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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman, in good health, visits your clinic with a complaint of an itchy, watery, red right eye that has been bothering her for one day. She reports no vision problems and there is no discharge from the eye. Upon examination, you observe chemosis and redness in the affected eye. What is the most appropriate course of action to take next?
Your Answer: Give patient a short course of oral antihistamine
Correct Answer: Give patient topical antihistamine
Explanation:Ocular Allergic Reaction: Symptoms and Management
An ocular allergic reaction is a common condition that is usually self-limiting and doesn’t require any specific treatment. It is characterized by symptoms such as itching, redness, and swelling of the eyes. In most cases, no specific cause is found, and the condition is bilateral and seasonal.
Symptomatic management is the best approach for this condition. A short course of topical antihistamine is the most effective treatment option among the five choices available. This medication can help alleviate the symptoms and provide relief to the patient. It is important to note that if the symptoms persist or worsen, a visit to an ophthalmologist may be necessary to rule out any underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female who is being investigated for secondary amenorrhoea comes in with yellowing of the eyes. During the examination, spider naevi are observed, and the liver is tender and enlarged. The following blood tests are conducted:
- Hemoglobin (Hb): 11.6 g/dl
- Platelets (Plt): 145 * 109/l
- White blood cell count (WCC): 6.4 * 109/l
- Albumin: 33 g/l
- Bilirubin: 78 µmol/l
- Alanine transaminase (ALT): 245 iu/l
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Primary biliary cirrhosis
Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis
Explanation:When a young female experiences both abnormal liver function tests and a lack of menstrual periods, it is highly indicative of autoimmune hepatitis.
Autoimmune hepatitis is a condition that affects young females and has an unknown cause. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, hypergammaglobulinaemia, and HLA B8, DR3. There are three types of autoimmune hepatitis, which are classified based on the types of circulating antibodies present. Type I affects both adults and children and is characterized by the presence of Antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies (SMA). Type II affects children only and is characterized by the presence of anti-liver/kidney microsomal type 1 antibodies (LKM1). Type III affects adults in middle-age and is characterized by the presence of soluble liver-kidney antigen.
The symptoms of autoimmune hepatitis may include signs of chronic liver disease, acute hepatitis (which only 25% of patients present with), amenorrhoea (which is common), the presence of ANA/SMA/LKM1 antibodies, raised IgG levels, and liver biopsy showing inflammation extending beyond the limiting plate ‘piecemeal necrosis’ and bridging necrosis. The management of autoimmune hepatitis involves the use of steroids and other immunosuppressants such as azathioprine. In severe cases, liver transplantation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old gentleman presents for a medication review. He is currently on sildenafil for erectile dysfunction and has a longstanding history of stable angina. Which of the following medications should be avoided in this patient?
Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Correct Answer: Carvedilol
Explanation:Sildenafil: A Treatment for Impotence
Sildenafil is a well-established treatment for impotence that works by inhibiting phosphodiesterase type 5, which produces cavernous venodilation and erections in appropriately stimulated patients. It is important to note that sildenafil doesn’t increase sex drive or libido.
While sildenafil is not contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease, it is contraindicated in subjects taking nitrates due to the potential for severe hypotension. Additionally, drugs like nicorandil are inadvisable due to the nitrate component.
Common side effects of sildenafil include flushing, which develops in the majority of patients, as well as nasal congestion and blue visual discolouration. It is important to discuss any potential risks and benefits of sildenafil with a healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Improving Quality, Safety And Prescribing
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Question 4
Correct
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A 42-year-old female patient complains of left-sided facial muscle weakness that has been present for 72 hours. She has no known medical conditions and is not taking any medications. The symptoms started during a camping trip, and she believes that her delay in seeking medical attention may have contributed to the severity of her condition. Upon examination, she exhibits left-sided facial nerve palsy with no forehead movement. All other cranial nerves appear normal, and there are no neurological deficits in her upper or lower limbs. What is the best course of action for managing this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Commence oral prednisolone
Explanation:The recommended treatment for this woman’s symptoms and signs of Bell’s palsy is oral prednisolone, which should be prescribed within 72 hours of symptom onset. Antiviral treatments, either alone or in combination with prednisolone, are not recommended as they have been shown to be ineffective or have weak evidence of benefit. Referring to an ENT specialist is not necessary unless there are signs of worsening neurological disturbance or systemic upset. Self-care measures alone are not sufficient and additional treatment such as eye care should be provided.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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For which condition has St John's wort (Hypericum perforatum) been proven to be beneficial?
Your Answer: Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)
Correct Answer: Dysthymia
Explanation:St John’s Wort for Depression: Clinical Evidence and Considerations
There is clinical evidence to support the use of St John’s wort in treating mild to moderate depression and dysthymia. However, the active ingredient and mechanism of action are still unclear from the latest psychiatry evidence. Hyperforin is responsible for St John’s wort’s enzyme induction effect, but it is not yet shown to be directly active in lifting mood.
A Cochrane review of 29 clinical trials found that St John’s wort was superior to placebo for treating mild to moderate depression but not severe depression. However, most of the studies were from German-speaking countries, and some were small. There is also evidence for efficacy in Gram-negative infection and improving symptoms in Parkinson’s disease. However, there is no reference for its use in multiple sclerosis (MS).
It is important to note that the latest NICE guidance on depression advises against prescribing or advising St John’s wort due to the differing potencies of different formulations and potentially serious interactions with other medicines, such as anticonvulsants and the oral contraceptive pill. Therefore, it is crucial to ask patients if they are taking any herbal or natural remedies and dispel the myth that natural and safe are synonymous.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 79-year-old man comes in for the results of his recent blood tests. He had visited the clinic yesterday due to jaundice and urgent blood tests were conducted. He denies any abdominal discomfort and feels fine. His heart rate is 82 beats per minute and he has a slight fever of 37.5 oC. The results of his liver function tests are as follows:
- Bilirubin 150 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP 110 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT 20 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT 15 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin 40 g/L (35 - 50)
As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer: Refer the patient for an outpatient upper gastrointestinal referral urgently
Correct Answer: Arrange same day admission to secondary care
Explanation:The patient with jaundice and a bilirubin level exceeding 100 micromol/L requires same day admission. Additionally, the patient is feverish, which further supports the need for immediate hospitalization.
Hepatobiliary disease and related disorders can present with a variety of symptoms and exam findings. Viral hepatitis may cause nausea, vomiting, anorexia, myalgia, lethargy, and RUQ pain, and risk factors such as foreign travel or intravenous drug use may be highlighted in exam questions. Congestive hepatomegaly can occur as a result of congestive heart failure and may cause pain due to liver stretching. Biliary colic is characterized by intermittent RUQ pain that often occurs after eating, and attacks may be accompanied by nausea. Acute cholecystitis presents with severe and persistent pain that may radiate to the back or right shoulder, and the patient may be pyrexial and have a positive Murphy’s sign. Ascending cholangitis is an infection of the bile ducts that presents with fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice. Gallstone ileus can cause small bowel obstruction and is associated with abdominal pain, distension, and vomiting. Cholangiocarcinoma may cause persistent biliary colic symptoms, anorexia, jaundice, weight loss, and exam findings such as a palpable mass in the RUQ and lymphadenopathy. Acute pancreatitis may be due to alcohol or gallstones and presents with severe epigastric pain, vomiting, tenderness, ileus, and low-grade fever. Pancreatic cancer may present with painless jaundice, anorexia, weight loss, and pain. Amoebic liver abscess may cause malaise, anorexia, weight loss, and mild RUQ pain, but jaundice is uncommon.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 35-year-old overweight woman comes to the surgery seeking guidance on birth control. Her BMI is 38 kg/m^2. What is the appropriate prescription for her?
Your Answer: Desogestrel (Cerazette) 75 mcg od (standard dose)
Explanation:Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. It is important to note that the POP should be taken at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the combined oral contraceptive (COC).
When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a COC, immediate protection is provided if continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
In case of missed pills, if the delay is less than 3 hours, the pill should be taken as usual. If the delay is more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours.
It is important to note that antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless the antibiotic alters the P450 enzyme system. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP. In case of diarrhoea and vomiting, the POP should be continued, but it should be assumed that pills have been missed.
Finally, it is important to discuss sexually transmitted infections (STIs) with healthcare providers when considering the POP. By providing comprehensive counselling, women can make informed decisions about whether the POP is the right contraceptive choice for them.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maternity And Reproductive Health
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 4-year-old child in to receive the DTP booster. Which one of the following would make it inappropriate to give the vaccination today?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Recent onset of a seizure disorder currently being investigated
Explanation:Guidelines for Safe Immunisation
Immunisation is an important aspect of public health, and the Department of Health has published guidelines to ensure its safe administration. The guidelines, titled ‘Immunisation against infectious disease’, outline general contraindications to immunisation, situations where vaccines should be delayed, and specific contraindications to live vaccines.
General contraindications include confirmed anaphylactic reactions to previous doses of a vaccine containing the same antigens or to another component in the relevant vaccine, such as egg protein. Vaccines should also be delayed in cases of febrile illness or intercurrent infection.
Live vaccines should not be administered to pregnant women or individuals with immunosuppression. In the case of the DTP vaccine, vaccination should be deferred in children with an evolving or unstable neurological condition.
However, there are several situations where immunisation is not contraindicated. These include asthma or eczema, a history of seizures (unless associated with fever), being breastfed, a previous history of natural infection with pertussis, measles, mumps, or rubella, a history of neonatal jaundice, a family history of autism, neurological conditions such as Down’s or cerebral palsy, low birth weight or prematurity, and patients on replacement steroids.
Overall, these guidelines aim to ensure the safe administration of vaccines and protect individuals from infectious diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man has suddenly developed left-sided facial weakness and comes to the clinic on the same day. He is experiencing difficulty in closing his left eye, has lost taste on the front of the tongue, and is sensitive to loud noise. The entire left side of his face is affected, and he cannot wrinkle his forehead on the left side.
What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone 25 mg twice a day
Explanation:Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment Options
Facial nerve palsy is a condition that affects the facial nerve, resulting in the inability to wrinkle the forehead. This indicates a lower motor neurone (LMN) lesion, which is often caused by a viral infection such as herpes simplex type 1 or varicella zoster. In the past, the majority of cases were labelled idiopathic or Bell’s palsy, but recent research has shed light on the underlying causes.
Other symptoms of facial nerve palsy may include hyperacusis, inability to produce tears, and loss of taste. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared due to alternative pathways in the brain stem.
Treatment for facial nerve palsy typically involves prednisolone, which should be given within 72 hours of onset and continued for 10 days. Aciclovir is no longer recommended, and there is no evidence supporting the use of steroids in children. Referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary if the cornea is exposed despite attempts to close the eyelid.
While most patients recover fully from facial nerve palsy, some may experience permanent nerve damage or severe sequelae. It is important to seek medical attention promptly to ensure the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to your clinic complaining of bilateral knee pain. Her BMI is 36. She expresses a strong desire to lose weight and has attempted various diets in the past. You decide to prescribe orlistat and advise her on the minimum amount of weight loss she must achieve in the initial three months to continue receiving the medication. What is the minimum weight loss required in the first three months of taking orlistat to maintain the prescription?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15%
Explanation:Weight Loss Requirement for Prescription Continuation
To continue prescribing, a weight loss of at least 5% is necessary within the first three months. This means that patients must lose a certain amount of weight within the initial period of treatment to ensure that the medication is effective and safe for long-term use. It is important for patients to adhere to a healthy diet and exercise regimen to achieve this weight loss goal. Failure to meet this requirement may result in the discontinuation of the prescription.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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