individuals with bipolar...

    Correct

    • What measures should be taken to address erratic compliance in individuals with bipolar disorder?

      Your Answer: Lithium

      Explanation:

      Patients who are likely to have poor compliance should avoid intermittent treatment with lithium as it can exacerbate the natural progression of bipolar disorder, according to the Maudsley 13th Edition.

      Bipolar Disorder: Diagnosis and Management

      Bipolar disorder is a lifelong condition characterized by episodes of mania or hypomania and episodes of depressed mood. The peak age of onset is 15-19 years, and the lifetime prevalence of bipolar I disorders is estimated to be around 2.1%. The diagnosis of bipolar disorder is based on the presence of manic or hypomanic episodes, which are characterized by elevated of expansive mood, rapid speech, and increased activity of energy. Psychotic symptoms, such as delusions and hallucinations, may also be present.

      Bipolar depression differs from unipolar depression in several ways, including more rapid onset, more frequent episodes, and shorter duration. Rapid cycling is a qualifier that can be applied to bipolar I of bipolar II disorder and is defined as the presence of at least four mood episodes in the previous 12 months that meet the criteria for a manic, hypomanic, of major depressive episode.

      The management of bipolar disorder involves acute and long-term interventions. Acute management of mania or hypomania may involve stopping antidepressants and offering antipsychotics of mood stabilizers. Long-term management may involve psychological interventions and pharmacological treatments such as lithium, valproate, of olanzapine.

      It is important to note that valproate should not be offered to women of girls of childbearing potential for long-term bipolar disorder unless other options are ineffective of not tolerated and a pregnancy prevention program is in place. Aripiprazole is recommended as an option for treating moderate to severe manic episodes in adolescents with bipolar I disorder.

      Overall, the diagnosis and management of bipolar disorder require a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual’s symptoms, history, and preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      12.6
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  • Question 12 - A 16-year-old patient presents with daily auditory hallucinations, delusional beliefs, and avolition that...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old patient presents with daily auditory hallucinations, delusional beliefs, and avolition that have been ongoing for five weeks. The patient had a two-month history of anxiety and increased social isolation prior to the onset of these symptoms.
      What is the most suitable ICD-11 diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Schizophreniform disorder

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of hallucinations and delusions that have been present for five weeks meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia according to the ICD-11. It should be noted that schizophreniform disorder is not recognized as a diagnosis in the ICD-11, but rather in the DSM-5. In the DSM-5, schizophreniform disorder is considered an intermediate diagnosis between brief psychotic disorder (similar to acute and transient psychotic disorder in the ICD-11) and schizophrenia.

      – Schizophrenia and other primary psychotic disorders are characterized by impairments in reality testing and alterations in behavior.
      – Schizophrenia is a chronic mental health disorder with symptoms including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech of behavior, and impaired cognitive ability.
      – The essential features of schizophrenia include persistent delusions, persistent hallucinations, disorganized thinking, experiences of influence, passivity of control, negative symptoms, grossly disorganized behavior, and psychomotor disturbances.
      – Schizoaffective disorder is diagnosed when all diagnostic requirements for schizophrenia are met concurrently with mood symptoms that meet the diagnostic requirements of a moderate or severe depressive episode, a manic episode, of a mixed episode.
      – Schizotypal disorder is an enduring pattern of unusual speech, perceptions, beliefs, and behaviors that are not of sufficient intensity of duration to meet the diagnostic requirements of schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, of delusional disorder.
      – Acute and transient psychotic disorder is characterized by an acute onset of psychotic symptoms, which can include delusions, hallucinations, disorganized thinking, of experiences of influence, passivity of control, that emerge without a prodrome, progressing from a non-psychotic state to a clearly psychotic state within 2 weeks.
      – Delusional disorder is diagnosed when there is a presence of a delusion of set of related delusions, typically persisting for at least 3 months and often much longer, in the absence of a depressive, manic, of mixed episode.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      15.3
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - What factor increases the risk of liver damage after taking paracetamol? ...

    Incorrect

    • What factor increases the risk of liver damage after taking paracetamol?

      Your Answer: Depression

      Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Individuals suffering from anorexia may have depleted levels of glutathione, which are responsible for conjugating benzoquinoneimine, the primary hepatotoxic metabolite of paracetamol.

      Self-Harm and its Management

      Self-harm refers to intentional acts of self-poisoning of self-injury. It is prevalent among younger people, with an estimated 10% of girls and 3% of boys aged 15-16 years having self-harmed in the previous year. Risk factors for non-fatal repetition of self-harm include previous self-harm, personality disorder, hopelessness, history of psychiatric treatment, schizophrenia, alcohol abuse/dependence, and drug abuse/dependence. Suicide following an act of self-harm is more likely in those with previous episodes of self-harm, suicidal intent, poor physical health, and male gender.

      Risk assessment tools are not recommended for predicting future suicide of repetition of self-harm. The recommended interventions for self-harm include 4-10 sessions of CBT specifically structured for people who self-harm and considering DBT for adolescents with significant emotional dysregulation. Drug treatment as a specific intervention to reduce self-harm should not be offered.

      In the management of ingestion, activated charcoal can help if used early, while emetics and cathartics should not be used. Gastric lavage should generally not be used unless recommended by TOXBASE. Paracetamol is involved in 30-40% of acute presentations with poisoning. Intravenous acetylcysteine is the treatment of choice, and pseudo-allergic reactions are relatively common. Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, while flumazenil can help reduce the need for admission to intensive care in benzodiazepine overdose.

      For superficial uncomplicated skin lacerations of 5 cm of less in length, tissue adhesive of skin closure strips could be used as a first-line treatment option. All children who self-harm should be admitted for an overnight stay at a pediatric ward.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old patient has long standing hyperprolactinaemia but does not experience symptoms. They...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old patient has long standing hyperprolactinaemia but does not experience symptoms. They are keen to continue on the prescribed antipsychotic which has proved very effective. Which of the following risks must you make them aware of?

      Your Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      This risk is purely hypothetical and can affect individuals of any gender.

      Management of Hyperprolactinaemia

      Hyperprolactinaemia is often associated with the use of antipsychotics and occasionally antidepressants. Dopamine inhibits prolactin, and dopamine antagonists increase prolactin levels. Almost all antipsychotics cause changes in prolactin, but some do not increase levels beyond the normal range. The degree of prolactin elevation is dose-related. Hyperprolactinaemia is often asymptomatic but can cause galactorrhoea, menstrual difficulties, gynaecomastia, hypogonadism, sexual dysfunction, and an increased risk of osteoporosis and breast cancer in psychiatric patients.

      Patients should have their prolactin measured before antipsychotic therapy and then monitored for symptoms at three months. Annual testing is recommended for asymptomatic patients. Antipsychotics that increase prolactin should be avoided in patients under 25, patients with osteoporosis, patients with a history of hormone-dependent cancer, and young women. Samples should be taken at least one hour after eating of waking, and care must be taken to avoid stress during the procedure.

      Treatment options include referral for tests to rule out prolactinoma if prolactin is very high, making a joint decision with the patient about continuing if prolactin is raised but not symptomatic, switching to an alternative antipsychotic less prone to hyperprolactinaemia if prolactin is raised and the patient is symptomatic, adding aripiprazole 5mg, of adding a dopamine agonist such as amantadine of bromocriptine. Mirtazapine is recommended for symptomatic hyperprolactinaemia associated with antidepressants as it does not raise prolactin levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      17.3
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  • Question 15 - What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?...

    Incorrect

    • What were the findings of studies on OCD in individuals with intellectual disabilities?

      Your Answer: Has a prevalence rate of 30% in learning disability

      Correct Answer: Ordering is the most common compulsion

      Explanation:

      In adults with learning disability, ordering is the most prevalent compulsion, whereas hand-washing, checking, and cleaning are more common in the general population. The prevalence rate of OCD in learning disability is higher at 2.5% compared to the general population. However, it can be challenging to distinguish OCD from other behaviors associated with learning disability syndromes, such as tics, stereotyped behaviors, and autism spectrum disorder. Additionally, assessing obsessional thoughts in individuals with learning disability can be challenging due to their difficulty in articulating them.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry Of Learning Disability
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  • Question 16 - What is the conventional cutoff for a p-value of 0.05 and what does...

    Incorrect

    • What is the conventional cutoff for a p-value of 0.05 and what does it mean in terms of the likelihood of detecting a difference by chance?

      Your Answer: 1 in 7 times

      Correct Answer: 1 in 14 times

      Explanation:

      The probability of detecting a difference by chance is 1 in 20 times when the p-value is 0.05, which is the conventional cutoff. In this case, the answer is 1 in 14 times, which is equivalent to a p-value of 0.07.

      Understanding Hypothesis Testing in Statistics

      In statistics, it is not feasible to investigate hypotheses on entire populations. Therefore, researchers take samples and use them to make estimates about the population they are drawn from. However, this leads to uncertainty as there is no guarantee that the sample taken will be truly representative of the population, resulting in potential errors. Statistical hypothesis testing is the process used to determine if claims from samples to populations can be made and with what certainty.

      The null hypothesis (Ho) is the claim that there is no real difference between two groups, while the alternative hypothesis (H1 of Ha) suggests that any difference is due to some non-random chance. The alternative hypothesis can be one-tailed of two-tailed, depending on whether it seeks to establish a difference of a change in one direction.

      Two types of errors may occur when testing the null hypothesis: Type I and Type II errors. Type I error occurs when the null hypothesis is rejected when it is true, while Type II error occurs when the null hypothesis is accepted when it is false. The power of a study is the probability of correctly rejecting the null hypothesis when it is false, and it can be increased by increasing the sample size.

      P-values provide information on statistical significance and help researchers decide if study results have occurred due to chance. The p-value is the probability of obtaining a result that is as large of larger when in reality there is no difference between two groups. The cutoff for the p-value is called the significance level (alpha level), typically set at 0.05. If the p-value is less than the cutoff, the null hypothesis is rejected, and if it is greater or equal to the cut off, the null hypothesis is not rejected. However, the p-value does not indicate clinical significance, which may be too small to be meaningful.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      7.8
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  • Question 17 - Calculate the median value from the following values:
    1, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5,...

    Correct

    • Calculate the median value from the following values:
      1, 3, 3, 3, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 6

      Your Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Measures of Central Tendency

      Measures of central tendency are used in descriptive statistics to summarize the middle of typical value of a data set. There are three common measures of central tendency: the mean, median, and mode.

      The median is the middle value in a data set that has been arranged in numerical order. It is not affected by outliers and is used for ordinal data. The mode is the most frequent value in a data set and is used for categorical data. The mean is calculated by adding all the values in a data set and dividing by the number of values. It is sensitive to outliers and is used for interval and ratio data.

      The appropriate measure of central tendency depends on the measurement scale of the data. For nominal and categorical data, the mode is used. For ordinal data, the median of mode is used. For interval data with a normal distribution, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used. For interval data with skewed distribution, the median is used. For ratio data, the mean is preferable, but the median of mode can also be used for skewed data.

      In addition to measures of central tendency, the range is also used to describe the spread of a data set. It is calculated by subtracting the smallest value from the largest value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      14.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - What is the recommended duration of bed rest per day for a patient...

    Correct

    • What is the recommended duration of bed rest per day for a patient with anorexia nervosa and a BMI below 13?

      Your Answer: 24 hours

      Explanation:

      According to the MARSIPAN guidelines, individuals with anorexia and a BMI below 13 should be placed on 24-hour bed rest and given careful consideration for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis. This recommendation is outlined in the October 2010 College Report CR 162, which was jointly produced by the Royal College of Psychiatrists and the Royal College of Physicians in London.

      Anorexia is a serious mental health condition that can have severe physical complications. These complications can affect various systems in the body, including the cardiac, skeletal, hematologic, reproductive, metabolic, gastrointestinal, CNS, and dermatological systems. Some of the recognized physical complications of anorexia nervosa include bradycardia, hypotension, osteoporosis, anemia, amenorrhea, hypothyroidism, delayed gastric emptying, cerebral atrophy, and lanugo.

      The Royal College of Psychiatrists has issued advice on managing sick patients with anorexia nervosa, recommending hospital admission for those with high-risk items. These items include a BMI of less than 13, a pulse rate of less than 40 bpm, a SUSS test score of less than 2, a sodium level of less than 130 mmol/L, a potassium level of less than 3 mmol/L, a serum glucose level of less than 3 mmol/L, and a QTc interval of more than 450 ms. The SUSS test involves assessing the patient’s ability to sit up and squat without using their hands. A rating of 0 indicates complete inability to rise, while a rating of 3 indicates the ability to rise without difficulty. Proper management and treatment of anorexia nervosa are crucial to prevent of manage these physical complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      178.3
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - What is the truth about the utilization of psychiatric medications in individuals with...

    Incorrect

    • What is the truth about the utilization of psychiatric medications in individuals with epilepsy?

      Your Answer: MAOIs are considered high risk in people with epilepsy who become depressed

      Correct Answer: Methylphenidate is considered low risk for people with epilepsy who have ADHD

      Explanation:

      Psychotropics and Seizure Threshold in People with Epilepsy

      People with epilepsy are at an increased risk for various mental health conditions, including depression, anxiety, psychosis, and suicide. It is important to note that the link between epilepsy and mental illness is bidirectional, as patients with mental health conditions also have an increased risk of developing new-onset epilepsy. Psychotropic drugs are often necessary for people with epilepsy, but they can reduce the seizure threshold and increase the risk of seizures. The following tables provide guidance on the seizure risk associated with different classes of antidepressants, antipsychotics, and ADHD medications. It is important to use caution and carefully consider the risks and benefits of these medications when treating people with epilepsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      84.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - What is necessary to compute the standard deviation? ...

    Correct

    • What is necessary to compute the standard deviation?

      Your Answer: Mean

      Explanation:

      The standard deviation represents the typical amount that the data points deviate from the mean.

      Measures of dispersion are used to indicate the variation of spread of a data set, often in conjunction with a measure of central tendency such as the mean of median. The range, which is the difference between the largest and smallest value, is the simplest measure of dispersion. The interquartile range, which is the difference between the 3rd and 1st quartiles, is another useful measure. Quartiles divide a data set into quarters, and the interquartile range can provide additional information about the spread of the data. However, to get a more representative idea of spread, measures such as the variance and standard deviation are needed. The variance gives an indication of how much the items in the data set vary from the mean, while the standard deviation reflects the distribution of individual scores around their mean. The standard deviation is expressed in the same units as the data set and can be used to indicate how confident we are that data points lie within a particular range. The standard error of the mean is an inferential statistic used to estimate the population mean and is a measure of the spread expected for the mean of the observations. Confidence intervals are often presented alongside sample results such as the mean value, indicating a range that is likely to contain the true value.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      5.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking...

    Correct

    • If a child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder develops tics due to taking methylphenidate, what would be the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Atomoxetine

      Explanation:

      ADHD (Diagnosis and Management in Children)

      ADHD is a behavioural syndrome characterised by symptoms of inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. The DSM-5 and ICD-11 provide diagnostic criteria for the condition, with both recognising three subtypes: predominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.

      Treatment for children under 5 involves offering an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme as a first-line option. Medication should only be considered after obtaining advice from a specialist ADHD service. For children and young people aged 5-18, advice and support should be given, along with an ADHD-focused group parent-training programme. Medication should only be offered if ADHD symptoms persist after environmental modifications have been implemented and reviewed. Cognitive behavioural therapy may also be considered for those who have benefited from medication but still experience significant impairment.

      NICE advises against elimination diets, dietary fatty acid supplementation, and the use of the ‘few foods diet’. Methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine is the first-line medication option, with dexamphetamine considered for those who respond to lisdexamfetamine but cannot tolerate the longer effect profile. Atomoxetine of guanfacine may be offered for those who cannot tolerate methylphenidate of lisdexamfetamine. Clonidine and atypical antipsychotics should only be used with advice from a tertiary ADHD service.

      Drug holidays may be considered for children and young people who have not met the expected height for their age due to medication. However, NICE advises that withdrawal from treatment is associated with a risk of symptom exacerbation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      4
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - How would you rephrase the question to refer to the test's capacity to...

    Correct

    • How would you rephrase the question to refer to the test's capacity to identify a person with a disease as positive?

      Your Answer: Sensitivity

      Explanation:

      Clinical tests are used to determine the presence of absence of a disease of condition. To interpret test results, it is important to have a working knowledge of statistics used to describe them. Two by two tables are commonly used to calculate test statistics such as sensitivity and specificity. Sensitivity refers to the proportion of people with a condition that the test correctly identifies, while specificity refers to the proportion of people without a condition that the test correctly identifies. Accuracy tells us how closely a test measures to its true value, while predictive values help us understand the likelihood of having a disease based on a positive of negative test result. Likelihood ratios combine sensitivity and specificity into a single figure that can refine our estimation of the probability of a disease being present. Pre and post-test odds and probabilities can also be calculated to better understand the likelihood of having a disease before and after a test is carried out. Fagan’s nomogram is a useful tool for calculating post-test probabilities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice
      4.7
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What is the most precise estimation of the occurrence of problematic behaviors among...

    Correct

    • What is the most precise estimation of the occurrence of problematic behaviors among adults who have learning disabilities?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Learning Disability and comorbid Psychiatric Illness

      It is estimated that 30-50% of adults with learning disabilities also experience mental health problems, including problem behavior. Specific prevalence rates for various mental health disorders in this population have been identified through research. For example, psychotic disorders are present in 4% of adults with learning disabilities, while affective disorders are present in 6%. Autism is the most prevalent disorder, affecting 7.5% of this population.

      It is important to note that major depressive disorder can occur at all IQ levels in people with learning disabilities, but may be missed of misinterpreted as challenging behavior. Additionally, individuals with learning disabilities are more susceptible to the negative effects of life events and may develop adjustment disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is also common in this population.

      Stimulant drugs may be less effective in children with learning disabilities and should be used with caution in individuals with Tourette’s of autism, as they may trigger tics. Overall, it is crucial to recognize and address comorbid psychiatric illness in individuals with learning disabilities to ensure appropriate treatment and support.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Learning Disability
      8.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - What is the recommended treatment for a stroke patient experiencing pathological crying? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the recommended treatment for a stroke patient experiencing pathological crying?

      Your Answer: Tranylcypromine

      Correct Answer: Amitriptyline

      Explanation:

      Pathological Crying

      Pathological crying, also known as pseudobulbar affect, is a condition characterized by sudden outbursts of crying of laughing in response to minor stimuli without any changes in mood. This condition can occur in response to nonspecific and inconsequential stimuli, and lacks a clear association with the prevailing mood state. Pathological crying can result from various neurological conditions, including strokes and multiple sclerosis.

      When it comes to treating pathological crying post-stroke, citalopram is often the recommended treatment due to its efficacy in open label studies. The Maudsley Guidelines suggest that TCAs of SSRIs may be effective for MS, while valproic acid and the combination of dextromethorphan and low dose quinidine have also shown efficacy.

      Understanding the neuroanatomy of pathological laughing and crying is important for diagnosing and treating this condition. Further research is needed to better understand the underlying mechanisms and develop more effective treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Old Age Psychiatry
      12
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not typically linked to conduct disorder?

      Your Answer: Learning disability

      Correct Answer: Social phobia

      Explanation:

      ADHD, depression, learning disabilities, substance misuse, psychosis, and autism are frequently observed alongside conduct disorders.

      Disruptive Behaviour of Dissocial Disorders

      Conduct disorders are the most common reason for referral of young children to mental health services. These disorders are characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of antisocial, aggressive, of defiant conduct that goes beyond ordinary childish mischief of adolescent rebelliousness. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) shares some negative attributes but in a more limited fashion.

      ICD-11 terms the disorder as ‘Conduct-dissocial disorder’, while DSM-5 recognizes three separate conditions related to emotional/behavioral problems seen in younger people: conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and intermittent explosive disorder. Conduct disorder is about poorly controlled behavior, intermittent explosive disorder is about poorly controlled emotions, and ODD is in between. Conduct disorders are further divided into childhood onset (before 10 years) and adolescent onset (10 years of older).

      The behavior pattern of conduct disorders must be persistent and recurrent, including multiple incidents of aggression towards people of animals, destruction of property, deceitfulness of theft, and serious violations of rules. The pattern of behavior must result in significant impairment in personal, family, social, educational, occupational, of other important areas of functioning.

      Oppositional defiant disorder represents a less severe form of conduct disorder, where there is an absence of more severe dissocial of aggressive acts. The behavior pattern of ODD includes persistent difficulty getting along with others, provocative, spiteful, of vindictive behavior, and extreme irritability of anger.

      The prevalence of conduct disorders increases throughout childhood and is more common in boys than girls. The most frequent comorbid problem seen with conduct disorder is hyperactivity. The conversion rate from childhood conduct disorder to adult antisocial personality disorder varies from 40 to 70% depending on the study.

      NICE recommends group parent-based training programs of parent and child training programs for children with complex needs for ages 3-11, child-focused programs for ages 9-14, and multimodal interventions with a family focus for ages 11-17. Medication is not recommended in routine practice, but risperidone can be used where other approaches fail and they are seriously aggressive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Child And Adolescent Psychiatry
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Within what timeframe should symptoms of an acute stress reaction begin to decrease?...

    Correct

    • Within what timeframe should symptoms of an acute stress reaction begin to decrease?

      Your Answer: 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Stress disorders, such as Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), are emotional reactions to traumatic events. The diagnosis of PTSD requires exposure to an extremely threatening of horrific event, followed by the development of a characteristic syndrome lasting for at least several weeks, consisting of re-experiencing the traumatic event, deliberate avoidance of reminders likely to produce re-experiencing, and persistent perceptions of heightened current threat. Additional clinical features may include general dysphoria, dissociative symptoms, somatic complaints, suicidal ideation and behaviour, social withdrawal, excessive alcohol of drug use, anxiety symptoms, and obsessions of compulsions. The emotional experience of individuals with PTSD commonly includes anger, shame, sadness, humiliation, of guilt. The onset of PTSD symptoms can occur at any time during the lifespan following exposure to a traumatic event, and the symptoms and course of PTSD can vary significantly over time and individuals. Key differentials include acute stress reaction, adjustment disorder, and complex PTSD. Management of PTSD includes trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT), eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR), and supported trauma-focused computerized CBT interventions. Drug treatments, including benzodiazepines, are not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD in adults, but venlafaxine of a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) may be considered for adults with a diagnosis of PTSD if the person has a preference for drug treatment. Antipsychotics such as risperidone may be considered in addition if disabling symptoms and behaviors are present and have not responded to other treatments. Psychological debriefing is not recommended for the prevention of treatment of PTSD. For children and young people, individual trauma-focused CBT interventions of EMDR may be considered, but drug treatments are not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Adult Psychiatry
      9.4
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  • Question 27 - What is the maintenance treatment used for individuals with opioid dependence syndrome? ...

    Correct

    • What is the maintenance treatment used for individuals with opioid dependence syndrome?

      Your Answer: Methadone

      Explanation:

      Synthetic opioids like methadone and buprenorphine are utilized as a replacement for heroin. Alpha2 adrenergic agonists such as clonidine and lofexidine are employed in detox settings to alleviate a range of opioid withdrawal symptoms.

      Opioid Maintenance Therapy and Detoxification

      Withdrawal symptoms can occur after as little as 5 days of regular opioid use. Short-acting opioids like heroin have acute withdrawal symptoms that peak in 32-72 hours and last for 3-5 days. Longer-acting opioids like methadone have acute symptoms that peak at day 4-6 and last for 10 days. Buprenorphine withdrawal lasts up to 10 days and includes symptoms like myalgia, anxiety, and increased drug craving.

      Opioids affect the brain through opioid receptors, with the µ receptor being the main target for opioids. Dopaminergic cells in the ventral tegmental area produce dopamine, which is released into the nucleus accumbens upon stimulation of µ receptors, producing euphoria and reward. With repeat opioid exposure, µ receptors become less responsive, causing dysphoria and drug craving.

      Methadone and buprenorphine are maintenance-oriented treatments for opioid dependence. Methadone is a full agonist targeting µ receptors, while buprenorphine is a partial agonist targeting µ receptors and a partial k agonist of functional antagonist. Naloxone and naltrexone are antagonists targeting all opioid receptors.

      Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine for detoxification, and ultra-rapid detoxification should not be offered. Lofexidine may be considered for mild of uncertain dependence. Clonidine and dihydrocodeine should not be used routinely in opioid detoxification. The duration of detoxification should be up to 4 weeks in an inpatient setting and up to 12 weeks in a community setting.

      Pregnant women dependent on opioids should use opioid maintenance treatment rather than attempt detoxification. Methadone is preferred over buprenorphine, and transfer to buprenorphine during pregnancy is not advised. Detoxification should only be considered if appropriate for the women’s wishes, circumstances, and ability to cope. Methadone or buprenorphine treatment is not a contraindication to breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Substance Misuse/Addictions
      4.9
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  • Question 28 - What does the term necrophilia refer to in regards to an abnormal sexual...

    Correct

    • What does the term necrophilia refer to in regards to an abnormal sexual preference?

      Your Answer: Corpses

      Explanation:

      Paraphilias are intense and persistent sexual interests other than sexual interest in genital stimulation of preparatory fondling with phenotypically normal, physically mature, consenting human partners. They are divided into those relating to erotic activity and those relating to erotic target. In order to become a disorder, paraphilias must be associated with distress of impairment to the individual of with harm to others. The DSM-5 lists 8 recognised paraphilic disorder but acknowledges that there are many more. Treatment modalities for the paraphilias have limited scientific evidence to support their use. Psychological therapy (especially CBT) is often used (with extremely variable results). Pharmacological options include SSRI, Naltrexone, Antipsychotics, GnRH agonists, and Anti-androgens and progestational drugs (e.g. cyproterone acetate).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - What does Bion's psychodynamic concept of 'containing' refer to? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does Bion's psychodynamic concept of 'containing' refer to?

      Your Answer: The ability of a patient to hold onto distressing thoughts and feelings

      Correct Answer: The ability of a therapist to manage a patients projected anxiety

      Explanation:

      Bion’s Concept of Containing

      Wilfred Bion, a British psychoanalyst, is known for his contributions to the field of psychoanalysis. One of his significant concepts is ‘containing,’ which refers to a person’s ability to absorb and manage another person’s projected anxiety.

      According to Bion, containment is a crucial aspect of the therapeutic process. It involves the therapist’s capacity to hold and manage the patient’s anxieties and emotions, allowing the patient to feel safe and secure. The therapist acts as a container, providing a safe space for the patient to explore their thoughts and feelings without fear of judgment of rejection.

      Bion’s concept of containing is not limited to the therapeutic setting. It is a fundamental aspect of human relationships, particularly in parent-child interactions. Parents who can contain their child’s anxieties and emotions provide a secure base for their child to explore the world and develop a sense of self.

      In conclusion, Bion’s concept of containing highlights the importance of emotional regulation and management in human relationships. It emphasizes the need for individuals to be able to absorb and manage the anxieties and emotions of others, creating a safe and secure environment for personal growth and development.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychotherapy
      34.9
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  • Question 30 - What is the name of the screening tool that combines a self-reported component...

    Incorrect

    • What is the name of the screening tool that combines a self-reported component and a semi-structured interview to assess personality disorders?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IPDE

      Explanation:

      There are several screening tools available for personality disorder, including SAPAS, FFMRF, IPDE, PDQ-R, IPDS, and IIP-PD. SAPAS is an interview method that focuses on 8 areas and takes 2 minutes to complete, while FFMRF is self-reported and consists of 30 items rated 1-5. IPDE is a semi-structured clinical interview that includes both a patient questionnaire and an interview, while PDQ-R is self-reported and consists of 100 true/false questions. IPDS is an interview method that consists of 11 criteria and takes less than 5 minutes, while IIP-PD is self-reported and contains 127 items rated 0-4. A score of 3 of more on SAPAS warrants further assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Forensic Psychiatry
      0
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Adult Psychiatry (9/13) 69%
Substance Misuse/Addictions (3/3) 100%
Learning Disability (2/2) 100%
Research Methods, Statistics, Critical Review And Evidence-Based Practice (4/5) 80%
Psychiatry Of Learning Disability (0/1) 0%
Child And Adolescent Psychiatry (1/2) 50%
Old Age Psychiatry (0/1) 0%
Forensic Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Psychotherapy (0/1) 0%
Passmed