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Question 1
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of headache, nausea, and vomiting for the past 6 hours. His wife reports that he had a fall one week ago, but did not lose consciousness.
Upon examination, the patient is oriented to person, but not to place and time. His vital signs are within normal limits except for a blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg. Deep tendon reflexes are 4+ on the right and 2+ on the left, and there is mild weakness of his left-sided muscles. Babinski's sign is present on the right. A non-contrast CT scan of the head reveals a hyperdense crescent across the left hemisphere.
What is the likely underlying cause of this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Rupture of middle meningeal artery
Correct Answer: Rupture of bridging veins
Explanation:Subdural hemorrhage occurs when damaged bridging veins between the cortex and venous sinuses bleed. In this patient’s CT scan, a hyperdense crescent-shaped collection is visible on the left hemisphere, indicating subdural hemorrhage. Given the patient’s age and symptoms, this diagnosis is likely.
Ischemic stroke can result from blockage of the anterior or middle cerebral artery. The former typically presents with contralateral motor weakness, while the latter presents with contralateral motor weakness, sensory loss, and hemianopia. If the dominant hemisphere is affected, the patient may also experience aphasia, while hemineglect may occur if the non-dominant hemisphere is affected. Early CT scans may appear normal, but later scans may show hypodense areas in the contralateral parietal and temporal lobes.
Subarachnoid hemorrhage is caused by an aneurysm rupture and presents acutely with a severe headache, photophobia, and meningism. The CT scan would show hyperdense material in the subarachnoid space.
Epidural hematoma results from the rupture of the middle meningeal artery and appears as a biconvex hyperdense collection between the brain and skull.
Understanding Subdural Haemorrhage
Subdural haemorrhage is a condition where blood accumulates beneath the dural layer of the meninges. This type of bleeding is not within the brain tissue and is referred to as an extra-axial or extrinsic lesion. Subdural haematomas can be classified into three types based on their age: acute, subacute, and chronic.
Acute subdural haematomas are caused by high-impact trauma and are associated with other brain injuries. Symptoms and severity of presentation vary depending on the size of the compressive acute subdural haematoma and the associated injuries. CT imaging is the first-line investigation, and surgical options include monitoring of intracranial pressure and decompressive craniectomy.
Chronic subdural haematomas, on the other hand, are collections of blood within the subdural space that have been present for weeks to months. They are caused by the rupture of small bridging veins within the subdural space, which leads to slow bleeding. Elderly and alcoholic patients are particularly at risk of subdural haematomas due to brain atrophy and fragile or taut bridging veins. Infants can also experience subdural haematomas due to fragile bridging veins rupturing in shaken baby syndrome.
Chronic subdural haematomas typically present with a progressive history of confusion, reduced consciousness, or neurological deficit. CT imaging shows a crescentic shape, not restricted by suture lines, and compresses the brain. Unlike acute subdurals, chronic subdurals are hypodense compared to the substance of the brain. Treatment options depend on the size and severity of the haematoma, with conservative management or surgical decompression with burr holes being the main options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Correct
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The femoral nerve is accidentally severed by a negligent surgeon during a failed femoro-popliteal bypass surgery. What function will be affected?
Your Answer: Extension of the knee joint
Explanation:The quadriceps muscle, which is responsible for knee joint extension, is supplied by the femoral nerve.
The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.
To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female undergoes an emergency caesarean section due to failed induction of labor and a macrosomic baby. After delivery, she is transferred to the postnatal ward. However, prior to discharge, she complains of abdominal pain, has a fever of 39ºC, and a tachycardia of 106 bpm. A CT scan reveals the presence of fluid accumulation in the retroperitoneal space. What is the probable cause of these CT findings?
Your Answer: Uterine rupture
Correct Answer: Ureteral injury during caesarean section
Explanation:If the ureters are damaged during a caesarean section, it can cause fluid to accumulate in the retroperitoneal area. This can lead to pain and inflammation, which may present as fever and a rapid heartbeat. Ovarian thrombus is a rare complication that can occur after a caesarean section. CT scans can show filling defects and an increased diameter in the affected vein. The pyloric antrum is located near the bottom of the stomach, close to the pyloric sphincter. Since the stomach is an intraperitoneal organ in the left upper quadrant, it is unlikely to be lacerated during a caesarean section. Any damage to the stomach would not result in retroperitoneal fluid accumulation.
The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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What is the cutaneous sensory organ that has a histological structure resembling the layers of an onion when viewed in cross-section?
Your Answer: Golgi tendon organs
Correct Answer: Pacinian corpuscles
Explanation:Types of Skin Receptors
Pacinian corpuscles, free nerve endings, Meissner’s corpuscles, and Merkel cells are all types of skin receptors that play a role in sensory perception. Pacinian corpuscles are located deep in the dermis and are responsible for detecting pressure and vibration. They are made up of concentric rings of Schwann cells surrounding a nerve ending, giving them a distinctive onion-like appearance. Free nerve endings, on the other hand, are primary sensory afferents that are found throughout the dermal tissue and act as pain and temperature receptors.
Meissner’s corpuscles are touch receptors that are primarily located on the hands and feet. They are formed of spirally arranged cells in a fibrous coating, allowing them to detect light touch and changes in texture. Finally, Merkel cells are single cells that are found in the epidermis and function as slowly adapting touch receptors. They are similar in appearance to melanocytes but lack cytoplasmic processes.
In summary, these different types of skin receptors work together to provide us with a complex sensory experience, allowing us to perceive pressure, vibration, pain, temperature, and touch.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Histology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A research group evaluating the effectiveness of a new exercise program in reducing blood pressure. A group of 200 volunteers was recruited. Half of the volunteers were over the age of 50 and were given the exercise program. The other half of the volunteers were under the age of 50 and were not given the exercise program.
The group was followed-up over the next 6 months. Blood pressure readings were taken at the beginning and end of the study. Results were divided into 2 categories: volunteers who had a decrease in blood pressure and volunteers who did not have a decrease in blood pressure.
At the end of the study, the results obtained were as follows:
Outcome Exercise program No exercise program
Decrease in blood pressure (over 50 years old) 25 10
Decrease in blood pressure (under 50 years old) 20 15
No decrease in blood pressure (over 50 years old) 10 15
No decrease in blood pressure (under 50 years old) 30 30
The researchers are unsure of the significance of the results obtained.
Which of the following statistical tests would be most appropriate?Your Answer: Paired t-test
Correct Answer: Pearson's chi-square test
Explanation:The paired t-test is a statistical test used to compare the means of two related groups, such as before and after measurements of the same individuals. It is appropriate when the data is continuous and normally distributed.
Types of Significance Tests
Significance tests are used to determine whether the results of a study are statistically significant or simply due to chance. The type of significance test used depends on the type of data being analyzed. Parametric tests are used for data that can be measured and are usually normally distributed, while non-parametric tests are used for data that cannot be measured in this way.
Parametric tests include the Student’s t-test, which can be paired or unpaired, and Pearson’s product-moment coefficient, which is used for correlation analysis. Non-parametric tests include the Mann-Whitney U test, which compares ordinal, interval, or ratio scales of unpaired data, and the Wilcoxon signed-rank test, which compares two sets of observations on a single sample. The chi-squared test is used to compare proportions or percentages, while Spearman and Kendall rank are used for correlation analysis.
It is important to choose the appropriate significance test for the type of data being analyzed in order to obtain accurate and reliable results. By understanding the different types of significance tests available, researchers can make informed decisions about which test to use for their particular study.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old amateur cricketer complains of a painful and stiff right shoulder following a match. Upon examination, there is tenderness around the shoulder joint. The patient experiences significant difficulty in abducting the joint initially, but can lift it fully with the assistance of his left hand. Which rotator cuff muscle is the most likely culprit?
Your Answer: Teres minor
Correct Answer: Supraspinatus
Explanation:The Role of Rotator Cuff Muscles in Shoulder Abduction
The rotator cuff muscles, including subscapularis, infraspinatus, teres minor, and supraspinatus, play a crucial role in shoulder joint movements. However, teres major is not one of the rotator cuff muscles. Specifically, supraspinatus assists in the initial abduction of the shoulder, originating from the supraspinous fossa and inserting in the greater tubercle of the humerus, passing under the acromion.
As the shoulder is abducted beyond 30 degrees, the deltoid muscle takes over most of the movement. Therefore, if there is a tear in the supraspinatus muscle, initial movement may be difficult, but abduction can be achieved more easily once the limb is abducted to 30 degrees. These types of tears are more common in the elderly and in sports that require rapid overhead throwing movements, such as cricket or baseball.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man has been experiencing acute breathlessness and fatigue alongside his pre-existing myelodysplastic syndrome. Upon initial blood tests, a significantly elevated white cell count with a high percentage of blast cells was observed. A subsequent bone marrow biopsy has confirmed a transformation to acute myeloid leukemia.
In order to gain a better understanding of his prognosis, what biochemical technique can be utilized to identify mutated oncogenes?Your Answer: Absorption spectroscopy
Correct Answer: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
Explanation:Polymerase chain reactions are commonly utilized to identify mutated oncogenes. This technique involves the use of specific primers that bind to a particular segment of genetic material. If the targeted sequence is present, the DNA is amplified, doubling in quantity during each cycle. Various methods are then employed to determine whether the target DNA sequence has indeed been amplified and is present.
Absorption spectroscopy is a technique that utilizes light absorption to measure the concentrations of absorptive substances in a solution. It does not play a role in detecting oncogenes.
Emulsion tests are used to detect lipids, not DNA.
ELISA testing is an immunological technique that can identify various peptides, proteins, antibodies, and antigens. It is notably used to diagnose HIV through the detection of antibodies.
Similarly, western blotting is a technique used to detect proteins, not DNA.
Reverse Transcriptase PCR
Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.
To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.
The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits the physician's clinic with indications of premature ejaculation, which is believed to be caused by hypersensitivity of the reflex arc.
Can you identify the correct description of this reflex arc?Your Answer: Ejaculation is controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system at the S2-S4 level
Correct Answer: Ejaculation is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system at the L1 level
Explanation:The correct statement is that ejaculation is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system at the L1 level. This is because the preganglionic sympathetic cell bodies responsible for ejaculation are located in the central autonomic region of the T12-L1 segments. It is important to note that erection is controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system at the S2-S4 level, and not by the pudendal nerve, which is responsible for supplying sensation to the penis.
Anatomy of the Sympathetic Nervous System
The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response in the body. The preganglionic efferent neurons of this system are located in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoraco-lumbar regions. These neurons leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2 and pass to the sympathetic chain. The sympathetic chain lies on the vertebral column and runs from the base of the skull to the coccyx. It is connected to every spinal nerve through lateral branches, which then pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.
The sympathetic ganglia are also an important part of this system. The superior cervical ganglion lies anterior to C2 and C3, while the middle cervical ganglion (if present) is located at C6. The stellate ganglion is found anterior to the transverse process of C7 and lies posterior to the subclavian artery, vertebral artery, and cervical pleura. The thoracic ganglia are segmentally arranged, and there are usually four lumbar ganglia.
Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves can result in an ipsilateral Horners syndrome. For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. However, removal of T1 is not performed as it can cause a Horners syndrome. In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, a lumbar sympathetomy may be performed either radiologically or surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted, but if L1 is removed, ejaculation may be compromised, and little additional benefit is conferred as the preganglionic fibres do not arise below L2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a seizure. According to his mother, the twitching started in his right hand while he was having breakfast, then spread to his arm and face, and eventually affected his entire body. The seizure lasted for a few minutes, and afterward, he felt groggy and had no recollection of what happened.
Which part of the boy's brain was impacted by the seizure?Your Answer: Parietal lobe
Correct Answer: Frontal lobe
Explanation:The correct location for a seizure with progressive clonic movements travelling from a distal site (fingers) proximally, known as a Jacksonian march, is the frontal lobe. Seizures in the occipital lobe present with visual disturbances, while seizures in the parietal lobe result in sensory changes and seizures in the temporal lobe present with hallucinations and automatisms. Absence seizures are associated with the thalamus and are characterized by brief losses of consciousness without postictal fatigue or grogginess.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a result of somatostatin?
Your Answer: It decreases gastric acid secretion
Correct Answer: It stimulates pancreatic acinar cells to release lipase
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Secretions for Surgical Procedures
A basic understanding of gastric secretions is crucial for surgeons, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Gastric acid, produced by the parietal cells in the stomach, has a pH of around 2 and is maintained by the H+/K+ ATPase pump. Sodium and chloride ions are actively secreted from the parietal cell into the canaliculus, creating a negative potential across the membrane. Carbonic anhydrase forms carbonic acid, which dissociates, and the hydrogen ions formed by dissociation leave the cell via the H+/K+ antiporter pump. This leaves hydrogen and chloride ions in the canaliculus, which mix and are secreted into the lumen of the oxyntic gland.
There are three phases of gastric secretion: the cephalic phase, gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase is stimulated by the smell or taste of food and causes 30% of acid production. The gastric phase, which is caused by stomach distension, low H+, or peptides, causes 60% of acid production. The intestinal phase, which is caused by high acidity, distension, or hypertonic solutions in the duodenum, inhibits gastric acid secretion via enterogastrones and neural reflexes.
The regulation of gastric acid production involves various factors that increase or decrease production. Factors that increase production include vagal nerve stimulation, gastrin release, and histamine release. Factors that decrease production include somatostatin, cholecystokinin, and secretin. Understanding these factors and their associated pharmacology is essential for surgeons.
In summary, a working knowledge of gastric secretions is crucial for surgical procedures, especially when dealing with patients who have undergone acid-lowering procedures or are prescribed anti-secretory drugs. Understanding the phases of gastric secretion and the regulation of gastric acid production is essential for successful surgical outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old male presents with weakness in his wrist and his fingers. His hand appears 'clawed' with wasting of the lumbrical muscles and hypothenar eminence noted. There is numbness over his ring and little finger. He reports having fractured his arm eight weeks ago when he fell from his skateboard but adhered to keeping it immobilised in a cast as advised.
What injury is likely to have caused this patient's presentation?Your Answer: Distal radius fracture
Correct Answer: Medial epicondyle fracture
Explanation:Humeral shaft fractures can result in a radial nerve palsy, also known as ‘Saturday night palsy’. This condition is characterized by wrist drop, which is the loss of function in the wrist and hand extensor muscles, as well as the inability to form a strong grip and loss of sensation in the first dorsal interosseous muscle.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with a painless visual disturbance that started 2 hours ago. She has a medical history of hypertension and dyslipidemia.
During the examination, there is no facial asymmetry, and the patient appears comfortable. The visual field test shows homonymous hemianopia on the right side, and automated perimetry indicates macular sparing. The patient is unable to name familiar objects, such as a pen or a spoon.
Which artery is most likely to have been occluded?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior cerebral artery
Explanation:The correct answer is the posterior cerebral artery. When a lesion occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, it can result in contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. This is because the visual cortex is supplied by the posterior cerebral artery, which is responsible for the patient’s symptoms. The macula is usually spared because the posterior pole of the occipital cortex, which processes visual signals from the macula, receives collateral flow from the middle cerebral artery.
On the other hand, lesions in the anterior cerebral artery, which supplies the frontal cortex, can cause contralateral hemiparesis, altered sensorium, and aphasia. Meanwhile, occlusion of the anterior inferior cerebellar artery, which supplies the lateral pons, can lead to sudden onset vertigo, vomiting, ataxia, nystagmus, and dysarthria.
Lastly, the central retinal artery is not the correct answer as occlusion of this artery typically results in amaurosis fugax, which is a painless transient ‘descending curtain’ visual field defect, rather than homonymous hemianopia.
Stroke can affect different parts of the brain depending on which artery is affected. If the anterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. If the middle cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience weakness and loss of sensation on the opposite side of the body, with the upper extremities being more affected than the lower. They may also experience vision loss and difficulty with language. If the posterior cerebral artery is affected, the person may experience vision loss and difficulty recognizing objects.
Lacunar strokes are a type of stroke that are strongly associated with hypertension. They typically present with isolated weakness or loss of sensation on one side of the body, or weakness with difficulty coordinating movements. They often occur in the basal ganglia, thalamus, or internal capsule.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and swollen lips following a wasp sting. His vital signs are as follows:
Heart rate: 120 bpm
Blood pressure: 105/65 mmHg
Respiratory rate: 30 per minute
SpO2: 92%
Temperature: 36.9ºC
What is the immediate treatment that should be administered based on the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM adrenaline
Explanation:In the treatment of anaphylaxis, IM adrenaline holds the utmost significance while hydrocortisone/chlorphenamine are no more administered.
Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically develop suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, and stridor are common airway problems, while respiratory wheeze and dyspnea are common breathing problems. Hypotension and tachycardia are common circulation problems. Skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus and widespread erythematous or urticarial rash, are also present in around 80-90% of patients.
The most important drug in the management of anaphylaxis is intramuscular adrenaline, which should be administered as soon as possible. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, with the highest dose being 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years old. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary. If the patient’s respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems persist despite two doses of IM adrenaline, IV fluids should be given for shock, and expert help should be sought for consideration of an IV adrenaline infusion.
Following stabilisation, non-sedating oral antihistamines may be given to patients with persisting skin symptoms. Patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis should be referred to a specialist allergy clinic, and an adrenaline injector should be given as an interim measure before the specialist allergy assessment. Patients should be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors, and training should be provided on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and have been given an adrenaline auto-injector and trained how to use it. Patients who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have had a previous biphasic reaction should be observed for a minimum of 6 hours after symptom resolution, while those who have had a severe reaction requiring more than two doses of IM adrenaline or have severe asthma should be observed for a minimum of 12 hours after symptom resolution. Patients who present late at night or in areas where access to emergency care may be difficult should also be observed for a minimum of 12
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the emergency department after collapsing while shopping. He is experiencing profuse sweating and has a blood pressure of 98/63 mmHg. The patient reports severe epigastric pain as his only complaint.
The suspected cause of his symptoms is peptic ulcer disease, which may have caused erosion into a blood vessel. Upon endoscopy, a perforation is discovered in the posterior medial wall of the second part of the duodenum.
What is the most likely blood vessel that has been affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:The gastroduodenal artery is a potential source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding that can occur as a complication of peptic ulcer disease. The most likely diagnosis based on the given clinical information is peptic ulcer disease, which can cause the ulcer to penetrate through the posteromedial wall of the second part of the duodenum and into the gastroduodenal artery. This can result in a severe gastrointestinal bleed, leading to shock, which may present with symptoms such as low blood pressure, sweating, and collapse.
The answers Splenic artery, Left gastric artery, and Coeliac trunk are incorrect. The splenic artery runs behind the stomach and connects the coeliac trunk to the spleen, and does not pass near the second part of the duodenum. The left gastric artery runs along the small curvature of the stomach and supplies that region, and does not pass through the posteromedial wall of the duodenum. The coeliac trunk arises from the abdominal aorta at the level of T12 and gives rise to the splenic, left gastric, and common hepatic arteries, but does not lie near the second part of the duodenum.
Managing Acute Bleeding in Peptic Ulcer Disease
Peptic ulcer disease is a condition that can lead to acute bleeding, which is the most common complication of the disease. In fact, bleeding accounts for about three-quarters of all problems associated with peptic ulcer disease. The gastroduodenal artery is often the source of significant gastrointestinal bleeding in patients with this condition. The most common symptom of acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease is haematemesis, but patients may also experience melaena, hypotension, and tachycardia.
When managing acute bleeding in peptic ulcer disease, an ABC approach should be taken, as with any upper gastrointestinal haemorrhage. Intravenous proton pump inhibitors are the first-line treatment, and endoscopic intervention is typically the preferred approach. However, if endoscopic intervention fails (which occurs in approximately 10% of patients), urgent interventional angiography with transarterial embolization or surgery may be necessary. By following these management strategies, healthcare providers can effectively address acute bleeding in patients with peptic ulcer disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a fall and is diagnosed with self-neglect. He reports experiencing fatigue, paraesthesia in his lower limbs, and overall muscle weakness that is more pronounced in his legs for the past 3 months. He has been finding it difficult to carry out his daily activities, especially cooking, due to his inability to stand for long periods of time.
What vitamin deficiency is most likely causing his symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12
Explanation:Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in a deficiency of vitamin B12 due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious refers to the gradual and subtle harm caused by the condition, which often leads to delayed diagnosis. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition. The condition is characterized by the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells, which can lead to reduced vitamin B12 absorption and subsequent megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Pernicious anaemia is more common in middle to old age females and is associated with other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid, and vitiligo. Symptoms of the condition include anaemia, lethargy, pallor, dyspnoea, peripheral neuropathy, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, neuropsychiatric features, mild jaundice, and glossitis. Diagnosis is made through a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and the presence of antibodies.
Management of pernicious anaemia involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly. Patients with neurological features may require more frequent doses. Folic acid supplementation may also be necessary. Complications of the condition include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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At what age is a child most vulnerable to infection due to their underdeveloped humoral response, and what type of antibodies can they receive from their mother during pregnancy?
A child in the early stages of life may be susceptible to infections as their humoral response is not yet fully developed. However, during pregnancy, a mother can pass on some immunity to her child through the placenta. Which specific type of antibodies are capable of crossing the placental barrier?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IgG
Explanation:IgG is the sole antibody that can cross the placenta and complement deficiencies. This is achieved through receptor-mediated active transport, which is highly specific to IgG. The transfer of this antibody is contingent on a healthy placenta. The transfer process commences at 17 weeks of gestation and intensifies to the point where fetal IgG levels surpass maternal levels at 40 weeks. No other antibodies are transferred.
Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.
IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.
IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.
IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.
IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.
IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male patient is referred to the upper GI clinic under the two-week rule. His daughter first noticed that his skin and eyes are becoming yellow. His past medical history includes neurofibromatosis type 1. He was recently diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes mellitus however the blood glucose has been very poorly controlled despite maximum therapy of metformin and gliclazide. On examination, he is jaundiced. There is mild discomfort in the epigastric region and the right upper quadrant. An urgent abdominal CT scan shows a mass arising from the head of the pancreas and dilated common bile duct. A subsequent endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) and biopsy confirms a pancreatic somatostatinoma.
From which cells in the pancreas is this tumour originating?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: D cells
Explanation:Overview of Gastrointestinal Hormones
Gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in the digestion and absorption of food. These hormones are secreted by various cells in the stomach and small intestine in response to different stimuli such as the presence of food, pH changes, and neural signals.
One of the major hormones involved in food digestion is gastrin, which is secreted by G cells in the antrum of the stomach. Gastrin increases acid secretion by gastric parietal cells, stimulates the secretion of pepsinogen and intrinsic factor, and increases gastric motility. Another hormone, cholecystokinin (CCK), is secreted by I cells in the upper small intestine in response to partially digested proteins and triglycerides. CCK increases the secretion of enzyme-rich fluid from the pancreas, contraction of the gallbladder, and relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi. It also decreases gastric emptying and induces satiety.
Secretin is another hormone secreted by S cells in the upper small intestine in response to acidic chyme and fatty acids. Secretin increases the secretion of bicarbonate-rich fluid from the pancreas and hepatic duct cells, decreases gastric acid secretion, and has a trophic effect on pancreatic acinar cells. Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP) is a neural hormone that stimulates secretion by the pancreas and intestines and inhibits acid secretion.
Finally, somatostatin is secreted by D cells in the pancreas and stomach in response to fat, bile salts, and glucose in the intestinal lumen. Somatostatin decreases acid and pepsin secretion, decreases gastrin secretion, decreases pancreatic enzyme secretion, and decreases insulin and glucagon secretion. It also inhibits the trophic effects of gastrin and stimulates gastric mucous production.
In summary, gastrointestinal hormones play a crucial role in regulating the digestive process and maintaining homeostasis in the gastrointestinal tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman complains of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhoea for the past year. She also experiences occasional headaches. During examination, she was found to have bitemporal superior quadrantanopia. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prolactinoma
Explanation:Prolactinomas cause amenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea. If the tumour extends outside the sella, visual field defects or other mass effects may occur. Other types of tumours will produce different symptoms depending on their location and structure involved. Craniopharyngiomas originate from the pituitary gland and will produce poralhemianopia if large enough, as well as symptoms related to pituitary hormones. Non-functioning pituitary tumours will have similar symptoms without the pituitary hormone side effects. Tumours of the hypothalamus will present with symptoms of euphoria, headache, weight loss, and mass effect if large enough.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following genes is not involved in the adenoma-carcinoma sequence of colorectal cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: src
Explanation:Additional genes implicated include MCC, DCC, c-yes, and bcl-2.
Colorectal cancer is a prevalent type of cancer in the UK, ranking third in terms of frequency and second in terms of cancer-related deaths. Every year, approximately 150,000 new cases are diagnosed, and 50,000 people die from the disease. The cancer can occur in different parts of the colon, with the rectum being the most common location, accounting for 40% of cases. The sigmoid colon follows closely, with 30% of cases, while the descending colon has only 5%. The transverse colon has 10% of cases, and the ascending colon and caecum have 15%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman complains of persistent diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing. During the physical examination, an irregular pulsatile hepatomegaly and a pansystolic murmur that is most pronounced during inspiration are detected. What diagnostic test could provide insight into the probable underlying condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urinary 5-HIAA (5-hydroxyindole acetic acid)
Explanation:Carcinoid Syndrome and its Diagnosis
Carcinoid syndrome is characterized by the presence of vasoactive amines such as serotonin in the bloodstream, leading to various clinical features. The primary carcinoid tumor is usually found in the small intestine or appendix, but it may not cause significant symptoms as the liver detoxifies the blood of these amines. However, systemic effects occur when malignant cells spread to other organs, such as the lungs, which are not part of the portal circulation. One of the complications of carcinoid syndrome is damage to the right heart valves, which can cause tricuspid regurgitation, as evidenced by a pulsatile liver and pansystolic murmur.
To diagnose carcinoid syndrome, the 5-HIAA test is usually performed, which measures the breakdown product of serotonin in a 24-hour urine collection. If the test is positive, imaging and histology are necessary to confirm malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old girl comes to the hospital with symptoms indicating Turner syndrome. What is the underlying genetic cause of this disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autosomal dominant defect
Explanation:Achondroplasia is typically the result of a random mutation and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner.
Achondroplasia is a genetic disorder that causes short stature due to abnormal cartilage development. It is caused by a mutation in the FGFR-3 gene and is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The condition is characterized by short limbs with shortened fingers, a large head with frontal bossing and narrow foramen magnum, midface hypoplasia with a flattened nasal bridge, ‘trident’ hands, and lumbar lordosis. In most cases, it occurs as a sporadic mutation, with advancing parental age being a risk factor.
There is currently no specific treatment for achondroplasia. However, some individuals may benefit from limb lengthening procedures, which involve the use of Ilizarov frames and targeted bone fractures. It is important to have a clearly defined need and end point for these procedures in order to achieve success.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 32-year old woman with asthma presents to the Emergency department with difficulty breathing. Upon examination, you observe that she is utilizing accessory muscles for respiration. Can you identify which muscle is considered an accessory muscle of respiration?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serratus anterior
Explanation:Accessory Muscles of Respiration
The accessory muscles of respiration are utilized during deep inspiration and consist of several muscles. These muscles include the sternocleidomastoid, scalenus anterior, medius, and posterior, serratus anterior, and pectoralis major and minor. However, there is no consensus on the exact number of muscles that can be classified as ‘accessory’. Some lists include any muscle that can impact chest expansion. It is important to note that the trapezius muscle cannot be considered an accessory muscle of respiration as it is not connected to the ribs. Overall, the accessory muscles of respiration play a crucial role in deep breathing and chest expansion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with laryngeal cancer is undergoing a challenging laryngectomy. During the procedure, the surgeons cut the thyrocervical trunk. What vessel does this structure typically originate from?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subclavian artery
Explanation:The subclavian artery gives rise to the thyrocervical trunk, which emerges from the first part of the artery located between the inner border of scalenus anterior and the subclavian artery. The thyrocervical trunk branches off from the subclavian artery after the vertebral artery.
Thoracic Outlet: Where the Subclavian Artery and Vein and Brachial Plexus Exit the Thorax
The thoracic outlet is the area where the subclavian artery and vein and the brachial plexus exit the thorax and enter the arm. This passage occurs over the first rib and under the clavicle. The subclavian vein is the most anterior structure and is located immediately in front of scalenus anterior and its attachment to the first rib. Scalenus anterior has two parts, and the subclavian artery leaves the thorax by passing over the first rib and between these two portions of the muscle. At the level of the first rib, the lower cervical nerve roots combine to form the three trunks of the brachial plexus. The lowest trunk is formed by the union of C8 and T1, and this trunk lies directly posterior to the artery and is in contact with the superior surface of the first rib.
Thoracic outlet obstruction can cause neurovascular compromise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with excessive epistaxis. Despite applying pressure on the anterior nares for the past four hours, the bleeding has not stopped. Nasal packing has also failed to control the bleeding. The on-call ENT specialist administers topical tranexamic acid to a visibly bleeding artery, which results in a reduction in bleeding.
What is the mode of action of tranexamic acid?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prevents plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots
Explanation:Tranexamic acid prevents major haemorrhage by binding to plasminogen and preventing plasmin from breaking down fibrin clots. Its mechanism of action is not related to increasing the availability of vitamin K or inhibiting anticlotting factors protein C and S. Similarly, reducing the availability of vitamin K would not be the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid. While stimulating anticlotting factors protein C and S would maintain clots, it is not the mechanism of action of tranexamic acid.
Understanding Tranexamic Acid
Tranexamic acid is a synthetic derivative of lysine that acts as an antifibrinolytic. Its primary function is to bind to lysine receptor sites on plasminogen or plasmin, preventing plasmin from degrading fibrin. This medication is commonly prescribed to treat menorrhagia.
In addition to its use in treating menorrhagia, tranexamic acid has been investigated for its role in trauma. The CRASH 2 trial found that administering tranexamic acid within the first 3 hours of bleeding trauma can be beneficial. In cases of major haemorrhage, tranexamic acid is given as an IV bolus followed by an infusion.
Ongoing research is also exploring the potential of tranexamic acid in treating traumatic brain injury. Overall, tranexamic acid is a medication with important applications in managing bleeding disorders and trauma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old patient is admitted for surgery after fracturing their tibia in a car accident. 24 hours after the operation, the patient reports experiencing severe pain and tingling sensations. Upon examination, the anterior leg appears red, swollen, and feels cooler than the rest of the limb. Dorsiflexion of the foot is impaired, and there is a loss of sensation over the first and second toes. The intracompartmental pressure of the anterior compartment measures 40mmHg. A weak pulse is palpated just lateral to the extensor hallucis longus tendon. Which artery's pulse is felt at this anatomical site?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dorsalis pedis artery
Explanation:The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a young patient in primary care who has a significant family history of multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1. Although genetic testing has confirmed an abnormal genetic profile, the patient has not yet exhibited any clinical manifestations of the disease.
What is the genetic term used to describe conditions where the genotype is abnormal, but the phenotype remains normal?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Low penetrance
Explanation:When a condition has low genetic penetrance, it may not show many clinical signs or symptoms, and the patient may appear normal, despite having an abnormal genetic profile. This is because the severity of the phenotype is determined by the penetrance of the genotype. If the condition has high penetrance, the phenotype is more likely to be expressed, resulting in more signs and symptoms.
Autosomal Dominant Inheritance: Characteristics and Complicating Factors
Autosomal dominant diseases are genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. This means that both homozygotes and heterozygotes manifest the disease, and there is no carrier state. Both males and females can be affected, and only affected individuals can pass on the disease. The disease is passed on to 50% of children, and it normally appears in every generation. The risk remains the same for each successive pregnancy.
However, there are complicating factors that can affect the inheritance of autosomal dominant diseases. One of these factors is non-penetrance, which refers to the lack of clinical signs and symptoms despite having an abnormal gene. For example, 40% of individuals with otosclerosis may not show any symptoms. Another complicating factor is spontaneous mutation, which occurs when there is a new mutation in one of the gametes. This means that 80% of individuals with achondroplasia have unaffected parents.
In summary, autosomal dominant inheritance is characterized by certain patterns of inheritance, but there are also complicating factors that can affect the expression of the disease. Understanding these factors is important for genetic counseling and for predicting the risk of passing on the disease to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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What is true about dependent variables?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They are affected by changes of independent variables
Explanation:Understanding Variables in Research
Variables are characteristics, numbers, or quantities that can be measured or counted. They are also known as data items and can vary between data units in a population. Examples of variables include age, sex, income, expenses, and grades. In a typical study, there are three main variables: independent, dependent, and controlled.
The independent variable is the one that the researcher purposely changes during the investigation. The dependent variable is the one that is observed and changes in response to the independent variable. Controlled variables are those that are not changed during the experiment.
Dependent variables are affected by independent variables but not by controlled variables. For instance, in a weight loss medication study, the dosage of the medication is the independent variable, while the weight of the participants is the dependent variable. The researcher splits the participants into three groups, with each group receiving a different dosage of the medication. After six months, the participants’ weights are measured.
Understanding variables is crucial in research as it helps researchers to identify the factors that influence the outcome of their studies. By manipulating the independent variable, researchers can observe how it affects the dependent variable. Controlled variables help to ensure that the results are accurate and reliable.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man is admitted to the coronary care unit after being hospitalized three weeks ago for an ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He reports chest pain again and is concerned it may be another infarction. The pain is described as sharp and worsens with breathing. The cardiology resident notes a fever and hears a rubbing sound and pansystolic murmur on auscultation, which were previously present. A 12-lead ECG shows no new ischemic changes. The patient has a history of diabetes, hypertension, and heavy smoking since his teenage years. What is the most likely cause of his current condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Autoimmune-mediated
Explanation:Dressler’s syndrome is an autoimmune-mediated pericarditis that occurs 2-6 weeks after a myocardial infarction (MI). This patient, who has been admitted to the coronary care unit following an MI, is experiencing chest pain that is pleuritic in nature, along with fever and a friction rub sound upon examination. Given the timing of the symptoms at three weeks post-MI, Dressler’s syndrome is the most likely diagnosis. This condition results from an autoimmune-mediated inflammatory reaction to antigens following an MI, leading to inflammation of the pericardial sac and pericardial effusion. If left untreated, it can increase the risk of ventricular rupture. Treatment typically involves high-dose aspirin and corticosteroids if necessary.
Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a large part of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, and it is difficult to treat. Chronic heart failure may result from ventricular myocardium dysfunction, which can be managed with loop diuretics, ACE-inhibitors, and beta-blockers. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI. Pericarditis is common in the first 48 hours after a transmural MI, while Dressler’s syndrome may occur 2-6 weeks later. Left ventricular aneurysm and free wall rupture, ventricular septal defect, and acute mitral regurgitation are other complications that may require urgent medical attention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old female comes to see you with a complaint of right wrist pain that has been bothering her for the past two months. She mentions having difficulty buttoning up her clothes with her right hand. During your examination, you observe that she struggles to pick up a pen with her index finger and thumb, indicating impairment of her pincer grip. Based on these findings, you suspect that she may have sustained damage to her anterior interosseous nerve.
What muscle is innervated by this nerve?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor pollicis longus
Explanation:The flexor pollicis longus muscle is innervated by the anterior interosseous nerve, which is a branch of the median nerve. This nerve also innervates the pronator quadratus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles. If this nerve is damaged, it can result in weakness of the pincer grip, as observed in the patient. The ulnar nerve innervates the adductor pollicis muscle, while the radial nerve innervates the abductor pollicis longus muscle. The tibial nerve innervates the flexor digitorum brevis muscle.
The anterior interosseous nerve is a branch of the median nerve that supplies the deep muscles on the front of the forearm, excluding the ulnar half of the flexor digitorum profundus. It runs alongside the anterior interosseous artery along the anterior of the interosseous membrane of the forearm, between the flexor pollicis longus and flexor digitorum profundus. The nerve supplies the whole of the flexor pollicis longus and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus, and ends below in the pronator quadratus and wrist joint. The anterior interosseous nerve innervates 2.5 muscles, namely the flexor pollicis longus, pronator quadratus, and the radial half of the flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles are located in the deep level of the anterior compartment of the forearm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old rock climber suffers a fall onto his left arm resulting in a significant haematoma in the left upper arm. Regrettably, the wound is left unattended and becomes infected. Which of the following alterations is the least probable to happen?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leucopenia
Explanation:If leucopenia is present, it would be atypical and necessitate an investigation for an alternative underlying factor.
Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.
The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.
Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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