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Question 1
Correct
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What is true for a patient with blood type group O before receiving a blood transfusion?
Your Answer: The red cells have absent A/B antigen and plasma has anti A and anti B antibodies
Explanation:Blood Groups
Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of certain antigens on the surface of red blood cells and the corresponding antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group O has no A or B antigens on the red cells and has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group AB has both A and B antigens on the red cells but no antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group A has only A antigens on the red cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. Blood Group B has only B antigens on the red cells and anti-A antibodies in the plasma. It is important to know your blood group for medical purposes, such as blood transfusions, as incompatible blood types can cause serious health complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 29-year-old female patient presents to the clinic with a complaint of missed periods for the past four months despite negative pregnancy tests. She is also distressed about the loss of her libido and has noticed milk leakage with minimal nipple stimulation during intercourse. On physical examination, her blood pressure is 122/70 mmHg, pulse is 70 and regular, and general physical examination is unremarkable. Which blood test is most likely to show elevated levels?
Your Answer: Prolactin
Explanation:Symptoms and Diagnosis of Hyperprolactinaemia
Hyperprolactinaemia is a condition characterized by elevated levels of prolactin in the body. This condition is typically associated with symptoms such as milk production, decreased libido, and absence of menstruation. However, visual disturbances are not always present, as many cases of hyperprolactinaemia are related to a microprolactinoma.
When diagnosing hyperprolactinaemia, it is important to assess thyroid status as this condition is often associated with hypothyroidism. Thyroxine levels are usually low in individuals with hyperprolactinaemia. Additionally, beta-HCG levels are elevated in pregnancy, so it is important to rule out pregnancy as a potential cause of elevated prolactin levels.
In summary, hyperprolactinaemia is a condition that can present with a variety of symptoms, but is typically characterized by elevated prolactin levels. Diagnosis involves assessing thyroid status and ruling out pregnancy as a potential cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 70-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue and overall weakness. She denies any other symptoms. Upon examination, the patient has conjunctival pallor and an inflamed, red tongue. Initial blood tests show a macrocytic anemia. Further testing reveals positive antiparietal cell antibodies.
What result is most likely to be found upon further investigation?Your Answer: Low vitamin B12
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms
Pernicious anaemia, coeliac disease, Crohn’s disease, and multiple myeloma are among the possible conditions that may cause low vitamin B12 levels and related symptoms. Pernicious anaemia is an autoimmune disorder that affects the gastric mucosa and impairs the production of intrinsic factor, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency and anaemia. Coeliac disease is a chronic immune-mediated enteropathy that affects the small intestine and causes malabsorption of nutrients, including vitamin B12. Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and cause various symptoms, including diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and weight loss. Multiple myeloma is a malignant plasma cell disorder that can cause bone pain, anaemia, and other symptoms, but is less likely to present with low vitamin B12 levels as the primary feature.
The differential diagnosis of these conditions may involve various tests and procedures, such as blood tests for antibodies and vitamin B12 levels, endoscopy with biopsies of the duodenum or colon, and bone marrow examination. The specific findings on these tests can help to distinguish between the different conditions and guide further management. For example, the presence of parietal cell antibodies and intrinsic factor antibodies in the blood may support a diagnosis of pernicious anaemia, while villous atrophy and crypt hyperplasia in the duodenal biopsies may suggest coeliac disease. Transmural inflammation with granuloma formation in the colon biopsies may indicate Crohn’s disease, while plasma cell infiltration in the bone marrow may suggest multiple myeloma.
Overall, the diagnosis of a patient with low vitamin B12 and related symptoms requires a thorough evaluation of the clinical history, physical examination, and laboratory findings, as well as consideration of the possible differential diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 9-year-old boy presents to the clinic with complaints of fatigue and weight loss. Upon examination, he is found to be pale and has hepatosplenomegaly. A complete blood count shows the presence of immature white cells. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Leukaemia
Explanation:Probable Diagnosis of Acute Lymphoblastic Leukaemia in a Child
This child is likely to have acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) based on the presence of immature white cells on their full blood count (FBC). Hodgkin’s disease is unlikely as the patient is too young and typically presents with lymphadenopathy. HIV is also not a probable cause of the immature cells on the FBC.
Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia is a type of cancer that affects the white blood cells, specifically the lymphocytes. It is most commonly diagnosed in children and young adults. Symptoms may include fatigue, fever, and easy bruising or bleeding. Treatment typically involves chemotherapy and may also include radiation therapy or stem cell transplantation. Early diagnosis and treatment are important for improving outcomes in patients with ALL.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman is 10 weeks pregnant. She plans to undergo a Down's syndrome screening test around 15 weeks into her pregnancy.
What is included in the measurement of a Down's screening blood test?Your Answer: Alpha-fetoprotein
Explanation:AFP Measurement for Detecting Birth Defects and Chromosomal Abnormalities
When a woman is 15 weeks pregnant, a blood test called AFP measurement can be performed to determine if there is an increased risk of certain birth defects and chromosomal abnormalities. This test can detect open neural tube or abdominal wall defects, as well as Down’s syndrome and trisomy 18. In the past, if the results of the AFP measurement were abnormal, an ultrasound scan would be performed. However, it is possible that in the future, mid-trimester anomaly scanning may replace the use of AFP measurement altogether.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman, who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy, begins to feel unwell with a fever and chills 3 or 4 days later. There are no obvious signs of active bleeding. On examination, you note that she is mildly jaundiced.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Pre-transfusion haemoglobin (Hb) 92 g/l 115–155 g/l
Post-transfusion Hb 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Platelets 180 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 7.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 130 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Bilirubin 90 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 50 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
What is the most likely diagnosis for this 36-year-old woman who has received a 3-unit blood transfusion following a hysterectomy and is experiencing fever, chills, and mild jaundice without signs of active bleeding?Your Answer: Delayed transfusion haemolysis
Explanation:Delayed Transfusion Haemolysis: A Possible Cause for Minimal Increase in Haemoglobin
A patient who has received a 3-unit transfusion has only shown a minimal increase in haemoglobin levels, which is a cause for concern. The rise in bilirubin without a corresponding increase in liver enzymes suggests haemolysis from a delayed transfusion haemolysis reaction. This type of reaction occurs when a patient without certain red cell antigens is exposed to these antigens through blood transfusion, resulting in the development of new antibodies and haemolysis after 3-14 days. Symptoms include fevers, rigors, rash, and jaundice, which are less severe and more gradual in onset than acute haemolytic reactions.
Medical management of this patient will involve screening for a wider range of possible antigens and access to a blood bank with a sufficient number of available units for a clean transfusion. Serious complications of blood transfusion are rare due to screening techniques, leukocyte depletion, and improved collection and storage.
Other potential transfusion-related reactions and their approximate time-course include hyperacute (minutes to hours), acute (hours to days), and late (days or longer). Bacterial sepsis is a possible reaction that would occur most likely in the acute time course, but it does not explain the minimal increase in haemoglobin following a 3-unit transfusion. Further haemorrhage, cholestasis of pregnancy, and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) are also unlikely causes.
In conclusion, delayed transfusion haemolysis is a possible cause for the minimal increase in haemoglobin levels in this patient. It is important to consider this reaction and manage it appropriately to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 58-year-old male presents with macrocytic anaemia and a megaloblastic bone marrow. What is the most probable cause of his macrocytosis?
Your Answer: Folate deficiency
Explanation:Megaloblastic Bone Marrow and Its Causes
A megaloblastic bone marrow is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folate, as well as some cytotoxic drugs. This condition is characterized by the presence of large, immature red blood cells in the bone marrow. However, other causes of macrocytosis, which is the presence of abnormally large red blood cells in the bloodstream, do not result in a megaloblastic bone marrow appearance. It is important to identify the underlying cause of macrocytosis to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old patient presents to the general practitioner with a complaint of darkening of urine, particularly noticeable in the morning. The patient has no family history of bleeding disorders and was recently hospitalized for deep venous thrombosis in the right leg. Upon examination, the patient's heart and lungs appear normal. Blood tests reveal anemia, elevated levels of lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), high bilirubin levels, and a high reticulocyte count. What is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells
Correct Answer: Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect in red blood cells
Explanation:Understanding Different Causes of Haemolytic Anaemia
Haemolytic anaemia is a condition where red blood cells are destroyed faster than they can be produced, leading to a shortage of oxygen-carrying cells in the body. There are various causes of haemolytic anaemia, including phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, vitamin B12 deficiency, glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane, and immunoglobulin M (IgM) antibody against red blood cells.
Phosphatidylinositol glycan A defect, also known as nocturnal haemoglobinuria, is an acquired condition caused by a mutation in the gene encoding for phosphatidylinositol glycan A. This leads to an increased susceptibility of red blood cells to complement proteins in an acidotic environment, resulting in haemolysis. Patients typically present with haematuria in the morning, and treatment involves managing symptoms and using medication such as eculizumab.
Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anaemia and is not related to haemolysis. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency is an inherited X-linked recessive condition that results in red blood cell breakdown. Loss of spectrin in the red blood cell membrane is seen in hereditary spherocytosis, where red blood cells become spherical and are trapped in the spleen, leading to haemolysis. IgM antibody against red blood cells causes autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, where the antibody binds to the I antigen on the membrane of red blood cells, leading to haemolysis at low temperatures.
Understanding the different causes of haemolytic anaemia is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient who is seen in the Renal Outpatient Department for glomerulonephritis presents to the Emergency Department with a swollen, erythematosus right leg with a 4-cm difference in circumference between the right and left leg. Routine blood tests show:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmol 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 10.1 mmol 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 120 μmol 50–120 µmol/l
eGFR 60ml/min/1.73m2
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.25 mmol 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Bilirubin 7 μmol 2–17 µmol/l
Albumin 32 g/l 35–55 g/l
Alkaline phosphatase 32 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Aspartate transaminase (AST) 15 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 32 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
C-reactive protein (CRP) 15 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
Haemoglobin 78 g/l
Males: 135–175 g/l
Females: 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 92 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 302 x 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
White cell count (WCC) 8.5 x 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Which of the following should be commenced after confirmation of the diagnosis?Your Answer: Warfarin and low molecular weight heparin
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:According to NICE guidance, the first-line treatment for a confirmed proximal deep vein thrombosis is a direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban or rivaroxaban. When warfarin is used, an initial pro-coagulant state occurs, so heparin is needed for cover until the INR reaches the target therapeutic range and until day 5. Low-molecular-weight heparin is typically used with warfarin in the initial anticoagulation phase, but it can accumulate in patients with renal dysfunction. Unfractionated heparin infusion is used in these cases. For patients with normal or slightly deranged renal function, low-molecular-weight heparin can be given once per day as a subcutaneous preparation. However, warfarin is not the first-line treatment according to NICE guidance.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with acute myeloid leukemia is experiencing inadequate response to platelet transfusions despite treatment. He is currently 2 weeks post-chemotherapy, without fever, and only minor bruising as a symptom. What would be the most appropriate course of action to manage his platelet refractoriness?
Your Answer: Prescribe HLA matched platelets
Correct Answer: Check for a one hour post platelet transfusion platelet count
Explanation:Management of Refractory Platelet Transfusions
Patients who do not respond to platelet transfusions should be evaluated to ensure that their platelet counts are increasing adequately. The best way to do this is by taking a blood sample one or two hours after the transfusion. If the patient’s platelet counts are still low, further investigation is necessary. However, it is not appropriate to request HLA-matched platelets or a directed platelet donation at this stage.
Continuing to give random platelet transfusions is also not recommended. Platelets are necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to determine why the transfusions are not working. Therefore, checking for HLA antibodies is the next step in the management of refractory platelet transfusions. Once the cause of the refractory response is identified, appropriate treatment can be initiated.
In summary, managing refractory platelet transfusions involves evaluating the patient’s response to the transfusions, checking for HLA antibodies, and determining the underlying cause of the refractory response. Platelets are still necessary for the patient’s recovery, but it is important to address the underlying issue to ensure that the transfusions are effective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Correct
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What is the blood product that poses the greatest risk of bacterial infection transmission during transfusion?
Your Answer: Platelets
Explanation:Storage Conditions and Bacterial Contamination Risk in Blood Products
Platelets, which are stored at room temperature, have the highest risk of bacterial contamination among all blood products. On the other hand, packed red cells are stored at an average of 4°C, while fresh frozen plasma and cryoprecipitate are stored at −20°C. Factor VIII concentrates, which are heat inactivated freeze dried products, have a minimal risk of bacterial contamination.
It is important to note that the risk of bacterial contamination in blood products is directly related to their storage conditions. Therefore, proper storage and handling of blood products is crucial to ensure their safety and efficacy. By following strict guidelines and protocols, healthcare professionals can minimize the risk of bacterial contamination and ensure that patients receive safe and effective blood products.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the hospital with a painful and swollen right leg that has been bothering her for the past three days. She has a history of deep vein thrombosis in the same leg ten years ago after returning from her honeymoon in Australia. Additionally, she was treated for pleurisy three years ago by her general practitioner. She has been experiencing recurrent water infections for the past two years, with intermittent bouts of flank pain and dark urine in the morning. Her general practitioner has recently investigated this issue, but the ultrasound scan of her renal tract and intravenous pyelogram were normal. She works as a cashier in a building society and lives with her husband and two children. She does not have a recent history of travel, but she smokes 10 cigarettes daily and occasionally drinks alcohol. On examination, her right calf is swollen, red, and tender, but she appears otherwise well. Her blood tests show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as elevated bilirubin and alkaline phosphatase. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria
Explanation:Paroxysmal Nocturnal Haemoglobinuria: A Clonal Defect of Red Cells
Paroxysmal nocturnal haemoglobinuria (PNH) is a condition where red blood cells have an increased susceptibility to lysis by complement due to an acquired clonal defect. This disorder typically presents in young adults and is often associated with other stem cell disorders, such as aplastic anaemia. The classic symptom of PNH is the intermittent passage of bloody urine, which tends to occur more frequently at night for unknown reasons. Diagnosis is often made through investigation of anaemia, pancytopenia, or recurrent thrombotic episodes, which are likely caused by complement-induced platelet aggregation. Flow cytometry can confirm the diagnosis by demonstrating a lack of erythrocyte membrane proteins CD59 and decay accelerating factor (DAF).
Overall, PNH is a rare but serious condition that can lead to significant complications if left untreated. Early diagnosis and management are crucial for improving outcomes and preventing further damage to the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with progressive weakness in his right upper limb and both lower limbs over the past four months. He has also developed digital infarcts affecting the second and third fingers on the right hand and the fifth finger on the left. On examination, his blood pressure is 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses are palpable, and there is an asymmetrical neuropathy. Laboratory investigations reveal a haemoglobin level of 120 g/L (130-170), a white cell count of 12.5 ×109/L (4-10), a platelet count of 430 ×109/L (150-450), and an ESR of 50 mm/hr (0-15). Urine examination shows proteinuria and 10-15 red blood cells per high power field without casts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Thrombotic thrombocytopaenia purpura
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa
Explanation:Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a systemic disease that affects small or medium-sized arteries in various organs, leading to a wide range of symptoms such as nerve damage, skin issues, joint and muscle pain, kidney problems, and heart issues. Laboratory findings include anemia, increased white blood cells and platelets, and elevated inflammatory markers. ANCA testing can help differentiate PAN from other vasculitis diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman is admitted to Accident and Emergency with a massive upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. She has a history of atrial fibrillation and is on warfarin. Since admission, she has had several episodes of copious haematemesis. Her blood pressure is 80/54 mmHg, and her heart rate is 136 beats/min. You have started resuscitation with normal saline and have ordered a group and save and a crossmatch. Her INR is currently 8.4. What is the most appropriate way to manage her INR?
Your Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and fresh-frozen plasma
Correct Answer: Withhold warfarin, give iv vitamin K and prothrombin complex concentrate
Explanation:Treatment for Haemorrhage in Patients on Warfarin: Guidelines from the BNF
The British National Formulary (BNF) provides clear guidance on the appropriate treatment for haemorrhage in patients on warfarin. In cases of major bleeding, warfarin should be stopped and intravenous phytomenadione (vitamin K1) and dried prothrombin complex concentrate should be administered. Recombinant factor VIIa is not recommended for emergency anticoagulation reversal. For INR levels above 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. Fresh-frozen plasma can be used if prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and oral vitamin K given. For INR levels between 5.0 and 8.0 with minor bleeding, warfarin should be withheld and intravenous vitamin K given. If prothrombin complex concentrate is unavailable, fresh-frozen plasma can be used. In cases where INR is between 5.0 and 8.0 without bleeding, one or two doses of warfarin should be withheld and subsequent maintenance doses reduced. This guidance can help healthcare professionals provide appropriate and effective treatment for patients on warfarin experiencing haemorrhage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A frequent contributor complains of yellowing of the eyes and fever after donating blood for five days.
What should be the subsequent suitable step for the medical officer in charge of the blood bank?Your Answer: The donor needs to be struck off the donor register
Correct Answer: Recall blood products from this donor and arrange for retesting of this donor
Explanation:Managing Donor Complications and Blood Products
When a donor develops complications, it is important to assess how to manage both the donor and the blood products from the donation. In such cases, the blood products should be recalled until further testing and clarification of the donor’s illness. It is crucial to prevent the release of any of the blood products. However, the donor should not be immediately struck off the register until further testing results are available. It is important to take these precautions to ensure the safety of the blood supply and prevent any potential harm to recipients. Proper management of donor complications and blood products is essential to maintain the integrity of the blood donation system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 16
Correct
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What is the diagnostic tool for beta thalassaemia?
Your Answer: Haemoglobin electrophoresis
Explanation:Diagnosis of Beta Thalassaemia
Beta thalassaemia can be diagnosed through the presence of mild microcytic anaemia, target cells on the peripheral blood smear, and a normal red blood cell count. However, the diagnosis is confirmed through the elevation of Hb A2, which is demonstrated by electrophoresis. In beta thalassaemia patients, the Hb A2 level is typically around 4-6%.
It is important to note that in rare cases where there is severe iron deficiency, the increased Hb A2 level may not be observed. However, it becomes evident with iron repletion. Additionally, patients with the rare delta-beta thalassaemia trait do not exhibit an increased Hb A2 level.
In summary, the diagnosis of beta thalassaemia can be suggested through certain symptoms and blood tests, but it is confirmed through the measurement of Hb A2 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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By how much does the haemoglobin concentration increase with the infusion of one unit of fresh blood?
Your Answer: 1 g/L
Correct Answer: 10 g/L
Explanation:The Effect of Fresh Blood on Haemoglobin Levels
When one unit of fresh blood is transfused, it increases the haemoglobin levels in the body by approximately 10 g/L. This is equivalent to the effect of one unit of red cell concentrate. Both fresh blood and red cell concentrate contain red blood cells, which are responsible for carrying oxygen throughout the body. Therefore, the increase in haemoglobin levels is due to the additional red blood cells that are introduced into the bloodstream. This information is important for medical professionals who need to monitor and manage the haemoglobin levels of their patients, particularly those who have undergone significant blood loss or have conditions that affect their red blood cell count.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman who gave birth three weeks ago is feeling very fatigued after walking to the park and back. The birth was via a caesarean section and she needed one unit of blood transfusion. She visits her family doctor and denies experiencing any chest pain, heart palpitations, shortness of breath, or further bleeding.
During the examination, there are no indications of ongoing bleeding, and the caesarean section incision is healing properly. The blood test results are as follows:
- Hb 95 g/L Female: (115 - 160)
- Platelets 240 * 109/L (150 - 400)
- WBC 7.0 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
- Ferritin 6 µg/L (15 - 300)
What is the minimum haemoglobin level for this patient to be prescribed iron supplements?Your Answer: <110 g/L
Correct Answer:
Explanation:The appropriate cut-off for determining if iron supplementation is necessary in the postpartum period is <100 g/L. It is important to continue oral iron for three months after normalizing ferritin levels to ensure adequate stores for efficient oxygen delivery to the tissues. Cut-offs of <105 g/L, <110 g/L, and <120 g/L are incorrect for iron supplementation in the second or third trimester of pregnancy, first trimester of pregnancy, and postpartum period, respectively. However, the decision to administer iron for anaemia should be based on the doctor's discretion and the patient's symptoms. During pregnancy, women are checked for anaemia twice – once at the initial booking visit (usually around 8-10 weeks) and again at 28 weeks. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has set specific cut-off levels to determine if a pregnant woman requires oral iron therapy. These levels are less than 110 g/L in the first trimester, less than 105 g/L in the second and third trimesters, and less than 100 g/L postpartum. If a woman’s iron levels fall below these cut-offs, she will be prescribed oral ferrous sulfate or ferrous fumarate. It is important to continue this treatment for at least three months after the iron deficiency has been corrected to allow the body to replenish its iron stores. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that pregnant women receive the appropriate care to prevent and manage anaemia during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents with a history of easy bruising and excessive bleeding after a dental procedure. She is diagnosed with von Willebrand's disease and is scheduled for additional dental extractions. The physician prescribes DDAVP. What is the mechanism of action of DDAVP in treating von Willebrand's disease?
Your Answer: Inhibits breakdown of von Willebrand's factor
Correct Answer: Stimulates release of von Willebrand's factor from endothelial cells
Explanation:DDAVP for Increasing von Willebrand Factor
DDAVP is a medication that can be administered to increase the amount of von Willebrand factor in the body, which is necessary for surgical or dental procedures. This medication can increase plasma von Willebrand factor and factor VIII concentrations by two to five times. The mechanism of action involves the induction of cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)-mediated vWF secretion through a direct effect on endothelial cells. Overall, DDAVP is a useful tool for increasing von Willebrand factor levels in the body, allowing for safer and more successful surgical and dental procedures.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old Afro-Caribbean male with sickle cell disease complains of right upper abdominal pain and exhibits tenderness upon palpation. What diagnostic test should be performed to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer: Upper GI endoscopy
Correct Answer: Abdominal ultrasound scan
Explanation:Pigment Gallstones and High Haem Turnover
In cases of chronic haemolysis, such as sickle cell disease or thalassaemia, the presence of unconjugated bilirubin in bile can lead to the formation of pigment gallstones. These stones are black in color and are caused by the precipitation of calcium bilirubinate from solution. The high concentration of unconjugated bilirubin in bile is a result of the increased turnover of haemoglobin. This can cause pain and discomfort for the patient. It is important to manage the underlying condition causing the high haem turnover to prevent the formation of pigment gallstones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old Afro-Caribbean man presents to the Emergency Department with acute severe chest pain, fever and a cough, which he has had for five days. Examination revealed signs of jaundice and the spleen was not big enough to be palpable.
You take some basic observations:
Temperature: 38 °C
Respiratory rate: 26 breaths/min
O2 saturation: 86%
Heart rate: 134 bpm (regular)
Blood pressure (lying): 134/86 mmHg
Blood pressure (standing): 132/90 mmHg
His initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal
White cell count (WCC) 13.8 × 109/l 4–11.0 × 109/l
Neutrophils 7000 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 2000 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 105 g/l 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 110 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 300 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Troponin l 0.01 ng/ml < 0.1 ng/ml
D-dimer 0.03 μg/ml < 0.05 μg/ml
Arterial blood gas (ABG) showed type 1 respiratory failure with a normal pH. Chest X-ray showed left lower lobe consolidation.
The patient was treated successfully and is due for discharge tomorrow.
Upon speaking to the patient, he reveals that he has suffered two similar episodes this year.
Given the likely diagnosis, what medication should the patient be started on to reduce the risk of further episodes?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone
Correct Answer: Hydroxycarbamide (hydroxyurea)
Explanation:Treatment Options for a Patient with Sickle Cell Disease and Acute Chest Pain Crisis
A patient with sickle cell disease is experiencing an acute chest pain crisis, likely due to a lower respiratory tract infection. Hydroxycarbamide is recommended as a preventative therapy to reduce the risk of future crises by increasing the amount of fetal hemoglobin and reducing the percentage of red cells with hemoglobin S. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not necessary as the patient has a raised white blood cell count. Inhaled beclomethasone is not appropriate as asthma or COPD are not likely diagnoses in this case. Oral prednisolone may be used as a preventative therapy for severe asthma, but is not recommended for COPD and is not appropriate for this patient’s symptoms. A tuberculosis (TB) vaccination may be considered for primary prevention, but would not be useful for someone who has already been infected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the correct information regarding the storage requirements and lifespan of blood products?
Your Answer: Platelets are stored at 22°C for up to 10 days
Correct Answer: Fresh frozen plasma is stored at −25°C for up to 36 months
Explanation:Storage Guidelines for Blood Products
Blood products such as fresh frozen plasma, red cells, and platelets have specific storage guidelines to ensure their safety and efficacy. Fresh frozen plasma can be stored for up to 36 months at a temperature of −25°C. On the other hand, red cells are stored at a temperature of 4°C for a maximum of 35 days, while platelets are stored at a temperature of 22°C for up to 5 days on a platelet shaker/agitator.
These guidelines are important to follow to maintain the quality of blood products and prevent any adverse reactions in patients who receive them. It is crucial to store blood products at the appropriate temperature and for the recommended duration to ensure their effectiveness when used in transfusions. Healthcare professionals should be aware of these guidelines and ensure that they are followed to provide safe and effective blood transfusions to patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic with complaints of abdominal discomfort and bloating that have been progressively worsening over the past few months. Upon examination, her GP discovered a complex left ovarian cyst. Which blood test would be the most useful in determining if the cyst is cancerous?
Your Answer: CA125
Explanation:Tumor Markers and Their Association with Different Cancers
Tumor markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be used to detect the presence of cancer, monitor the progress of treatment, and detect the recurrence of cancer. One such tumor marker is CA125, which is associated with ovarian carcinoma. However, elevations in CA125 can also be seen in uterine cancer, pancreas, stomach, and colonic tumors. In some cases, benign ovarian tumors can also cause a rise in CA125 levels. If a patient has a CA125 level of over 200U/ml and an abnormal ultrasound scan, it is highly likely that they have ovarian carcinoma.
Other tumor markers include CA19-9, which is primarily associated with pancreatic tumors, beta-HCG, which is associated with germ cell tumors, alpha-fetoprotein, which is associated with hepatocellular carcinoma, and carcinoembryonic antigen, which is associated with colonic carcinoma. While AFP and beta-HCG can rarely be secreted by ovarian tumors, it is important to check CA125 levels first, as they are much more frequently elevated. By monitoring tumor markers, doctors can detect cancer early and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 24
Correct
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A diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura presents with a leg ulcer which needs debridement. His platelet counts are 15 ×109/l. His blood sugars are poorly controlled and he has been started on a sliding scale insulin. He has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions.
What is the recommended product to increase platelet counts to a safe level for debridement surgery in a diabetic patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura who has previously responded to steroids and immunoglobulin infusions and has poorly controlled blood sugars, and is slightly older?Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin
Explanation:Treatment options for ITP patients
Intravenous immunoglobulin is the preferred treatment for patients with immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) who also have diabetes. Steroids may be used as a trial treatment if the patient does not have any contraindications for steroid-related complications. Platelets are not typically effective in raising platelet counts in ITP patients because they are destroyed by the antibodies. However, they may be used in emergency situations to treat major bleeding. It is important for healthcare providers to carefully consider the individual patient’s medical history and current condition when selecting a treatment plan for ITP. Proper treatment can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old Afro-Caribbean boy has been brought to the paediatric Emergency Department by his parents, both of whom are known to suffer from sickle cell disease. They have brought him in to see you because they are worried he has developed ‘septicaemia’. Upon further questioning, he reveals that he has developed extreme fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, coryzal symptoms and bleeding gums, all over the last two days.
Upon examination, you note an erythematosus rash on both cheeks, a small purpuric rash on the left arm, pale conjunctivae, pale skin and well-perfused peripheries. Brudzinski’s sign is negative.
You take some basic observations, which are as follows:
Temperature: 37.8 ˚C
Heart rate: 100 bpm (normal 55–85 bpm)
Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min (normal 12–18 breaths/min)
Blood pressure: 130/86 mmHg (lying), 132/84 mmHg (standing)
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
His initial investigation findings are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal
White cell count (WCC) 11.4 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Neutrophils 3800 × 106/l 3000–5800 × 106/l
Lymphocytes 7200 × 106/l 1500–3000 × 106/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 84 g/dl 135–175 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume
(MCV) 94 fl 76–98 fl
Platelets 200 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Given the likely diagnosis, how should the patient be managed?Your Answer: Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)
Correct Answer: Cross-match, giving blood as soon as it is available
Explanation:The patient in question is at a high risk of sickle cell disease due to their ethnicity and family history. They are showing signs of parvovirus B19 infection, which is causing bone marrow failure and a decrease in erythropoiesis. This condition, known as aplastic crisis, is usually managed conservatively but may require a blood transfusion if the patient is experiencing symptomatic anemia. Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) is not recommended in this case as it will not address the patient’s severe anemia. IV ceftriaxone and a lumbar puncture would be the correct initial management for meningococcal disease, but it is not the most likely diagnosis in this case. Oral benzylpenicillin and transfer to a pediatric ward is also not recommended as it is not the correct management for meningococcal disease and is not relevant to the patient’s condition. While sepsis is a possible differential diagnosis, the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms is a viral infection causing aplastic crisis in a patient with sickle cell disease. Therefore, the appropriate management would be to investigate for viral infection and provide supportive therapies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue that has lasted for 2 months. She has been consuming approximately 20 units of alcohol per week for the past decade. Her blood test reveals the following results:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 98 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 126 fl 82–100 fl
What is the most probable cause of her anaemia based on these blood results?Your Answer: Alcohol excess
Explanation:Causes of Macrocytic and Microcytic Anaemia
Anaemia is a condition characterized by a decrease in the number of red blood cells or haemoglobin in the blood. Macrocytic anaemia is a type of anaemia where the red blood cells are larger than normal, while microcytic anaemia is a type where the red blood cells are smaller than normal. Here are some of the causes of macrocytic and microcytic anaemia:
Alcohol Excess: Alcohol toxicity can directly affect the bone marrow, leading to macrocytic anaemia. Additionally, alcoholism can cause poor nutrition and vitamin B12 deficiency, which can also lead to macrocytosis.
Congenital Sideroblastic Anaemia: This is a rare genetic disorder that produces ringed sideroblasts instead of normal erythrocytes, leading to microcytic anaemia.
Iron Deficiency: Iron deficiency is a common cause of anaemia, especially in women. However, it causes microcytic anaemia, not macrocytic anaemia.
Blood Loss from Menses: Chronic blood loss due to menorrhagia can result in microcytic iron deficiency anaemia. However, this is a physiological process and would not cause macrocytic anaemia.
Thalassemia: Thalassaemia is a genetic disorder that leads to abnormal or low haemoglobin, resulting in microcytic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to the clinic with a four-month history of abdominal swelling and discomfort along with breathlessness. Upon examination, he appears unwell and pale. The liver is palpable 12 cm below the right costal margin, and the spleen is palpable 15 cm below the left costal margin. No lymphadenopathy is detected. The following investigations were conducted:
Hb 59 g/L (130-180)
RBC 2.1 ×1012/L -
PCV 0.17 l/l -
MCH 30 pg (28-32)
MCV 82 fL (80-96)
Reticulocytes 1.4% (0.5-2.4)
Total WBC 23 ×109/L (4-11)
Normoblasts 8% -
Platelets 280 ×109/L (150-400)
Neutrophils 9.0 ×109/L (1.5-7)
Lymphocytes 5.2 ×109/L (1.5-4)
Monocytes 1.3 ×109/L (0-0.8)
Eosinophils 0.2 ×109/L (0.04-0.4)
Basophils 0.2 ×109/L (0-0.1)
Metamyelocytes 5.1 ×109/L -
Myelocytes 1.6 ×109/L -
Blast cells 0.4 ×109/L -
The blood film shows anisocytosis, poikilocytosis, and occasional erythrocyte tear drop cells. What is the correct term for this blood picture?Your Answer: Leukemoid reaction
Correct Answer: Leukoerythroblastic anaemia
Explanation:Leukoerythroblastic Reactions and Myelofibrosis
Leukoerythroblastic reactions refer to a condition where the peripheral blood contains immature white cells and nucleated red cells, regardless of the total white cell count. This means that even if the overall white cell count is normal, the presence of immature white cells and nucleated red cells can indicate a leukoerythroblastic reaction. Additionally, circulating blasts may also be seen in this condition.
On the other hand, myelofibrosis is characterized by the presence of tear drop cells. These cells are not typically seen in other conditions and are therefore considered a hallmark of myelofibrosis. Tear drop cells are red blood cells that have been distorted due to the presence of fibrous tissue in the bone marrow. This condition can lead to anemia, fatigue, and other symptoms.
Overall, both leukoerythroblastic reactions and myelofibrosis are conditions that can be identified through specific characteristics in the peripheral blood. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these findings in order to properly diagnose and treat patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old African-American has marked left-sided weakness and an expressive aphasia. He is diagnosed with a stroke. Blood results show the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 90 g/l 135–175 g/l
Platelets 80 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
calcium 3.80 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
creatinine 128 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Which investigation is likely to reveal the cause of this man’s stroke?Your Answer: MRI head
Correct Answer: Urinary Bence Jones proteins
Explanation:Investigations for a Patient with Stroke and Suspected Multiple Myeloma
When a patient presents with symptoms of stroke and possible multiple myeloma, several investigations may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the cause of the stroke. The mnemonic CRAB (high Calcium, Renal insufficiency, Anaemia and Bone lesions) can help identify the key symptoms of multiple myeloma.
One potential test is a urinary Bence Jones protein test, which can confirm the presence of multiple myeloma. However, this test alone cannot determine the cause of the stroke.
An MRI of the head may show areas of damage, but it will not reveal the cause of the stroke. A CT scan of the head, on the other hand, can identify changes caused by an ischaemic stroke, but it cannot differentiate the cause of the clot.
Liver function tests and X-rays of the spine are not first-line investigations for this condition, but they may be useful in identifying bone lesions associated with multiple myeloma.
Overall, a combination of tests and imaging may be necessary to diagnose and treat a patient with stroke and suspected multiple myeloma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 5-month history of night sweats and weight loss. He has no history of cough, shortness of breath or foreign travel. He denies any back or joint pain. He is normally fit and well, except for high blood pressure for which he takes enalapril. He continues to drink ten units of alcohol per week.
On examination, he is noted to have cervical and groin lymphadenopathy, with an enlarged spleen. The remainder of the examination and observations are normal.
Which of the following is most likely to be used in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Rituximab
Explanation:The patient in question is displaying symptoms of non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, including night sweats, weight loss, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. While other symptoms may include pruritus, fever, and shortness of breath, the most common treatment for progressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a combination chemotherapy called R-CHOP, which includes rituximab. Rituximab is an anti-CD20 monoclonal antibody used for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis. The other options, including infliximab, lenalidomide, radiotherapy, and rifampicin, are used for different conditions such as Crohn’s disease, multiple myeloma, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and tuberculosis, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old white woman without past medical history presents with pallor, shortness of breath, palpitations and difficulty balancing.
On examination, her vitals are heart rate 110 bpm at rest and 140 bpm on ambulation, blood pressure 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 18 breaths/minute, temperature 37 ° C and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. She is pale. Her lungs are clear to auscultation; her heart rate is regular without murmurs, rubs or gallops; her abdomen is soft and non-tender; she is moving all extremities equally, and a stool guaiac test is heme-negative. Her gait is wide and she has difficulty balancing. She has decreased sensation to fine touch in her feet. Her mini-mental status exam is normal.
Blood work shows:
Haematocrit: 0.19 (0.35–0.55)
Mean cell volume: 110 fl (76–98 fl)
White blood cell count: 5 × 109/l (4–11 × 109/l)
Which one of the following findings would most likely lead to the correct diagnosis?Your Answer: Haemoglobin A1c 12.2%
Correct Answer: Anti-intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Causes and Symptoms of Vitamin B12 Deficiency
Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to macrocytic anaemia and neurological symptoms. The most common cause of this deficiency is the presence of anti-intrinsic factor antibodies. Intrinsic factor is necessary for the absorption of dietary vitamin B12 in the terminal ileum. Without it, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed, leading to deficiency and anaemia. Symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency include fatigue, lethargy, dyspnoea on exertion, and neurological symptoms such as peripheral loss of vibration and proprioception, weakness, and paraesthesiae. If left untreated, it can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, heart failure, and demyelination of the spinal cord, causing ataxia.
Diagnosis can be made with a vitamin B12 level test, which reveals anaemia, often pancytopenia, and a raised MCV. A blood film reveals hypersegmented neutrophils, megaloblasts, and oval macrocytes. Treatment involves replacement of vitamin B12.
Other possible causes of vitamin B12 deficiency include intestinal tapeworm, which is rare, and gastrointestinal malignancy, which causes iron deficiency anaemia with a low MCV. Destruction of the anterior and lateral horns of the spinal cord describes anterolateral sclerosis (ALS), which is characterised by progressive muscle weakness and would not cause anaemia or loss of sensation. Enlargement of the ventricles on head CT indicates hydrocephalus, which could explain the wide-based gait but not the anaemia and other symptoms. A haemoglobin A1c of 12.2% is associated with diabetes, which could explain decreased peripheral sensation to fine touch but would not be associated with megaloblastic anaemia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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