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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35 year old patient presents to ED having sustained an injury to his right hand whilst playing cricket. He is unable to fully straighten his right middle finger as the distal phalanx remains flexed. Which of the following structures within the digit was most likely injured:
Your Answer: Insertion of central slip of extensor digitorum tendon
Correct Answer: Insertion of terminal extensor digitorum tendon
Explanation:Damage to the insertion of the terminal extensor digitorum tendon would result in loss of extension at the distal interphalangeal joint causing a fixed flexion deformity, called the Mallet deformity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A young patient presents with the features of an easily recognisable infectious disease.Which of the following infectious diseases typically has an incubation period of less than 1 week? Select ONE answer only.
Your Answer: Rubella
Correct Answer: Cholera
Explanation:Cholera has an incubation period of 12 hours to 6 days.Other infectious disease that have an incubation period of less than 1 week include:Staphylococcal enteritis (1-6 hours)Salmonella enteritis (12-24 hours)Botulism (18-36 hours)Gas gangrene (6 hours to 4 days)Scarlet fever (1-4 days)Diphtheria (2-5 days)Gonorrhoea (3-5 days)Yellow fever (3-6 days)Meningococcaemia (1-7 days)Brucellosis has an incubation period of 7-21 days.Measles has an incubation period of 14-18 days.Falciparum malaria usually has an incubation period of 7-14 days. The other forms of malaria have a longer incubation period of 12-40 days.Rubella has an incubation period of 14-21 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following would you NOT expect from a deep fibular nerve palsy:
Your Answer: Loss of sensation over heel
Explanation:Damage to the deep fibular nerve results in loss of dorsiflexion of the ankle, with resultant foot drop with high-stepping gait, loss of toe extension, weakness of foot inversion and loss of sensation over the webspace between the 1st and 2nd toes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 4
Incorrect
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The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated primarily with which of the following malignancies:
Your Answer: Acute myeloid leukaemia
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a clonal disorder of a pluripotent stem cell. The disease accounts for around 15% of leukaemias and may occur at any age. The diagnosis of CML is rarely difficult and is assisted by the characteristic presence of the Philadelphia (ph) chromosome. This disease occurs in either sex, most frequently between the ages of 40 and 60 years. In up to 50% of cases the diagnosis is made incidentally from a routine blood count. Leucocytosis is the main feature, with a complete spectrum of myeloid cells seen in the peripheral blood. The levels of neutrophils and myelocytes exceed those of blast cells and promyelocytes.Increased circulating basophils are a characteristic feature. Normochromic normocytic anaemia is usual. Platelet count may be increased (most frequently), normal or decreased. The clinical outlook is very good and 90% of patients can expect long-term control of disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 5
Correct
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All of the following statement are correct regarding endothelium derived nitric oxide except:
Your Answer: Nitric oxide production is inhibited by local mediators such as bradykinin, histamine and serotonin.
Explanation:Factors that elevate intracellular Ca2+ increase nitric oxide (NO) production by the endothelium included local mediators such as histamine and serotonin, bradykinin, and some neurotransmitters like substance P. NO production is also stimulated by increased flow (shear stress) and additionally activates prostacyclin synthesis. As a result of basal production of NO, there is continuous modulation of vascular resistance and as a result, there is increased production of nitric oxide acts which causes vasodilation. Platelet activation and thrombosis are inhibited by nitric oxide.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman presents with exacerbation of her chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), increased cough, wheeze and chest tightness. On examination, she is tachypnoeic and oxygen saturation is 86%. You plan to administer supplemental oxygen.Which oxygen delivery system is most appropriate to use initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Venturi mask
Explanation:In life-threatening emergencies, oxygen should be started immediately otherwise, it should be prescribed like any other drug. The prescription should include a target saturation range.Until blood gases can be measured, initial oxygen should be administered using a controlled concentration of 24% or 28%. The ideal mask is a Venturi mask. The other mask are not ideal for initial use
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following is the most likely causative organism of acute epiglottitis in a 6 year old?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:Since the introduction of the HIB vaccine, most cases of acute epiglottitis are now caused by Streptococcus spp. The condition is now rare in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 8
Incorrect
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In the treatment of hypertensive episodes in pheochromocytoma, which of the following medication types is administered as first-line management:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-blockers
Explanation:The first line of management in controlling blood pressure and preventing intraoperative hypertensive crises is to use a combination of alpha and beta-adrenergic inhibition. In phaeochromocytoma, alpha-blockers are used to treat hypertensive episodes in the short term. Tachycardia can be managed by the careful addition of a beta-blocker, preferably a cardioselective beta-blocker, once alpha blockade has been established. Long term management of pheochromocytoma involves surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which of the following is an example of a vaccine produced by recombinant DNA technology:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatitis B
Explanation:Hepatitis B vaccines are prepared from the viral surface antigen. The recombinant vaccine is now the most widely used vaccine and induces a sufficient antibody response in 90% of individuals.Indications for hepatitis B vaccination include:All health care professional’s working in the UKOther professions with occupational risks (foster carers, staff of custodial institutions, morticians etc)Babies of mothers with hepatitis B during pregnancyClose family contacts of a case or carrierIV drug abusersIndividuals with haemophiliaIndividuals with chronic renal failureSex workers and individuals with frequently changing sexual partnersThe vaccine should be stored between 2 and 8 degrees C as freezing destroys its efficacy. The vaccine is administered intramuscularly, either into the deltoid region (preferred) or anterolateral thigh. The buttock should be avoided as it reduces the efficacy of the vaccine.The standard regime is to give 3 doses of the vaccine, the 1stand 2ndone month apart and the 2ndand 3rdsix months apart. Antibody titres should be tested 2 to 4 months after the primary course.A peak titre above 100 mIU/ml is regarded as a good response and implies long-term immunity. A peak titre between 10-100 mIU/ml is regarded as a low response and a peak titre of less than 10mIU/ml is regarded as a poor response.There is no substantiated association between hepatitis B vaccination and Guillain-Barre syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunoglobulins And Vaccines
- Pharmacology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Regarding the flexor digitorum profundus muscle, which of the following is true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The medial aspect of the muscle is innervated by the ulnar nerve
Explanation:Flexor digitorum profundus is a fusiform muscle located deep within the anterior (flexor) compartment of the forearm. Along with the flexor pollicis longus and pronator quadratus muscles, it comprises the deep flexor compartment of the forearm.Flexor digitorum profundus has a dual innervation:(1) The medial part of the muscle, that inserts to the fourth and fifth digits, is innervated by the ulnar nerve (C8-T1);(2) The lateral part, that inserts to the second and third digits, is innervated by the median nerve, via anterior interosseous branch (C8-T1).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Upper Limb
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Regarding the phases of gastric secretion, which of the following statements is INCORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A high pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion.
Explanation:A low pH in the stomach inhibits gastrin secretion, therefore when the stomach is empty or when acid has been secreted for some time after food has entered it, there is inhibition of acid secretion. However, when food first enters the stomach, the pH rises, and this leads to release of the inhibition and causes a maximum secretion of gastrin. Thus gastric acid secretion is self-regulating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal
- Physiology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The renal corpuscle, consisting of the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus is found where in the kidney:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The cortex
Explanation:All nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the renal cortex. Cortical nephrons have their renal corpuscles in the outer part of the cortex and relatively short loops of Henle. Juxtamedullary nephrons have their corpuscles in the inner third of the cortex, close to the corticomedullary junction, with long loops of Henle extending into the renal medulla.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Renal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old asthmatic patient on theophylline as part of her asthma management presents to the Emergency Department with an unrelated medical condition.Which of these drugs should be avoided?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Macrolide antibiotics (e.g. clarithromycin and erythromycin) are cytochrome P450 enzyme inhibitors. They increase blood levels of theophylline leading to hypokalaemia, and potentially increasing the risk of Torsades de pointes when they are prescribed together. Co-prescription with theophylline should be avoided.Factors that enhance theophylline clearance include cigarette smoking, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, phenytoin, primidone, and rifampin. Medications that inhibit clearance include ethanol, ciprofloxacin, erythromycin, verapamil, propranolol, ticlopidine, tacrine, allopurinol, and cimetidine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology
- Respiratory Pharmacology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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As a response to low blood pressure, the baroreceptor reflex will facilitate vasoconstriction by activating which receptor?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha1
Explanation:The rate of baroreceptor firing slows down when blood pressure falls too low. This causes an increase in sympathetic stimulation of the heart, resulting in an increase in cardiac output. It also causes vasoconstriction by activating alpha 1 receptors in smooth muscle, which causes sympathetic stimulation of peripheral vessels. Alpha2 receptors can be found in both the brain and the peripheral nervous system. They control sympathetic outflow in the brain stem. Beta1 receptors, which are found on the cell membrane of cardiac muscle cells, stimulate heart rate and myocardial contractility. The smooth muscle cell membrane contains beta2 receptors, which promote smooth muscle relaxation in the lungs causing bronchodilation, GI tract, and peripheral blood vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Regarding the lumbar plexus, which of the following is a direct muscular branch?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nerve to quadratus lumborum
Explanation:The lumbar plexus gives rise to several branches which supply various muscles and regions of the posterior abdominal wall and lower limb. These branches include the Iliohypogastric, ilioinguinal, genitofemoral, lateral femoral cutaneous, femoral and obturator nerves.In addition, the lumbar plexus gives off muscular branches from its roots, a branch to the lumbosacral trunk and occasionally an accessory obturator nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Lower Limb
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Question 16
Incorrect
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Nifedipine commonly causes which of the following adverse effects?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ankle oedema
Explanation:Most common adverse effects of Nifedipine include:Peripheral oedema (10-30%)Dizziness (23-27%)Flushing (23-27%)Headache (10-23%)Heartburn (11%)Nausea (11%)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Pharmacology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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EMLA cream is a topical local anaesthetic containing which of the following:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50/50 mixture 2.5% lidocaine and 2.5% prilocaine
Explanation:EMLA cream, an effective topical local anaesthetic, is a 50/50 mixture of 2.5% prilocaine and 2.5% lidocaine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anaesthesia
- Pharmacology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Regarding T helper cells, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They form the vast majority (about 75%) of the total circulating T-cell population.
Explanation:CD4+ T-cells (Helper T cells)Recognise antigen only in association with HLA class II molecules (found on antigen presenting cells (APCs) e.g. dendritic cells, B-cells; present exogenous antigens that have been phagocytosed/endocytosed into intracellular vesicles)Form most of the circulating T-cell population (about 75%)Secrete cytokines (e.g. IFN-gamma) which are required for recruitment and activation of other immune cells such as macrophages, T cytotoxic cells and NK cells and for the activation of and production of immunoglobulin from B-cells
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immune Responses
- Pathology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a typical cerebellar sign:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Resting tremor
Explanation:An intention tremor is characteristic of cerebellar dysfunction. Resting tremor may be seen in Parkinsonism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
- Central Nervous System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A patient is referred for lung function tests on account of a history of breathlessness and cough.Which statement about lung volumes is correct?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The tidal volume is the volume of air drawn in and out of the lungs during normal breathing
Explanation:The tidal volume(TV) is the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle. In a healthy male, the usual volume is 0.5 L (,7 ml/kg body mass).The vital capacity(VC) is the maximum amount of air that can be exhaled following maximal inspiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 4.5 L.The residual volume(RV) is the amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 1.0 L.The inspiratory reserve volume(IRV) is the maximum amount of air that can be breathed in forcibly after normal inspiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 3.0 L.The expiratory reserve volume(ERV) is the volume of air that can be breathed out forcibly after normal expiration. The usual volume in a healthy male is 1.0 L.Total lung capacity(TLC) is the volume of air the lungs can accommodate. TLC = RV+VC. The usual volume in a healthy male is 5.5 L.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
- Respiratory Physiology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old patient presents with a chronic digoxin overdose. She has vomited several times, is extremely tired, and her vision 'appears yellow,' according to her.Which of the following is a reason for this patient's use of Digifab?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coexistent renal failure
Explanation:An antidote for digoxin overdose is digoxin-specific antibody (Digifab). It’s a lyophilized preparation of digoxin-immune ovine Fab immunoglobulin fragments that’s sterile, purified, and lyophilized. These fragments were extracted from the blood of healthy sheep that had been immunised with a digoxin derivative called digoxin-dicarboxymethoxylamine (DDMA), a digoxin analogue that contains the functionally important cyclopentaperhydrophenanthrene:lactone ring moiety coupled to keyhole limpet hemocyanin (KLH).Digifab has a higher affinity for digoxin than digoxin does for its sodium pump receptor, which is thought to be the site of its therapeutic and toxic effects. When given to a patient who is intoxicated, Digifab binds to digoxin molecules, lowering free digoxin levels and shifting the equilibrium away from binding to receptors, reducing cardio-toxic effects. The kidney and reticuloendothelial system then clear the Fab-digoxin complexes.The following summarises the indications for Digifab in acute and chronic digoxin toxicity:Acute digoxin toxicityChronic digoxin toxicityCardiac arrestLife-threatening arrhythmiaPotassium level > 5 mmol/l>10 mg digoxin ingested (adult)>4 mg digoxin ingested (child)Digoxin level > 12 ng/mlCardiac arrestLife-threatening arrhythmiaSignificant gastrointestinal symptomsSymptoms of digoxin toxicity
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Following a phone call from the microbiology consultant, you evaluate a patient who has been diagnosed with urinary sepsis. Following the results of the blood cultures, he recommends that you add gentamicin to the patient's antibiotic treatment.Gentamicin produces its pharmacological effect by binding to which of the following?Â
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome
Explanation:Antibiotics with aminoglycosides, such as gentamicin, bind to the 30S subunit of the bacterial ribosome and prevent aminoacyl-tRNA from binding, preventing protein synthesis.They also cause mRNA misreading, resulting in the production of non-functional proteins. This last mechanism is unique to aminoglycosides, and it may explain why they are bactericidal rather than bacteriostatic, as other protein synthesis inhibitors are.Patients with myasthenia gravis should avoid aminoglycosides since they can disrupt neuromuscular transmission. They cross the placenta and are linked to poisoning of the 8th cranial nerve in the foetus, as well as permanent bilateral deafness.It is possible that they will cause deafness, although this is not a contraindication. In individuals with renal impairment, serum aminoglycoside concentrations should be closely monitored, but this is still not considered a contraindication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infections
- Pharmacology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An ambulance transports a 37-year-old woman who is having a seizure. She is moved to resuscitation and given a benzodiazepine dose, which quickly ends the seizure. You later learn that she has epilepsy and is usually treated with carbamazepine to control her seizures.What is carbamazepine's main mechanism of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sodium channel blocker
Explanation:Carbamazepine is primarily used to treat epilepsy, and it is effective for both focal and generalised seizures. It is not, however, effective in the treatment of absence or myoclonic seizures. It’s also commonly used to treat neuropathic pain, as well as a second-line treatment for bipolar disorder and as a supplement for acute alcohol withdrawal.Carbamazepine works as a sodium channel blocker that preferentially binds to voltage-gated sodium channels in their inactive state. This prevents an action potential from firing repeatedly and continuously.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- CNS Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Regarding cardiac excitation-contraction coupling, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The Treppe effect refers to an increase in contractility secondary to an increase in heart rate.
Explanation:Although Ca2+entry during the action potential (AP) is essential for contraction, it only accounts for about 25% of the rise in intracellular Ca2+. The rest is released from Ca2+stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR). In relaxation, about 80% of Ca2+is rapidly pumped back into the SR (sequestered) by Ca2+ATPase pumps. The Ca2+that entered the cell during the AP is transported out of the cell primarily by the Na+/Ca2+exchanger in the membrane. When more action potentials occur per unit time, more Ca2+enters the cell during the AP plateau, more Ca2+is stored in the SR, more Ca2+is released from the SR and thus more Ca2+is left inside the cell and greater tension is produced during contraction. Increased heart rate increases the force of contraction in a stepwise fashion as intracellular [Ca2+] increases cumulatively over several beats; this is the Treppe effect. Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin have a positive inotropic effect.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
- Physiology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman with a skin infection not responding to first-line antibiotics return for a review clinic appointment. The result of her culture shows growth of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).Which among the following antibiotics is methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus usually sensitive to?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Linezolid
Explanation:Historically, MRSA has been treated successfully with outpatient oral sulphonamides, clindamycin, rifampin, doxycycline, or a combination of these agents. With the development of increasing drug resistance of MRSA to these traditional antimicrobials, there has been a search for more effective antibiotics. One recent study demonstrated that vancomycin, linezolid, and quinupristin-dalfopristin were the most effective antibiotics against multiple strains of MRSA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Regarding paracetamol, which of the following statements is CORRECT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It has anti-pyretic action.
Explanation:Paracetamol is a non-opioid analgesic, similar in efficacy to aspirin, with antipyretic properties but no anti-inflammatory properties. It is well absorbed orally and does not cause gastric irritation. Paracetamol is a suitable first-line choice for most people with mild-to-moderate pain, and for combination therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Central Nervous System
- Pharmacology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Chronic myeloid leukaemia is most common in middle-aged and elderly people. It is responsible for 20% of all leukemias.Which of the following statements about CML is NOT TRUE?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum B12 is typically low
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia is most common in middle-aged and elderly people. It is responsible for 20% of all leukemias. The majority of CML patients experience fatigue, weight loss, and excessive sweating.The Philadelphia chromosome is found in over 90% of CML cases. A balanced translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22 is known as the Philadelphia chromosome.Because white cells produce a B12 binding protein, serum B12 levels in CML are typically high.In CML, the neutrophil alkaline phosphatase score is usually low.Almost all patients with CML eventually progress to blast crisis, though this can take up to ten years. If any of the following features are present in a CML patient, a blast crisis is diagnosed:In the blood or bone marrow, there are more than 20% myeloblasts or lymphoblasts.On a bone marrow biopsy, large clusters of blasts were discovered.CML can be treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors like imatinib and dasatinib if a chloroma (a solid tumour made up of myeloblasts that grows outside of the bone marrow) is present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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On ambulatory blood pressure monitoring, a 48-year-old Caucasian man has an average BP reading of 152/96 mmHg (ABPM).Which of the following would be the patient's first-line drug treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:An ambulatory blood pressure reading of >150/95 is classified as stage 2 hypertension, according to the NICE care pathway for hypertension, and the patient should be treated with an antihypertensive drug.A calcium-channel blocker, such as amlodipine, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Afro-Caribbean man.An ACE inhibitor, such as ramipril, or a low-cost angiotensin-II receptor blocker (ARB), such as losartan, would be the most appropriate medication for a 48-year-old Caucasian man.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular Pharmacology
- Pharmacology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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All of the following statements regarding Helicobacter pylori is considered true, except:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum antibody levels should be used to check for successful eradication
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori is a curved, non-spore forming, Gram-negative bacteria that is primarily linked to gastric infections. Once acquired, it colonizes the stomach for a long time and can cause a low-grade inflammatory process, producing a chronic superficial gastritis.H. pylori can be recovered from gastric biopsy materials. Samples must be transported quickly to the laboratory.Helicobacter infections usually are identified by nonculture methods. H. pylori can be presumptively identified in a gastric biopsy specimen by testing for the presence of a rapid urease reaction.Serologic testing is an important screening method for the diagnosis of H. pylori infection. It can also be diagnosed by faecal antigen detection, microscopic examination of stained gastric tissue, and DNA amplification tests.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
- Specific Pathogen Groups
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following is NOT a common clinical manifestation of sickle cell disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron deficiency
Explanation:Signs and symptoms of Sickle cell disease(SCD):Acute and chronic pain: The most common clinical manifestation of SCD is vaso-occlusive crisis; pain crises are the most distinguishing clinical feature of SCDBone pain: Often seen in long bones of extremities, primarily due to bone marrow infarctionAnaemia: Universally present, chronic, and haemolytic in natureAplastic crisis: Serious complication due to infection with parvovirus B19 (B19V)Splenic sequestration: Characterized by the onset of life-threatening anaemia with rapid enlargement of the spleen and high reticulocyte countInfection: Organisms that pose the greatest danger include encapsulated respiratory bacteria, particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae; adult infections are predominantly with gram-negative organisms, especially SalmonellaGrowth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, being underweightHand-foot syndrome: This is a dactylitis presenting as bilateral painful and swollen hands and/or feet in childrenAcute chest syndrome: Young children present with chest pain, fever, cough, tachypnoea, leucocytosis, and pulmonary infiltrates in the upper lobes; adults are usually afebrile, dyspnoeic with severe chest pain, with multilobar/lower lobe diseasePulmonary hypertension: Increasingly recognized as a serious complication of SCDAvascular necrosis of the femoral or humeral head: Due to vascular occlusionCentral nervous system (CNS) involvement: Most severe manifestation is strokeOphthalmologic involvement: Ptosis, retinal vascular changes, proliferative retinitisCardiac involvement: Dilation of both ventricles and the left atriumGastrointestinal involvement: Cholelithiasis is common in children; liver may become involvedGenitourinary involvement: Kidneys lose concentrating capacity; priapism is a well-recognized complication of SCDDermatologic involvement: Leg ulcers are a chronic painful problem
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
- Pathology
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