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  • Question 1 - A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner, having developed sudden-onset weakness and numbness in her left arm and leg while exercising. She takes the combined oral contraceptive pill. No other risk factors for stroke are identified.
      On examination, she exhibits mild pyramidal weakness on the left side of her face, arm and leg. Left-sided hemisensory loss is also present, as well as left homonymous hemianopia and left-sided inattention.
      She is admitted to hospital for further testing. A brain computed tomography (CT) scan and diffusion-weighted magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) show a recent, single infarction in the territory of the right middle cerebral artery.
      What is the most likely cause for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis

      Correct Answer: Dissection of the right carotid artery

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a patient with total anterior cerebral syndrome

      Explanation:

      A patient presenting with total anterior cerebral syndrome, which includes left-sided weakness, hemisensory loss, and homonymous hemianopia, may have various underlying causes. One possibility is a spontaneous or minimally provoked cervical vascular dissection, which can affect the internal carotid and its middle cerebral branch. Although two-thirds of patients with this condition experience head or neck pain at onset, some do not, as in this case. Horner syndrome may also occur. Anticoagulation may be necessary, and specialist investigation and management are required.

      Another potential cause is an inherited thromboembolic disorder, which is more likely to manifest as venous thrombosis, such as deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism, rather than arterial ischaemic stroke. Women of childbearing age with this condition may also have recurrent miscarriages.

      Cardioembolism from an atrial septal defect is possible, especially if the ischaemic event occurs during exercise and is precipitated by a Valsalva manoeuvre. However, if exercise provokes the event, arterial dissection is more likely.

      Dissection of the vertebral artery is less common than that of the right carotid artery but can also cause a posterior circulation infarct.

      Finally, a thromboembolic disorder secondary to carotid atherosclerosis, which is more prevalent in older patients with other cardiovascular risk factors, can also lead to ischaemic stroke in a similar distribution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      168.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 16-year-old girl comes in with a complaint of a sore throat. She...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old girl comes in with a complaint of a sore throat. She reports no cough, has a temperature of 38.4ºC, and her tonsils are enlarged with white exudate. What is the fourth component of the Centor criteria?

      Your Answer: Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy

      Explanation:

      The Centor criteria consist of a patient’s fever history, the existence of tonsillar exudate, the lack of a cough, and the presence of tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. None of the other options are included in this assessment.

      Management of Sore Throat

      Sore throat is a common condition that includes pharyngitis, tonsillitis, and laryngitis. Routine throat swabs and rapid antigen tests are not recommended for patients with a sore throat. Pain relief can be achieved with paracetamol or ibuprofen, and antibiotics are not usually necessary. However, antibiotics may be indicated for patients with marked systemic upset, unilateral peritonsillitis, a history of rheumatic fever, an increased risk from acute infection, or when 3 or more Centor criteria are present. The Centor criteria and FeverPAIN criteria can be used to determine the likelihood of isolating Streptococci. If antibiotics are necessary, phenoxymethylpenicillin or clarithromycin can be given for a 7 or 10 day course. There is some evidence that a single dose of oral corticosteroid may reduce the severity and duration of pain, but this has not yet been incorporated into UK guidelines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      101.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of severe pain and redness in his big toe. He appears to be in good health and there are no signs of infection or fever. He reports a history of gout and suspects that it has returned. He is currently on a regular dose of allopurinol. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Stop allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol and commence colchicine

      Explanation:

      Patients with an acute flare of gout who are already on allopurinol treatment should not discontinue it during the attack, as per the current NICE CKS guidance. Colchicine is a suitable option for acute gout treatment, and oral steroids can be used if colchicine or NSAIDs are not tolerated. Hospital review on the same day is not necessary unless there are red flag features or evidence of a septic joint. Aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment.

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      77.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old comes in with back pain that radiates to the left leg. The patient reports decreased sensation over the lateral aspect of the left calf and lateral foot. Which nerve roots are likely affected in this case?

      Your Answer: L5-S1

      Correct Answer: S1-S2

      Explanation:

      Understanding L5 and S1 Radiculopathy

      L5 radiculopathy is the most common type of radiculopathy that affects the lumbosacral spine. It is characterized by back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg and into the foot. On the other hand, S1 radiculopathy presents with pain that radiates down the posterior aspect of the leg and into the foot from the back.

      When examining a patient with L5 radiculopathy, weakness may be observed in leg extension (gluteus maximus), foot eversion, plantar flexion, and toe flexion. Sensation is also reduced on the lateral foot and posterior aspect of the leg. Meanwhile, patients with S1 radiculopathy may exhibit weakness in foot plantar flexion and toe flexion. Sensation is generally reduced on the posterior aspect of the leg and the lateral foot.

      Understanding the differences between L5 and S1 radiculopathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions. Proper diagnosis and management can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      40.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman who has been receiving regular haemodialysis at the local General Hospital dies suddenly. On reviewing her regular medications, you note that she was taking aspirin, a statin and three antihypertensive agents. She had also been receiving erythropoietin injections.
      What is the most likely cause of sudden death in this patient?

      Your Answer: Overwhelming sepsis

      Correct Answer: Cardiovascular disease

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Sudden Death in Patients Undergoing Renal Dialysis

      Patients undergoing renal dialysis are at a high risk of cardiovascular disease, which is the leading cause of death in this population. Chronic renal failure leads to several risk factors, such as abnormal lipid levels and hypertension, that contribute to the development of cardiovascular disease. Statins and antihypertensive medications are commonly prescribed to manage these risk factors. Aspirin may also be prescribed to prevent vascular events, although it increases the risk of gastrointestinal bleeding.

      Although patients on dialysis are also at an increased risk of malignancies and pulmonary embolism, sudden death due to these causes is less common than sudden death due to cardiovascular failure. Occult malignancy and overwhelming sepsis are usually preceded by symptoms of illness, whereas sudden death is unexpected. Pulmonary embolism may occur in patients with multiple risk factors, but cardiovascular disease is a more likely cause of death in this context.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      34
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 60-year-old woman has a deep aching pain in the right outer thigh...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman has a deep aching pain in the right outer thigh and hip area that has been present for a month and is getting worse. It is worse on exercise and when she lies on it. She is locally tender over the greater trochanter of the femur.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome

      Explanation:

      Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, also known as trochanteric bursitis, was previously thought to be caused by an inflamed bursa over the greater trochanter. However, it is now understood to be due to minor tears or damage to nearby muscles, tendons, or fascia, with an inflamed bursa being a less common cause. Common causes include injury, repetitive movements, or prolonged excessive pressure. Diagnosis is typically made through history and examination, with a positive Trendelenburg test indicating a dip in the pelvis when lifting the unaffected leg. Treatment options include analgesics, physiotherapy to strengthen muscles, and corticosteroid injection. Other potential causes of hip pain include entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve, fracture of the neck of the femur, osteoarthritis of the hip, and sciatica, each with their own distinct symptoms and diagnostic tests.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      112
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old gentleman makes an appointment to discuss prostate specific antigen (PSA) testing. A colleague at work was recently diagnosed with prostate cancer which has prompted him to make this appointment.

      He reports no problems passing urine and detailed questioning reveals no lower urinary tract symptoms and no history of haematuria or erectile dysfunction. He is currently well with no other specific complaints. He has one brother who is 65 and his father is still alive aged 86. There is no family history of prostate cancer.

      He is very keen to have a PSA blood test performed as his work colleague's diagnosis has made him anxious.

      Which of the following is appropriate advice to give the patient?

      Your Answer: PSA testing is recommended to all men over the age of 60 as a screening tool for prostate cancer and so he should have a PSA performed

      Correct Answer: He should have a digital rectal examination (DRE) and only if abnormal be offered PSA testing

      Explanation:

      PSA Testing in Asymptomatic Men: Pros and Cons

      PSA testing in asymptomatic men is a controversial issue, with some advocating for it as a screening test and others wary of overtreatment and patient harm. The limitations of PSA testing in terms of sensitivity and specificity, as well as the inability to distinguish between slow and fast-growing cancers, are major points of debate.

      Currently, PSA testing is not recommended as a screening test for prostate cancer in men of any age. However, it should be offered to men who present with lower urinary tract symptoms, haematuria, or erectile dysfunction. For asymptomatic men with no family history of prostate cancer, it is important to discuss the pros and cons of the test and allow the patient to make their own decision.

      Digital rectal examination (DRE) should also be offered, and advice given on the combined use of DRE and PSA testing to detect any prostate abnormalities. If a focal abnormality suggestive of cancer is found during DRE, this alone should prompt referral, and a PSA test should be performed but would not alter the decision to refer. Similarly, an abnormal PSA with a normal DRE should also prompt referral. A normal DRE doesn’t mean that PSA testing is necessarily unwarranted.

      Family history of prostate cancer is an important factor to consider, with the risk of prostate cancer being higher in men with a family history of the disease. The patient should be counselled about the relevance of family history as part of their decision to have a PSA test. Overall, the decision to undergo PSA testing should be made on an individual basis, taking into account the potential benefits and risks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      205.1
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her last two Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman visits her doctor after missing her last two Microgynon 30 pills, which she has been taking for the past 4 years. She is currently 11 days into a new packet of pills and had not missed any prior to this. During intercourse with a new partner last night, the condom broke. What is the appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: No action needed

      Correct Answer: Advise condom use for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      The FSRH has updated its guidance on missed contraceptive pills. If a woman misses two or more pills, she should continue taking the rest of the pack as usual and use an additional form of contraception for the next seven days. Condoms should be used or sexual activity avoided until seven consecutive active pills have been taken. This advice may be overly cautious in the second and third weeks, but it serves as a backup in case more pills are missed. If the woman has a new partner, it is recommended to consider STI screening after a suitable period. For more information, refer to the FSRH guidelines.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      69
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35-year-old patient is evaluated after starting orlistat for weight management. Her initial...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient is evaluated after starting orlistat for weight management. Her initial weight was 85kg and now it is 78kg, indicating an 8.2% weight loss. As per the 2014 NICE Guidelines, what is the minimum percentage of weight loss that is considered acceptable for patients to continue orlistat therapy after three months?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5%

      Explanation:

      The recommended dosage for orlistat is 120 mg three times a day with meals, for patients with a BMI of 30 or higher, or a BMI of 27 or higher with other risk factors such as high blood pressure or diabetes. However, the guidelines suggest that a lower target could be considered for patients with type 2 diabetes. It is important to note that orlistat can also be bought without a prescription.

      Obesity can be managed through a stepwise approach that includes conservative, medical, and surgical options. The first step is usually conservative, which involves implementing changes in diet and exercise. If this is not effective, medical options such as Orlistat may be considered. Orlistat is a pancreatic lipase inhibitor that is used to treat obesity. However, it can cause adverse effects such as faecal urgency/incontinence and flatulence. A lower dose version of Orlistat is now available without prescription, known as ‘Alli’. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has defined criteria for the use of Orlistat. It should only be prescribed as part of an overall plan for managing obesity in adults who have a BMI of 28 kg/m^2 or more with associated risk factors, or a BMI of 30 kg/m^2 or more, and continued weight loss of at least 5% at 3 months. Orlistat is typically used for less than one year.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man with a history of smoking, obesity, prediabetes, and high cholesterol visits his GP complaining of chest pains that occur during physical activity or climbing stairs to his office. The pain is crushing in nature and subsides with rest. The patient is currently taking atorvastatin 20 mg and aspirin 75 mg daily. He has no chest pains at the time of the visit and is otherwise feeling well. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities. The GP prescribes a GTN spray for the chest pains and refers the patient to the rapid access chest pain clinic.

      What other medication should be considered in addition to the GTN?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol

      Explanation:

      For the patient with stable angina, it is recommended to use a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as the first-line treatment to prevent angina attacks. In this case, a cardioselective beta-blocker like bisoprolol or atenolol, or a rate-limiting calcium channel blocker such as verapamil or diltiazem should be considered while waiting for chest clinic assessment.

      As the patient is already taking aspirin 75 mg daily, there is no need to prescribe dual antiplatelet therapy. Aspirin is the preferred antiplatelet for stable angina.

      Since the patient is already taking atorvastatin, a fibrate like ezetimibe may not be necessary for lipid modification. However, if cholesterol levels or cardiovascular risk remain high, increasing the atorvastatin dose or encouraging positive lifestyle interventions like weight loss and smoking cessation can be helpful.

      It is important to note that nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, is not recommended as the first-line treatment for angina management as it has limited negative inotropic effects. It can be used in combination with a beta-blocker if monotherapy is insufficient for symptom control.

      Angina pectoris can be managed through lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. NICE recommends using either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker as first-line treatment, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker like amlodipine or modified-release nifedipine should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If initial treatment is ineffective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, long-acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

      Nitrate tolerance is a common issue for patients who take nitrates, leading to reduced efficacy. NICE advises patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate to use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. However, this effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (0/1) 0%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal Health (1/3) 33%
Kidney And Urology (0/2) 0%
Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/1) 0%
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