00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18...

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department following taking approximately 18 paracetamol tablets three hours earlier. She had a row with her husband and took the tablets as she was angry and upset. She called her husband after she took the tablets, who rang for an ambulance.
      This is the first time she has ever done anything like this, and she regrets the fact that she did it. She is currently studying at university, and only drinks recreationally. She is normally fit and well and has no history of mental health conditions.
      Which of the following factors are associated with increased risk of a further suicide attempt in someone who has already made a suicide attempt?

      Your Answer: Alcohol or drug abuse, history of violence and single, divorced or separated

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Repeated Suicide Attempts

      Individuals who have previously attempted suicide are at an increased risk of making another attempt. Factors that contribute to this risk include a history of previous attempts, personality disorders, alcohol or drug abuse, previous psychiatric treatment, unemployment, lower social class, criminal record, history of violence, and being between the ages of 25 and 54, as well as being single, divorced, or separated. Rates of further suicide attempts in the year following an attempt are high, ranging from 15 to 25 percent. However, being married or having short stature does not appear to be a significant risk factor for repeated suicide attempts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      37.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation....

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old Asian woman presents with sudden onset paranoid thoughts and suicidal ideation. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and hypercholesterolemia. Given her age and first episode of psychosis, what crucial investigation is necessary to rule out other potential underlying causes?

      Your Answer: CT head

      Explanation:

      When elderly patients present with sudden onset psychosis, it is important to consider and rule out organic causes before attributing it to a primary psychotic disorder. In such cases, a CT head scan or even an MRI should be considered to detect any underlying organic causes such as a brain tumour, stroke or CNS infection. While HbA1c is typically used to assess diabetes control, PET scans are more commonly used to provide detailed information about metabolic processes in tissues, such as identifying active cancer cells. Chest X-rays may also be useful in certain cases.

      Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman goes to her GP to discuss symptoms she believes are...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman goes to her GP to discuss symptoms she believes are related to a diagnosis of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). She has been struggling with these symptoms for a few years, but they have worsened in recent months since she started working as a janitor. She experiences intrusive and persistent thoughts about germs, which lead her to repeatedly wash her hands, clothes, and clean her home. Her partner is worried about her, and they argue when he tries to encourage her to resist the urge to clean, as this exacerbates her anxiety symptoms. Which medication is approved for treating OCD?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      Medications for OCD: A Comparison of Sertraline, Venlafaxine, Citalopram, Diazepam, and Imipramine

      Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a mental health condition characterized by intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends cognitive behavioral therapy with exposure response therapy and/or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) for managing OCD. Sertraline is an SSRI that is licensed for treating OCD. Venlafaxine, a serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor (SNRI), is not licensed for OCD treatment. Citalopram, another SSRI, is licensed for depression or panic disorder but not for OCD. Diazepam, a benzodiazepine, is not licensed for OCD treatment due to the risk of dependence or tolerance. Imipramine, a tricyclic antidepressant, is also not licensed for OCD treatment. The choice of medication or therapy should be based on the severity of symptoms and patient preferences.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      22.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of severe dyspareunia and loss of libido that has been ongoing for the past year. She has already been evaluated by a gynaecologist and discharged as all her tests were normal. She has undergone a pelvic ultrasound, laparoscopy, and blood tests for LH/FSH and TFTs, as well as low vaginal and endocervical swabs. She reports no symptoms of depression or anxiety and maintains a healthy lifestyle with regular exercise, good sleep, and a balanced diet. She denies any substance abuse. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer for psychosexual counselling

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Female Sexual Dysfunction

      Psychosexual counselling, cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT), combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants are all potential treatment options for female sexual dysfunction. However, each option should be carefully considered based on the individual’s symptoms and medical history.

      Psychosexual counselling is recommended when there are no physical causes for sexual difficulties. CBT may be appropriate for patients displaying signs of anxiety or depression. The COCP may worsen poor libido and is not without risks. HRT is not indicated for non-menopausal patients. SSRIs can cause loss of libido and are not recommended unless there are symptoms of depression. It is important to discuss all options with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      75.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 20-year-old woman is brought to your clinic by her parents due to...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old woman is brought to your clinic by her parents due to concerns about her weight loss (her BMI has dropped from 21 to 18.5 in the past year). You have seen her before and have ruled out any physical causes for her weight loss. When you inquire about purging behaviors, such as self-induced vomiting, she becomes defensive, but you notice that her tooth enamel is eroded. She admits to feeling overweight and has been experiencing low mood for several months, finding little pleasure in anything except for when she indulges in too much chocolate and bread. However, she feels even more disgusted with herself afterwards. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for her condition?

      Your Answer: Bulimia nervosa

      Explanation:

      Understanding Eating Disorders: Bulimia Nervosa and Anorexia Nervosa

      Eating disorders are complex mental health conditions that can have serious physical and emotional consequences. Two common types of eating disorders are bulimia nervosa and anorexia nervosa.

      Bulimia nervosa is characterized by episodes of binge eating, followed by purging behaviors such as vomiting, laxative abuse, or excessive exercise. People with bulimia often feel a loss of control during binge episodes and experience intense guilt afterwards. They may also engage in periods of dietary restraint and have a preoccupation with body weight and shape. Bulimia is more common in women and can cause dental problems, electrolyte imbalances, and other medical complications.

      Anorexia nervosa involves deliberate weight loss to a low weight, often through restricted eating and excessive exercise. People with anorexia have a fear of gaining weight and a distorted body image, leading to a preoccupation with food and weight. Anorexia can cause severe malnutrition and medical complications such as osteoporosis, heart problems, and hormonal imbalances.

      It is important to seek professional help if you or someone you know is struggling with an eating disorder. Treatment may involve therapy, medication, and nutritional counseling to address the physical and psychological aspects of the condition. With proper care, recovery from an eating disorder is possible.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      88.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after his partner reported he ingested multiple tablets of paracetamol after an argument. The patient is currently medically stable and can give a history to the attending emergency physician. He reports that he regrets taking the tablets and that this is the first time he has committed such an act. He claims that he acted in a moment of anger after the argument and never planned for this to happen. He suffers from moderate depression which has been managed by his general practitioner with sertraline. He consumes a moderate amount of alcohol and denies any abuse of recreational drugs. He has no family history of mental illness.
      Which one of the following is an important dynamic risk factor to consider when managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Self-harm plans

      Explanation:

      Understanding Static and Dynamic Risk Factors for Suicide Risk Assessment

      Suicide risk assessment involves evaluating both static and dynamic risk factors. Static risk factors, such as age, sex, and previous history of self-harm, cannot be changed. Dynamic risk factors, such as drug use, self-harm plans, and income/employment status, can potentially be modified to reduce future risk of suicide.

      Having a well-thought-out plan for self-harm is a major risk factor for suicide. Asking patients about their suicide plans can identify those at highest risk and allow for early intervention. Self-harm plans are a dynamic risk factor that can be acted upon to mitigate future risk of suicide.

      A history of drug abuse and alcohol misuse are static risk factors for suicide. While interventions are available to manage current drug and alcohol misuse, a history of misuse cannot be modified.

      A history of self-harm is also a risk factor for suicide, as individuals who have previously attempted suicide are more likely to do so in the future. However, a history of self-harm is a static risk factor and should not be considered a dynamic risk factor for suicide risk assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      78.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old male has been admitted to the in-patient psychiatric unit. Upon review this morning, he appears to be a poor historian, providing minimal answers and insisting that he is deceased and does not belong in a hospital meant for the living. What is the specific name of this delusional disorder and with which condition is it typically linked?

      Your Answer: Cotard syndrome and Major Depressive Disorder

      Explanation:

      Severe depression is often linked to Cotard syndrome, a rare form of nihilistic delusions where individuals believe they are dead or non-existent. This condition can also be observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental disorder that is characterized by the belief that the affected person or a part of their body is dead or non-existent. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders, making it difficult to treat. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is unnecessary, leading to significant health problems.

      The delusion experienced by those with Cotard syndrome can be challenging to manage, and it can have a significant impact on their quality of life. The condition is often accompanied by feelings of hopelessness and despair, which can make it challenging for patients to seek help. Treatment for Cotard syndrome typically involves a combination of medication and therapy, but it can take time to find an effective approach.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      30.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to his GP by his partner who is concerned he may have developed bipolar disorder over the last few months.
      The man experiences periods of elevated mood, where he spends a lot of money and sleeps very little. He denies having any delusions of grandeur. These episodes usually last for a few days, and he has never put himself or others in danger.
      The man also has episodes of severe depression, where he feels suicidal, loses interest in his hobbies, and sleeps excessively. He is referred to a psychiatrist for further evaluation.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Type 2 bipolar disorder

      Explanation:

      The woman’s alternating episodes of hypomania and severe depression suggest that she has type 2 bipolar disorder. There are no indications of an anxiety disorder, and the severity of her symptoms is not consistent with cyclothymia. Major depressive disorder is also not a likely diagnosis, as she experiences ‘highs’ consistent with hypomania. Type 1 bipolar disorder is also unlikely, as her ‘high’ periods are more in line with hypomania rather than full-blown mania.

      Understanding Bipolar Disorder

      Bipolar disorder is a mental health condition that is characterized by alternating periods of mania/hypomania and depression. It typically develops in the late teen years and has a lifetime prevalence of 2%. There are two recognized types of bipolar disorder: type I, which involves mania and depression, and type II, which involves hypomania and depression.

      Mania and hypomania both refer to abnormally elevated mood or irritability, but mania is more severe and can include psychotic symptoms for 7 days or more. Hypomania, on the other hand, involves decreased or increased function for 4 days or more. The presence of psychotic symptoms suggests mania.

      Management of bipolar disorder may involve psychological interventions specifically designed for the condition, as well as medication. Lithium is the mood stabilizer of choice, but valproate can also be used. Antipsychotic therapy, such as olanzapine or haloperidol, may be used to manage mania/hypomania, while fluoxetine is the antidepressant of choice for depression. It is important to address any co-morbidities, as there is an increased risk of diabetes, cardiovascular disease, and COPD in individuals with bipolar disorder.

      If symptoms suggest hypomania, routine referral to the community mental health team (CMHT) is recommended. However, if there are features of mania or severe depression, an urgent referral to the CMHT should be made. Understanding bipolar disorder and its management is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support for individuals with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      33.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling down for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to see his doctor complaining of feeling down for the past two weeks. He has been having nightmares and difficulty sleeping. These symptoms started after he was violently robbed outside of his workplace. He has been avoiding going to work and often feels disconnected from reality.
      What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      Acute stress disorder is a type of acute stress reaction that occurs within the first 4 weeks after a person experiences a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is different from PTSD, which is diagnosed after 4 weeks. The symptoms of acute stress disorder are similar to PTSD, including intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. Generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, and phobic disorder are not the same as acute stress disorder and have their own distinct characteristics.

      Acute stress disorder is a condition that occurs within the first four weeks after a person has experienced a traumatic event, such as a life-threatening situation or sexual assault. It is characterized by symptoms such as intrusive thoughts, dissociation, negative mood, avoidance, and arousal. These symptoms can include flashbacks, nightmares, feeling disconnected from reality, and being hypervigilant.

      To manage acute stress disorder, trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) is typically the first-line treatment. This type of therapy helps individuals process their traumatic experiences and develop coping strategies. In some cases, benzodiazepines may be used to alleviate acute symptoms such as agitation and sleep disturbance. However, caution must be taken when using these medications due to their addictive potential and potential negative impact on adaptation. Overall, early intervention and appropriate treatment can help individuals recover from acute stress disorder and prevent the development of more chronic conditions such as PTSD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      75.1
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - As you explore non-pharmacological treatments for different mental health conditions during your psychiatry...

    Correct

    • As you explore non-pharmacological treatments for different mental health conditions during your psychiatry rotation, you come across electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). Which of the following mental health conditions can be treated and managed using ECT?

      Your Answer: Catatonia

      Explanation:

      The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a treatment option for certain mental health conditions. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends ECT for severe depression, catatonia, and prolonged or severe mania, but only if the condition is potentially life-threatening and other treatments have proved ineffective. ECT involves attaching electrodes to the scalp and passing an electrical current through to induce a seizure, which is performed under general anaesthesia. The mechanism of action involved in ECT is still not fully understood, but it is thought to cause a neurotransmitter release that improves symptoms. However, ECT can have side-effects such as memory impairment, headache, confusion, and muscle pains. It is not recommended for moderate depression, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD), anxiety, or severe dementia.

      The Use of Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT) in Mental Health: Conditions and Recommendations

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      18.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Psychiatry (10/10) 100%
Passmed