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  • Question 1 - A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor after coming back from a weekend getaway....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor after coming back from a weekend getaway. She explains that she left her combined oral contraceptive pills behind, resulting in her missing the pill for the past 2 days. She has not engaged in any sexual activity during this period and is currently in the third week of her pill pack.
      What would be the most appropriate guidance to provide?

      Your Answer: Take an active pill and continue with the upcoming pill-free interval

      Correct Answer: Take an active pill and omit the upcoming pill-free interval

      Explanation:

      If two combined oral contraceptive pills (COCPs) are missed in week three, the woman should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and immediately start a new pack without taking the pill-free interval. It is important to note that contraceptive protection may be reduced during this time. Seeking emergency contraception is not necessary if there has been no unprotected sexual intercourse during the period of missed pills. Simply taking an active pill and continuing with the upcoming pill-free interval is not sufficient as the woman has likely lost contraceptive protection during the missed pill days. Taking an active pill as soon as possible without exercising caution is also not recommended as the woman may have reduced contraceptive protection.

      Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.

      However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.

      If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 2 - A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first pregnancy, visits the clinic to inquire about Down's syndrome screening. She failed to attend her screening appointment at 12 weeks pregnant and is curious if she can still undergo the combined test.
      What guidance would you provide to her?

      Your Answer: The combined test can still be offered

      Explanation:

      Screening for Down’s syndrome, which involves the nuchal scan, is conducted during antenatal care at 11-13+6 weeks. The combined test, which also includes the nuchal scan, is performed during this time frame. However, if the patient prefers to undergo the screening at a later stage of pregnancy, they can opt for the triple or quadruple test between 15 and 20 weeks.

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner has tested positive for Chlamydia and she needs treatment as a contact. The doctor prescribes a single dose of azithromycin 1g and screens her for infection. When is it appropriate to conduct a test of cure (TOC)?

      Your Answer: 4 weeks

      Correct Answer: 6 weeks

      Explanation:

      For symptomatic men with Chlamydia, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. As for women and asymptomatic men, all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent partner should be notified. Pregnant women should undergo a test of cure (TOC) 6 weeks after infection, according to BASHH guidelines. Performing a TOC earlier than 6 weeks may result in a false positive due to the presence of nonviable Chlamydia DNA on the NAAT. However, uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in men and non-pregnant women does not require a routine TOC.

      Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.

      Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.

      Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman has a Nexplanon implanted on day 20 of her 30 day cycle. When can she trust the Nexplanon to prevent pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Immediately

      Correct Answer: After 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.

      What recommendations should be given to this patient?

      Your Answer: She should not breastfeed

      Explanation:

      In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.

      HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission

      With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.

      To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.

      The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.

      Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation as she and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation as she and her male partner have not become pregnant after 24 months of trying to conceive. Her ovarian reserve is normal and pelvic examination is normal. She has no other medical problems and is not on any medication. Her male partner has also had normal investigations and has had no other sexual partners.
      What investigation should be arranged for this patient in primary care?

      Your Answer: Screen for anti-sperm antibodies

      Correct Answer: Test for chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: Which Tests are Necessary?

      Testing for chlamydia is an important part of the initial screening investigations for primary infertility, according to The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance. This test should be carried out in primary care prior to referring the couple to secondary care fertility services. On the other hand, screening for gonorrhoea does not form part of these investigations, as it does not tend to affect a patient’s ability to conceive and does not usually remain asymptomatic in affected individuals. Anti-sperm antibodies can be used in secondary care as part of the investigation for couples who are struggling to conceive. However, it would not usually be done in primary care. The NICE guidance on fertility management in men advises that couples who have been trying to conceive after one year of regular intercourse should be referred to fertility services. Watching and waiting would not be appropriate in this situation, as the couple has been trying to conceive for 24 months. Finally, a testicular biopsy is indicated for investigation of potential testicular carcinoma or for sperm retrieval for in-vitro fertilisation procedures. This patient has a normal testicular examination and there is no indication for a testicular biopsy at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on day 10 of her menstrual cycle. She has not engaged in sexual activity since her last period. What is the duration required before it can be considered a reliable contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 8 - A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman presents to your clinic seeking emergency contraception after forgetting to take 2 doses of her regular contraceptive pill. She reports engaging in sexual activity approximately 48 hours ago. Her medical history includes eczema and severe asthma. Although she missed her pill, she is hesitant to switch to a different form of contraception as she typically has no issues with her current pill but simply forgot to bring it with her while staying at her boyfriend's for the weekend. What is the most suitable emergency contraception option to suggest to her?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine device

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel is the correct choice, as the patient has expressed reluctance to try a different form of contraception. It is important to prioritize pregnancy prevention while also discussing the benefits of long-acting reversible contraception and allowing the patient time to consider it. While ulipristal and levonorgestrel are both oral options, ulipristal should be used cautiously in patients with severe asthma. As the patient is still within the 72-hour window for levonorgestrel use and has missed two doses of her oral contraceptive pill, levonorgestrel is the preferred option.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 9 - What is the failure rate of male sterilization? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the failure rate of male sterilization?

      Your Answer: 1 in 300

      Correct Answer: 1 in 2,000

      Explanation:

      Vasectomy: A Simple and Effective Male Sterilisation Method

      Vasectomy is a male sterilisation method that has a failure rate of 1 per 2,000, making it more effective than female sterilisation. The procedure is simple and can be done under local anesthesia, with some cases requiring general anesthesia. After the procedure, patients can go home after a couple of hours. However, it is important to note that vasectomy does not work immediately.

      To ensure the success of the procedure, semen analysis needs to be performed twice following a vasectomy before a man can have unprotected sex. This is usually done at 12 weeks after the procedure. While vasectomy is generally safe, there are some complications that may arise, such as bruising, hematoma, infection, sperm granuloma, and chronic testicular pain. This pain affects between 5-30% of men.

      In the event that a man wishes to reverse the procedure, the success rate of vasectomy reversal is up to 55% if done within 10 years. However, the success rate drops to approximately 25% after more than 10 years. Overall, vasectomy is a simple and effective method of male sterilisation, but it is important to consider the potential complications and the need for semen analysis before engaging in unprotected sex.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 10 - A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of excessive pain during...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic complaining of excessive pain during her menstrual cycle for the past 6 months. She experiences pain 1-2 days before the onset of menstruation, which lasts throughout the cycle. Additionally, she reports pain during sexual intercourse, particularly during deep penetration. Her last menstrual period occurred 2 days ago. She has been in a monogamous relationship with her partner for 8 years, and she has never been pregnant. She does not use any form of contraception except for condoms. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange a transvaginal ultrasound scan

      Correct Answer: Refer to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for investigation, including this patient who exhibits such symptoms. While tranexamic acid is effective for menorrhagia, it is not useful for dysmenorrhoea. While a transvaginal ultrasound scan may be part of the investigation, a specialist review is more crucial, particularly for this patient who displays symptoms indicative of endometriosis, which may not be visible on an ultrasound scan. Before using the intrauterine system or combined oral contraceptive pill to treat endometriosis, a diagnosis is necessary.

      Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.

      Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is 8 weeks pregnant. 3 years prior to the pregnancy, her GP diagnosed her with stage 2 hypertension after an ambulatory reading of 150/95 mmHg. She has been taking 10mg ramipril daily to manage her blood pressure since then. Currently, her sitting blood pressure is 135/85 mmHg. What should be done in this situation?

      Your Answer: Stop ramipril and monitor blood pressure

      Correct Answer: Switch to labetalol

      Explanation:

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 12 - A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with a painless rash on her left leg that has been expanding outwardly in a circular pattern. She mentions that the rash appeared 3 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in the western part of the United States. Lyme disease is confirmed through serological testing, but doxycycline cannot be prescribed due to her pregnancy. What is the best alternative treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 13 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the clinic worried about a lump in her right breast that she discovered a few days ago. Upon examination, the lump is painless, smooth, soft, and easily movable. There is no history of breast cancer in her family. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Fibroadenoma

      Explanation:

      Breast masses are a common concern among women, and it is important to understand the possible causes to determine the appropriate course of action. Here are some of the most common causes of breast masses and their characteristics:

      Fibroadenoma: This is the most common cause of breast mass in women under 35 years old. It appears as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass ranging in size from 1 cm to 5 cm. Ultrasonography reveals a well-defined, hypoechoic, homogeneous mass 1–20 cm in diameter.

      Fat Necrosis: This is a benign inflammatory process that occurs when there is saponification of local fat. It can result from direct trauma or nodular panniculitis. The breast mass is usually firm, round, and painless, and there may be a single mass or multiple masses. It may be tender or painful in some people.

      Breast Abscess: This usually presents with localised breast oedema, erythema, warmth, and pain. There may be associated symptoms of fever, nausea, vomiting, spontaneous drainage from the mass or nipple, and a history of previous breast infection.

      Breast Cancer: Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, and pain and discomfort are typically not present. It is often first detected as an abnormality on a mammogram before it is felt by the patient or healthcare professional. If a lump is discovered, there may be a change in breast size or shape, skin dimpling or skin changes, recent nipple inversion or skin change, or nipple abnormalities.

      Lipoma: Lipomas are common benign tumors composed of mature adipocytes that typically present clinically as well-circumscribed, soft, mobile, nontender masses. The classic mammographic appearance of lipoma is a circumscribed fat-containing mass.

      It is important to note that the physical examination findings may not always be enough to determine the cause of the breast mass, and further testing may be necessary. Consultation with a healthcare professional is recommended for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 14 - A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman visits a Family Planning clinic with the intention of getting a Nexplanon implant. What adverse effect should she be informed about during counselling?

      Your Answer: Irregular menstrual bleeding

      Explanation:

      Implanon and Nexplanon are subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the progestogen hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucus. Nexplanon is the newer version and has a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It does not contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a past history of thromboembolism or migraine. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraceptive methods are required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1 to 5 of a woman’s menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs such as certain antiepileptic and rifampicin may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a method unaffected by enzyme-inducing drugs or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment.

      There are also contraindications for using these implants, such as ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained, suspicious vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Current breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, which represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Overall, these implants are a highly effective and long-acting form of contraception, but they require careful consideration of the potential risks and contraindications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 15 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you examine a fifty-five-year-old patient during an outpatient clinic visit. The patient complains of weight loss and a painless, enlarging sore on the penis that has been present for more than two months. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Penile cancer can manifest as an ulcer. The most prevalent form of penile cancer is squamous cell carcinoma, not adenocarcinoma. While stress ulcers cause abdominal pain and bleeding, they are not responsible for this presentation. Herpes outbreaks can be triggered by significant stress, but they typically cause painful lesions that heal within a week. Syphilis, caused by Treponema pallidum, can result in a painless ulcer called a chancre, but it does not cause weight loss, and the lesion usually resolves within six to eight weeks, even without treatment.

      Understanding Penile Cancer: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Penile cancer is a rare type of cancer that is typically characterized by squamous cell carcinoma. It is a condition that affects the penis and can cause a variety of symptoms, including penile lump and ulceration. There are several risk factors associated with penile cancer, including human immunodeficiency virus infection, human papillomavirus virus infection, genital warts, poor hygiene, phimosis, paraphimosis, balanitis, and age over 50.

      When it comes to treating penile cancer, there are several options available, including radiotherapy, chemotherapy, and surgery. The prognosis for penile cancer can vary depending on the stage of the cancer and the treatment options chosen. However, the overall survival rate for penile cancer is approximately 50% at 5 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 16 - Sophie, 16, has come to her doctor's office to ask for the combined...

    Correct

    • Sophie, 16, has come to her doctor's office to ask for the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). As per the guidelines of the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH), what is an absolute contraindication for the COCP?

      Your Answer: Migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      The FSRH uses a scale of 1 to 4 to categorize risk factors for contraceptive methods. A rating of 1 indicates no restrictions on use, while a rating of 4 indicates a condition that poses an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used. Migraine with aura is the only absolute contraindication among the answer options. Ratings of 2 and 3 indicate that the advantages and risks of the contraceptive method should be carefully considered and evaluated by a clinical expert.

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 17 - A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that...

    Incorrect

    • A 29 week pregnant woman presents to her GP with a rash that has developed over the past 12 hours. Upon examination, lesions indicative of chickenpox are observed. The patient's vital signs are stable and she appears to be in good health. What course of action is recommended for management?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir & VZIG

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who contract chickenpox after 20 weeks of gestation should seek medical attention immediately. This is because chickenpox can lead to serious complications such as pneumonia, hepatitis, and encephalitis. Treatment with oral aciclovir is recommended if the woman presents within 24 hours of developing the rash. Aciclovir can help reduce the duration of fever and other symptoms. Symptomatic treatment can also be used alongside aciclovir. If the chickenpox is severe, the woman should be referred to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir. Additionally, a referral to fetal medicine may be necessary due to the small risk of fetal varicella syndrome in the first 28 weeks of pregnancy. It is important to advise anyone with chickenpox to avoid contact with pregnant women and neonates until all lesions have crusted over, which usually takes about 5 days after the onset of the rash. VZIG has no therapeutic benefit once the rash has started. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Greentop guidelines for chickenpox in pregnancy.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents...

    Correct

    • A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents to the clinic with complaints of a painful right breast. During examination, her temperature is 38.5C, HR 110, the right breast appears significantly red and warm, and there is an area of fluctuance in the upper outer quadrant.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      Breast Mass Differential Diagnosis

      Breast abscesses typically present with localised breast inflammation, pain, and fever. Treatment involves antibiotics and/or incision and drainage. Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, but may present with changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lump. Fat necrosis is a benign inflammatory process that can result from trauma or surgery, and presents as a firm, painless mass. Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women aged <35 years, presenting as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass. Diffuse cystic mastopathy is characterised by cysts of varying sizes due to hormonal changes, but typically presents with multiple lumps and is not associated with inflammation. Clinical examination and biopsy may be needed to differentiate between these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea?

      Your Answer: Metoclopramide

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      Bromocriptine is used to treat galactorrhoea, not to induce it.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 29-year-old woman visits the genitourinary medicine clinic with four fleshy, pigmented lesions...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman visits the genitourinary medicine clinic with four fleshy, pigmented lesions on her vulva after starting a new relationship. What is the best initial course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Topical podophyllum

      Explanation:

      For the treatment of genital warts, topical podophyllum is recommended for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while cryotherapy is recommended for solitary, keratinised warts. Cryotherapy can also be used as an initial treatment for genital warts.

      Understanding Genital Warts

      Genital warts, also known as condylomata accuminata, are a common reason for visits to genitourinary clinics. These warts are caused by various types of the human papillomavirus (HPV), with types 6 and 11 being the most common culprits. It is important to note that HPV, particularly types 16, 18, and 33, can increase the risk of cervical cancer.

      The warts themselves are small, fleshy protrusions that are typically 2-5mm in size and may be slightly pigmented. They can cause discomfort, itching, and even bleeding. Treatment options for genital warts include topical podophyllum or cryotherapy, depending on the location and type of lesion. Topical agents are generally used for multiple, non-keratinised warts, while solitary, keratinised warts respond better to cryotherapy. Imiquimod, a topical cream, is often used as a second-line treatment. It is important to note that genital warts can be resistant to treatment, and recurrence is common. However, most anogenital HPV infections clear up on their own within 1-2 years without intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 21 - A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a non-painful, partially rigid erection. He mentions noticing it after playing at school in the morning but did not inform anyone. His mother noticed the erection while helping him get ready for his evening soccer practice. The child has no medical or surgical history and is not on any regular medications. What is the initial investigation that should be performed in this case?

      Your Answer: Clotting screen

      Correct Answer: Cavernosal blood gas

      Explanation:

      Cavernosal blood gas analysis is a crucial investigation for patients presenting with priapism. In this case, the patient has a partially erect, non-painful penis that has persisted for over 4 hours, indicating non-ischaemic priapism. This type of priapism is caused by large volume arterial inflow to the penis from trauma or congenital malformation. Confirming whether the priapism is ischaemic or non-ischaemic through cavernosal blood gas analysis is essential for appropriate management. Ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency that requires aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, while non-ischaemic priapism can be managed with observation initially. In paediatric patients, a doppler ultrasound may be a better alternative to cavernosal blood gases due to the potential trauma of the procedure.

      A CT pelvis is not recommended in this case as it would expose the child to unnecessary radiation. Instead, a doppler ultrasound can be used to investigate the arterial/venous blood flow in the penis. A clotting screen may be useful if the patient has a history of bleeding problems or a family history of haemoglobinopathies. However, it should not delay cavernosal blood gas analysis as it is crucial to confirm the type of priapism. Testicular ultrasound is not a useful imaging modality for investigating priapism. If an imaging modality is required to assess penile blood flow, a doppler ultrasound is the preferred option.

      Understanding Priapism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Priapism is a medical condition characterized by a persistent penile erection that lasts longer than four hours and is not associated with sexual stimulation. There are two types of priapism: ischaemic and non-ischaemic, each with a different pathophysiology. Ischaemic priapism is caused by impaired vasorelaxation, resulting in reduced vascular outflow and trapping of de-oxygenated blood within the corpus cavernosa. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is due to high arterial inflow, often caused by fistula formation due to congenital or traumatic mechanisms.

      Priapism can affect individuals of all ages, with a bimodal distribution of age at presentation, with peaks between 5-10 years and 20-50 years of age. The incidence of priapism has been estimated at up to 5.34 per 100,000 patient-years. There are various causes of priapism, including idiopathic, sickle cell disease or other haemoglobinopathies, erectile dysfunction medication, trauma, and drug use (both prescribed and recreational).

      Patients with priapism typically present acutely with a persistent erection lasting over four hours and pain localized to the penis. A history of haemoglobinopathy or medication use may also be present. Cavernosal blood gas analysis and Doppler or duplex ultrasonography can be used to differentiate between ischaemic and non-ischaemic priapism and assess blood flow within the penis. Treatment for ischaemic priapism is a medical emergency and includes aspiration of blood from the cavernosa, injection of a saline flush, and intracavernosal injection of a vasoconstrictive agent. Non-ischaemic priapism, on the other hand, is not a medical emergency and is usually observed as a first-line option.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 22 - A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle. When will it become a dependable form of birth control?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.

      There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.

      Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 23 - A 17-year-old girl with a history of acne is interested in starting a...

    Incorrect

    • A 17-year-old girl with a history of acne is interested in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COC). She has been taking doxycycline for the past 2 months. What advice should be given?

      Your Answer: A COC is inappropriate and an alternative method of contraception should be considered

      Correct Answer: She can start using a COC with usual advice

      Explanation:

      If the COC is not started on the first day of the next period, it is important to follow the standard guidelines and use condoms for 7 days.

      Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 31-year-old female patient, who is three weeks postpartum, presents with a breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old female patient, who is three weeks postpartum, presents with a breast lump. On examination, there is a fluctuant mass around 4 cm in diameter at the left upper quadrant adjacent to the nipple. There is overlying skin erythema and the lump is tenderness to touch. She is currently breast feeding but has been finding it very painful.
      What is the most probable causative agent for this condition?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus epidermidis

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The primary cause of breast abscess in lactational women is Staphylococcus aureus, while Candida species is not a frequent culprit. On the other hand, Group B streptococcus and Klebsiella pneumoniae are responsible for breast abscess in non-lactating women.

      Breast Abscess: Causes and Management

      Breast abscess is a condition that commonly affects lactating women, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common cause. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast. To manage the condition, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, typically using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help manage the infection.

      Breast abscess is a condition that can cause discomfort and pain in lactating women. It is caused by Staphylococcus aureus, a common bacterium that can infect the breast tissue. The condition is characterized by the presence of a tender, fluctuant mass in the breast. To manage the condition, healthcare providers may opt for either incision and drainage or needle aspiration, typically using ultrasound. Antibiotics are also prescribed to help manage the infection. Proper management of breast abscess is crucial to prevent complications and ensure a speedy recovery.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 25 - A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents with a breast lump. The lump has been present for around eight months and the patient is not sure if it has increased in size. On examination, there are no skin or nipple changes and there is a soft, mobile lump in the lower outer quadrant of the right breast which is nontender to palpation. She has no personal or family history of breast disease and is a non-smoker. What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management? Select the SINGLE most likely option.

      Your Answer: 2-week wait referral to the breast surgery team

      Explanation:

      Management of Fibrocystic Breast Disease: Referral to Breast Surgery Team

      Fibrocystic breast disease, also known as fibro-adenosis or fibrosclerosis, is a common benign condition that often presents with breast lumps or nodularity. According to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients under 30 years of age with a new breast lump without other suspicious features should be routinely referred to the Breast Clinic.

      For patients presenting with a persistent lump, watch and wait may not be appropriate, and referral for assessment is indicated. Urgent 2-week wait referral is recommended for patients over 30 years of age with a new unexplained breast or axillary lump, or skin or nipple changes suggestive of breast cancer.

      Mammography is not indicated for patients under 35 years of age with a suspected fibro-adenoma. Instead, triple assessment with ultrasonography is recommended. Antibiotics are not indicated unless there is evidence of infection or abscess.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the GP after having unprotected sex 3 days...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the GP after having unprotected sex 3 days ago and requests emergency contraception. She has a regular menstrual cycle lasting 30 days, and her last period started 14 days ago. She has no significant medical history and is a non-smoker with a BMI of 23 kg/m². What is the most suitable course of action for the GP to suggest?

      Your Answer: Copper intrauterine device (IUD)

      Explanation:

      The most suitable emergency contraception option in this case is the copper intrauterine device, which can be inserted up to 5 days after the estimated ovulation date or the first instance of unprotected sexual intercourse in a cycle, whichever is later. As ovulation is likely to have already occurred (estimated as day 14, now on day 17), the copper IUD is the most effective option. It is considered the most reliable form of emergency contraception and should be offered to all patients unless there are contraindications. If the patient declines or the IUD is contraindicated, one of the hormonal pill options may be offered, although they may be less effective in this case. The Mirena intrauterine system is not suitable for emergency contraception as it has a delayed action. It is important to offer emergency contraception to all women who request it, even if it falls outside the recommended window of use, and to inform them that it may not be completely effective in preventing pregnancy.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 23 week pregnant woman presents with offensive vaginal discharge and is diagnosed...

    Correct

    • A 23 week pregnant woman presents with offensive vaginal discharge and is diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis (BV) based on high vaginal swab results. She has no known drug allergies and is in good health otherwise. What treatment options are recommended for her?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection that affects many women, with up to 50% of cases being asymptomatic. The main symptom of BV is a fishy-smelling discharge from the vagina.

      In pregnant women, BV can lead to late miscarriage and preterm delivery if left untreated. Therefore, all pregnant women who experience symptoms should receive treatment. This typically involves taking oral metronidazole twice a day for 5-7 days, as a single 2-gram dose is not recommended during pregnancy.

      However, for asymptomatic pregnant women with BV, treatment is considered on a case-by-case basis. This is because research suggests that identifying and treating asymptomatic cases does not necessarily reduce the risk of preterm birth. This information is based on guidelines from NICE CKS.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 28 - Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?...

    Correct

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the typical menstrual cycle is inaccurate?

      Your Answer: A surge of FSH causes ovulation

      Explanation:

      Ovulation is caused by the LH surge.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.

      During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.

      The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.

      Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 29 - You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to...

    Correct

    • You are concerned that your patient may be experiencing premature menopause due to her irregular menstrual cycle and hot flashes. Which of the following situations would provide evidence for this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Patient age 39 with raised FSH/LH and low oestradiol

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is characterized by irregular menstrual cycles occurring before the age of 45, along with elevated FSH/LH levels and low oestradiol levels in blood tests. The pituitary gland releases more hormones in an attempt to stimulate the failing ovary to produce oestrogen, resulting in a negative feedback loop. Therefore, options 1, 3, 4, and 5 are incorrect. Option 5 depicts primary pituitary failure.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 19-year-old female patient presents to the GP surgery with a 2-year history...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old female patient presents to the GP surgery with a 2-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding. She reports that it has been manageable since the start of her menarche at the age of 14 but last 2 years it has become increasingly heavy that it has been causing problems at college. She has to change the sanitary towels every hour on the first 3 days of her periods and has been experiencing significant social embarrassment associated with over-flowing. She reports mild cramping pain on the first 2 days of the menstruation and denies dyspareunia. She is currently not sexually active. You arrange some blood tests which showed a mild iron deficiency anaemia but otherwise normal. An ultrasound revealed a normal looking uterus.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

      Explanation:

      When there is excessive menstrual bleeding without any underlying medical condition, it is referred to as dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Endometriosis typically causes pain a few days before menstruation and painful intercourse. The absence of fibroids and polyps is indicated by a normal ultrasound scan, and this condition is more prevalent in older women. Although a clotting disorder must be ruled out, the blood test results suggest that it is improbable.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

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      • Reproductive Medicine
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