00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside...

    Correct

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with concerns about an unusual patch inside his cheek. He noticed a red-white patch while brushing his teeth, but he is unsure how long it has been there. He has a smoking history of 35 pack years and drinks approximately 18 units of alcohol per week. There is no family history of oral cancer. On examination, he appears to be in good health, and no cervical lymphadenopathy is detected. There is a 2cm red and white macule with a velvety texture on the buccal vestibule of the oral cavity, consistent with erythroleukoplakia. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent referral (within 2 weeks) for assessment by head and neck team

      Explanation:

      Immediate investigation is necessary for any oral cavity lesion that appears suspicious for erythroplakia or leukoplakia due to the risk of malignancy.

      When to Refer Patients with Mouth Lesions for Oral Surgery

      Mouth lesions can be a cause for concern, especially if they persist for an extended period of time. In cases where there is unexplained oral ulceration or mass that lasts for more than three weeks, or red and white patches that are painful, swollen, or bleeding, a referral to oral surgery should be made within two weeks. Additionally, if a patient experiences one-sided pain in the head and neck area for more than four weeks, which is associated with earache but doesn’t result in any abnormal findings on otoscopy, or has an unexplained recent neck lump or a previously undiagnosed lump that has changed over a period of three to six weeks, a referral should be made.

      Patients who have persistent sore or painful throats or signs and symptoms in the oral cavity that last for more than six weeks and cannot be definitively diagnosed as a benign lesion should also be referred. It is important to note that the level of suspicion should be higher in patients who are over 40, smokers, heavy drinkers, and those who chew tobacco or betel nut (areca nut). By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients with mouth lesions receive timely and appropriate care. For more information on this topic, please refer to the link provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      49.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 48-year-old factory machine operator is seen with recent onset hearing difficulties. He...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old factory machine operator is seen with recent onset hearing difficulties. He has had a hearing test done via a private company and has brought the result of his pure tone audiometry in to show you.

      Which of the following audiogram findings would most suggest he has early noise-induced hearing loss?

      Your Answer: A notch of hearing loss between 3 and 6 kHz with recovery at higher frequencies

      Explanation:

      Patterns of Hearing Loss Revealed by Pure Tone Audiometry

      Pure tone audiometry is a valuable tool for identifying patterns of hearing loss. A normal individual will have hearing thresholds above 20 dBHL across all frequencies. Meniere’s disease typically shows hearing loss at lower frequencies, while presbyacusis often presents with high frequency loss in a ‘ski slope’ pattern.

      Early noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is usually characterized by a notch between 3 and 6 kHz, with recovery at higher frequencies. If presbyacusis is also present, the notch may be less prominent and appear more like a ‘bulge.’ NIHL is typically bilateral, but it can occur unilaterally in activities such as shooting. As NIHL progresses, the notch seen in early disease may disappear, and there may be increasing hearing loss at all frequencies, most notably at higher frequencies, which can sometimes be difficult to differentiate from presbyacusis.

      In summary, pure tone audiometry can reveal various patterns of hearing loss, which can aid in the diagnosis and management of different types of hearing disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Ramsey Hunt syndrome ...

    Incorrect

    • Ramsey Hunt syndrome

      Your Answer: Refer routinely to ENT for eustachian tube decompression and grommet insertion

      Correct Answer: Refer under 2-week wait to ENT for suspected cancer

      Explanation:

      If an adult presents with unilateral middle ear effusion, it could be a sign of nasopharyngeal cancer. In such cases, the appropriate action would be to refer the patient for an urgent 2-week wait ENT appointment to investigate the possibility of cancer. This is especially important if the patient is of East Asian origin and the effusion is not related to an upper respiratory tract infection. Other options, such as arranging a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses, do not address the urgent need to rule out cancer and should not be done in primary care. Further investigations, such as nasal endoscopy or MRI, may be arranged by the specialist to confirm or rule out the possibility of nasopharyngeal cancer.

      Understanding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma

      Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is a type of squamous cell carcinoma that affects the nasopharynx. It is a rare form of cancer that is more common in individuals from Southern China and is associated with Epstein Barr virus infection. The presenting features of nasopharyngeal carcinoma include cervical lymphadenopathy, otalgia, unilateral serous otitis media, nasal obstruction, discharge, and/or epistaxis, and cranial nerve palsies such as III-VI.

      To diagnose nasopharyngeal carcinoma, a combined CT and MRI scan is typically used. The first line of treatment for this type of cancer is radiotherapy. It is important to catch nasopharyngeal carcinoma early to increase the chances of successful treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease....

    Incorrect

    • You encounter a 30-year-old mother of two who is experiencing recurrent Meniere's disease. She has been suffering from tinnitus and mild hearing loss on the right side for nearly 2 years. Every 2 months, she has an episode of vertigo accompanied by nausea and vomiting, which lasts up to 7 days and causes her significant distress. While under the care of the ENT team, she is curious about any available treatments to prevent Meniere's disease attacks.

      What would be your initial recommendation?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      To prevent recurrent attacks of Meniere’s disease, doctors often prescribe betahistine. While prochlorperazine and promethazine teoclate can be used to treat acute attacks, they are not effective in preventing them. Betahistine, taken at an initial dose of 16 mg three times a day, can help reduce the frequency and severity of symptoms such as hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo. Diuretics are not recommended for treating Meniere’s disease in primary care. Although some other drugs, such as corticosteroids, have been used historically to treat Meniere’s disease, there is limited evidence to support their use and they should only be used under the supervision of an ENT specialist.

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by the excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The main symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Vertigo is usually the most prominent symptom, but patients may also experience a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease is that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients will be left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis, and patients should inform the DVLA as the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. Acute attacks can be managed with buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine, and admission to the hospital may be required. Prevention strategies include the use of betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises, which may be beneficial.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a swollen ear. He...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with a swollen ear. He plays amateur rugby and was punched during a match the previous day. The upper pinna is fluctuant and mildly erythematous, but there are no other injuries. What is the most suitable management option?

      Your Answer: Early drainage and compression

      Explanation:

      Auricular Haematoma: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Auricular haematoma is a common facial injury that results from direct trauma to the anterior auricle. It is often seen in athletes such as wrestlers, rugby players, and footballers. The condition occurs when shearing forces cause separation of the perichondrium from the underlying cartilage, leading to tearing of the perichondrial blood vessels and hematoma formation.

      If left untreated, the haematoma can lead to avascular necrosis of the auricular cartilage, resulting in a ‘cauliflower ear’ deformity. To prevent this, evacuation of the haematoma is necessary. This can be done through aspiration with a 10 ml syringe attached to a wide needle or by incision and drainage. Compression is also necessary to prevent reoccurrence.

      However, infection may be a complication, and if it worsens, patients may need to be admitted to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics and surgical exploration. Patients with recurrent haematomas or haematomas more than seven days old may also need surgical debridement.

      In conclusion, auricular haematoma is a serious condition that requires prompt treatment to prevent complications. Athletes and individuals who engage in activities that put them at risk of this injury should take precautions to avoid it.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      31.7
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old boy comes to you complaining of sudden and severe pain in his right ear after recently having an ear infection. During examination, you notice a perforated eardrum. He has a soccer game next week and is eager to play. What advice would you give him regarding this situation?

      Your Answer: Avoid swimming until the perforation is completely healed

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to refrain from swimming until a perforated tympanic membrane has fully healed, which typically takes longer than a week. Using a swimming cap may not offer adequate protection. Antibiotics should only be prescribed if there is an infection present, and oral antibiotics are preferred over drops.

      Perforated Tympanic Membrane: Causes and Management

      A perforated tympanic membrane, also known as a ruptured eardrum, is often caused by an infection but can also result from barotrauma or direct trauma. This condition can lead to hearing loss and increase the risk of otitis media.

      In most cases, no treatment is necessary as the tympanic membrane will typically heal on its own within 6-8 weeks. However, it is important to avoid getting water in the ear during this time. Antibiotics may be prescribed if the perforation occurs after an episode of acute otitis media. This approach is supported by the 2008 Respiratory Tract Infection Guidelines from NICE.

      If the tympanic membrane doesn’t heal by itself, myringoplasty may be performed. This surgical procedure involves repairing the perforation with a graft of tissue taken from another part of the body. With proper management, a perforated tympanic membrane can be successfully treated and hearing can be restored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      36.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
    Which...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl has been discharged from hospital after having her tonsils removed.
      Which of the following is typical after a tonsillectomy?

      Your Answer: Coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively

      Correct Answer: Halitosis and ear pain temporarily

      Explanation:

      Misconceptions about Tonsillectomy Recovery

      Tonsillectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the tonsils. However, there are several misconceptions about the recovery process that patients should be aware of.

      Firstly, some patients may experience ear pain and halitosis after the surgery. This is due to referred pain from the tonsils and infection of the raw tissue areas, respectively.

      Secondly, coughing up small amounts of blood ten days postoperatively is not normal and should be referred to secondary care for possible admission. Secondary bleeds are most common after about 5-10 days, and minor bleeding may be a precursor of a major bleed.

      Thirdly, removal of the tonsils doesn’t guarantee a complete cessation of throat infections. Patients may still experience laryngitis or pharyngitis.

      Fourthly, a temporary rise in the pitch of the voice is common after tonsillectomy due to swelling in the oropharynx. However, a permanent change in voice is not expected.

      Lastly, it is normal to have moderate-to-severe discomfort for up to two weeks after the surgery, including pain while swallowing and pain in the throat. Adequate analgesia is needed, and children may become dehydrated if they do not take in adequate liquids after the surgery.

      In conclusion, understanding the misconceptions about tonsillectomy recovery can help patients better prepare for the surgery and manage their expectations during the healing process.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic with his wife for evaluation. He has been experiencing a change in his voice with constant hoarseness and a chronic dry cough for the past six weeks. He attributes this to a previous cold and chest infection and believes it will improve over time.
      He is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day for the past 50 years. He has a history of COPD and is currently taking a high dose Seretide inhaler. On examination, his BP is 145/85 mmHg, pulse is 75 and regular, and chest auscultation reveals scattered wheezing.
      Investigations reveal:
      Hb 134 g/L (135-180)
      WCC 8.0 ×109/L (4.5-10)
      PLT 179 ×109/L (150-450)
      Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
      K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
      Cr 122 µmol/L (70-110)
      ECG shows sinus rhythm.
      CXR (arranged by another GP partner) shows no mass lesion identified.
      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Urgent ENT referral

      Explanation:

      Urgent Investigation for Hoarseness

      Under NICE guidance, patients who present with hoarseness for more than three weeks require urgent investigation for possible cancer. In this case, a chest x-ray did not show an underlying cancer, but an ENT referral for laryngoscopy is warranted.

      While inadequate oral hygiene after inhaler use leading to candida infection is a possibility, the absence of oral candida makes it unlikely. Speech therapy is an option to maximize vocal effectiveness, and it is effective for hoarseness related to organic pathology such as nodules or polyps, and non-organic laryngeal dysfunction (for example, muscle tension dysphonia).

      Stopping the use of Seretide is inappropriate because it is likely to worsen symptoms of COPD and is unlikely to elucidate the underlying cause of the hoarseness. It is important to investigate the cause of hoarseness to ensure prompt and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      30.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - You see a 50-year-old woman who has come to see you after the...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old woman who has come to see you after the nurse was unable to remove all the earwax from her left ear. She came to see you for advice on what to do next.

      According to NICE, which is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Refer to ENT

      Correct Answer: Offer manual syringing

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for earwax Removal

      According to NICE guidelines, if earwax irrigation is unsuccessful, patients should repeat the use of wax softeners or instil water into the ear canal 15 minutes before attempting ear irrigation again. If the second attempt is also unsuccessful, patients should be referred to a specialist ear care service or ENT. It is important to note that manual syringing should not be offered as a method of earwax removal. These guidelines aim to ensure safe and effective earwax removal practices.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      39.9
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain...

    Correct

    • An 77-year-old-man presents to your clinic with complaints of persistent right ear pain and discharge. He was previously diagnosed with otitis externa and prescribed antibiotic ear drops by a colleague, followed by further antibiotic drops and tramadol by an out of hours doctor. However, his symptoms have not improved and the pain has become unbearable.

      The patient has a medical history of type-2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, and takes metformin, gliclazide, ramipril, and atorvastatin regularly. He has no known drug allergies and doesn't smoke or drink alcohol.

      Upon examination, debris is observed in the right ear canal, but the tympanic membrane remains visible. There is no erythema of the pinna or mastoid swelling, and cranial nerve examination is normal.

      What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to on-call ENT team

      Explanation:

      If a patient with otitis externa experiences worsening pain that doesn’t respond to strong painkillers, it is important to refer them urgently to an ENT specialist. This is especially true if the patient has a history of diabetes, as they are at a higher risk of developing malignant (necrotising) otitis externa. In advanced stages, this condition can cause facial nerve palsy on the same side as the affected ear. Treatment typically involves a long course of intravenous antibiotics, which is why prompt ENT assessment is crucial.

      While oral antibiotics such as ciprofloxacin may be prescribed alongside ear drops if there is concern about deep tissue infection, most patients will require IV antibiotics. However, the priority in this situation is to escalate the case to an ENT specialist rather than focusing on pain relief or swabbing the ear canal. It is also important to avoid syringing the ear, as this can worsen the condition.

      Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection

      Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.

      Key features in the patient’s history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and persistent ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and facial nerve dysfunction.

      Diagnosis is typically done through a CT scan, and non-resolving otitis externa with worsening pain should be referred urgently to an ENT specialist. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonas infections.

      In summary, malignant otitis externa is a rare but serious infection that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Patients with diabetes or immunosuppression should be particularly vigilant for symptoms and seek medical attention if they experience persistent ear pain or other related symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 26-year-old female presents with nasal symptoms.

    She has no significant past medical history....

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female presents with nasal symptoms.

      She has no significant past medical history. She reports frequent sneezing, a permanent feeling of nasal blockage, and intermittent bilateral non-purulent rhinorrhoea which have been a problem on and off for the last few years. There is no systemic unwellness. She has not identified any specific pattern to her symptoms which she describes are 'fairly persistent'.

      On further questioning there doesn't appear to be a seasonal pattern to her symptoms, she doesn't own or have contact with any pets, and she works in an office where there doesn't seem to be any form of occupational trigger. She has no respiratory symptoms and examination of her chest including peak flow measurement is normal.

      She has recently been using oral cetirizine regularly and also sodium cromoglycate eye drops both of which she has purchased over the counter. Despite daily use of both for the last four to six weeks her symptoms are no better and remain persistent. Examination reveals no anatomical abnormalities or red flag features.

      You discuss further investigation to look into possible allergen identification and also further treatment options.

      Which of the following is the next most appropriate pharmacological step in trying to manage her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Add in an intranasal corticosteroid (for example, mometasone)

      Explanation:

      Guidelines recommend oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis. Mild symptoms can be treated with oral and/or topical antihistamines, while intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice for moderate to severe symptoms. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids for severe nasal blockage. Topical ipratropium and leukotriene receptor antagonists may also be added for persistent symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      59.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been receiving treatment for the past three weeks for otitis externa with flumetasone/clioquinol 0.02%/1%, followed by gentamicin 0.3% w/v and hydrocortisone acetate 1% ear drops. She acquired the condition while on vacation in Spain. She is now experiencing increasing itchiness in her ears. During examination, her ears have abundant discharge with black spots on a white background. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for urgent review

      Correct Answer: Clotrimazole solution

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Fungal Otitis Externa

      Fungal otitis externa is a common ear infection that can be difficult to diagnose and treat. Patients who have had prolonged courses of steroid and antibiotic drops are particularly susceptible to this type of infection. Symptoms include pruritus and discharge, which may not respond to antibiotics. The most common fungal agents are Aspergillus and Candida, which can be treated with topical clotrimazole. Topical ciprofloxacin is not effective against fungal infections, and co-amoxiclav tablets should not be used. Sofradex® ear drops, which contain steroids, may exacerbate symptoms. If initial treatment with antifungal medication is unsuccessful, referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat specialist may be necessary for further evaluation and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 26-year-old man with sinusitis inquires about the safety of using Sudafed (pseudoephedrine)....

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with sinusitis inquires about the safety of using Sudafed (pseudoephedrine). Is there any medication that would make Sudafed use inappropriate?

      Your Answer: Sodium valproate

      Correct Answer: Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

      Explanation:

      The combination of a monoamine oxidase inhibitor and pseudoephedrine may lead to a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis.

      Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      30.5
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see the General Practitioner by her mother who is concerned that she seems to be struggling to hear normal volume voices on the television and in conversation. On examination she is afebrile and there is a loss of the light reflex on both tympanic membranes.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Advise watchful waiting for three months

      Correct Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist

      Explanation:

      The patient is showing classic signs of bilateral otitis media with effusion, which is common in children with Down syndrome or a cleft palate. The NICE recommends immediate referral to an ENT specialist for children with these conditions presenting with otitis media with effusion. For other children, watchful waiting for three months is advised, with hearing tests and tympanometry carried out during this period. Antibiotics are not recommended for the treatment of otitis media with effusion, and topical antibiotics have no role in treatment. Intranasal corticosteroids are not recommended for this condition, as their efficacy has not been proven.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      34.8
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling...

    Incorrect

    • You plan to study whether a simple intervention sheet for elderly patients telling them why they are not receiving antibiotics for throat infections impacts on returns to the surgery and burden of illness with respect to complications.

      Which of the following statements is correct concerning this study?

      Your Answer: If a study has already published with exactly the same concept then this constitutes plagiarism

      Correct Answer: Approval for the study must be obtained from the local ethics committee

      Explanation:

      Ethical Considerations for a Retrospective Research Study

      This is not an audit, but rather a retrospective research study aimed at examining the impact of an intervention on both the burden of illness and local resource use. As such, it is necessary to obtain approval from the local ethical committee before proceeding with the study. While the study appears reasonable, it is important to note that the outcomes may differ from those of other studies, even if published elsewhere. Therefore, it may be beneficial to include a few more surgeries to increase the sample size.

      It is justifiable to use the same methods as another study to validate the original publication. However, it is not necessary to obtain consent from the original authors if a similar study has already been published. Overall, it is important to consider the ethical implications of conducting a retrospective research study and to ensure that all necessary approvals are obtained before proceeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      74.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - You are evaluating a middle-aged woman who has come in with sudden onset...

    Correct

    • You are evaluating a middle-aged woman who has come in with sudden onset of facial weakness on one side. What is the most significant risk factor for developing Bell's palsy in this patient?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is three times more likely to occur in pregnant women. While sarcoidosis can lead to facial nerve palsy, it is not directly linked to Bell’s palsy.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      18.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of persistent blockage of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man visits his primary care physician complaining of persistent blockage of his right nostril, accompanied by sneezing and rhinorrhea, six weeks after recovering from a cold. Upon examination, a large polyp is observed in the right nostril, while the left nostril appears normal. What is the most suitable course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer: Routine referral to ENT

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to ENT

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.

      If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      26.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 28-year-old female patient with painful mouth ulcers. She has been experiencing coryzal symptoms for the past week. The patient has around 5 small shallow ulcers scattered around her gums and inside her cheeks. The ulcers have been present for 2 days, and she is having difficulty eating and drinking. The patient has no significant medical history and is generally healthy. She smokes 5-10 cigarettes daily.

      What is the accurate statement about aphthous mouth ulcers?

      Your Answer: Aphthous ulcers are more common in Men

      Correct Answer: Aphthous ulcers are more common in non-smokers

      Explanation:

      Aphthous mouth ulcers are painful sores that are circular or oval in shape and are found only in the mouth. They are not associated with any systemic disease and often occur repeatedly, usually starting in childhood. These ulcers can be caused by damage to the mouth, such as biting the cheek or brushing too hard, or may be due to a genetic predisposition. Other factors that can trigger these ulcers include stress, certain foods, stopping smoking, and hormonal changes related to the menstrual cycle.

      Aphthous ulcers are characterized by their round or oval shape, a clearly defined margin, a yellowish-grey slough on the floor, and a red periphery. They usually appear on non-keratinized mucosal surfaces, such as the inside of the lips, cheeks, floor of the mouth, or undersurface of the tongue. In most cases, investigations are not necessary, but they may be considered if an underlying systemic disease is suspected.

      Treatment for aphthous ulcers involves avoiding any factors that may trigger them and providing symptomatic relief for pain, discomfort, and swelling. This may include using a low potency topical corticosteroid, an antimicrobial mouthwash, or a topical analgesic. Most ulcers will heal within two weeks without leaving any scars. However, if a mouth ulcer persists for more than three weeks, it is important to seek urgent referral to a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      45
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of hearing loss...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner with complaints of hearing loss in his left ear. He reports feeling a blockage in the ear and has previously had his ears syringed. Upon examination, the ear is found to be occluded by wax. What is the most appropriate initial management option?

      Your Answer: Ear drops

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for earwax: Ear Drops, Microsuction, and Manual Removal

      earwax, also known as cerumen, can cause discomfort and hearing problems if it builds up in the ear canal. The first-line treatment for earwax is ear drops, which can soften the wax and make it easier to remove. Microsuction is a safer alternative to irrigation, but it is not widely available. Manual removal using a probe is also an option. However, there is little evidence on the effectiveness of these treatments.

      Various types of ear drops can be used, including sodium bicarbonate, sodium chloride, olive oil, and almond oil. Cerumol® is a commonly used proprietary agent. However, the British National Formulary warns against using docusate sodium (Waxsol®, Molcer®) or urea hydrogen peroxide (Exterol®, Otex®) as they may irritate the external meatus.

      Regardless of the type of ear drop used, the patient should lie with the affected ear uppermost for 5-10 minutes after applying the drops. While using any type of ear drop appears to be better than no treatment, it is uncertain if one type of drop is more effective than another. Therefore, it is important to seek advice from a healthcare professional before attempting to remove earwax at home.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25.2
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old sales representative comes in for a routine check-up and reports a 2-week history of a droopy left eyelid with forehead weakness. Upon examination, the symptoms are confirmed and there are no abnormalities found in the eyes or ears.

      What is a crucial aspect of the treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Immediate ENT referral

      Correct Answer: Night-time eyelid coverings

      Explanation:

      Proper eye care is crucial in Bell’s palsy, and measures such as using drops, lubricants, and night-time taping should be considered. However, the most important step is to cover the eyelids during the night to prevent dryness and potential corneal damage or infection. antiviral treatment alone is not a recommended treatment for Bell’s palsy, and antibiotics are unnecessary as the condition is caused by a virus, not bacteria. Immediate referral to an ENT specialist is not necessary for a simple case of Bell’s palsy, but may be warranted if symptoms persist beyond 2-3 months.

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      44.6
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the General Practitioner complaining of hearing loss. He served in the military and was exposed to loud noises, which he thinks is the reason for his hearing loss.
      What is the accurate statement regarding noise-induced hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Progression still occurs after noise exposure ceases

      Correct Answer: It is usually bilateral and symmetrical

      Explanation:

      Understanding Noise-Induced Hearing Loss and Its Unique Characteristics in Shooters

      Noise-induced hearing loss is a gradual and symmetrical hearing loss that typically affects both ears. However, in the case of shooters, the loss occurs in the opposite ear to where they hold their gun, as the gun side is shielded. The damage is permanent and greatest at high frequencies. Examination of the tympanic membrane is usually normal, except in cases of glue ear. Prolonged exposure to excessive noise can result in permanent damage, but the loss doesn’t progress once exposure is discontinued. Patients with occupational exposure should be referred for further evaluation, as there may be legal implications. Employers have a duty to protect employees from noise under the Control of Noise at Work Regulations 2005. Compensation may be available under the Armed Forces Compensation Scheme for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      21
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus,...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of constant right-sided hearing difficulty, tinnitus, and vertigo that have been present for the past two months and have worsened recently. Upon examination, there is no wax in either auditory canal, and the tympanic membranes appear normal.

      What would be the most suitable course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to ENT

      Explanation:

      If a patient is suspected to have an acoustic neuroma, it is crucial to refer them to an ENT specialist as soon as possible. The ENT specialist can conduct necessary tests such as audiograms and imaging to confirm or rule out the diagnosis. An ECG is not required based on the patient’s history, and hospitalization is not necessary. While an audiogram may be helpful, it is best to refer the patient directly to ENT for an MRI Head and audiogram together. A trial of medication and follow-up would not be appropriate in this case, as prompt initiation of further investigations is necessary. Meniere’s disease is a potential alternative diagnosis, but the constant and progressive nature of the patient’s symptoms is not typical of Meniere’s, which is usually episodic.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      19.3
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her...

    Correct

    • Samantha is a 6-year-old who has been brought to the clinic by her mother to request a referral for an adenotonsillectomy. She has experienced 3 severe episodes of acute tonsillitis in the past year and 4 episodes the year before, resulting in her missing a total of 5 days of school. Despite this, she has been informed that she doesn't meet the criteria for an adenotonsillectomy. What is the reason for her not meeting the referral criteria?

      Your Answer: Needs 5 or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding 2 years

      Explanation:

      The criteria for adenotonsillectomy in recurrent tonsillitis, as recommended by SIGN, state that a patient should have at least five or more bouts of acute tonsillitis in each of the preceding two years. Jodie, who has had three and four bouts of acute tonsillitis over the past two years, doesn’t meet this minimum requirement.

      Tonsillitis and Tonsillectomy: Complications and Indications

      Tonsillitis is a condition that can lead to various complications, including otitis media, peritonsillar abscess, and, in rare cases, rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Tonsillectomy, the surgical removal of the tonsils, is a controversial procedure that should only be considered if the person meets specific criteria. According to NICE, surgery should only be considered if the person experiences sore throats due to tonsillitis, has five or more episodes of sore throat per year, has been experiencing symptoms for at least a year, and the episodes of sore throat are disabling and prevent normal functioning. Other established indications for a tonsillectomy include recurrent febrile convulsions, obstructive sleep apnoea, stridor, dysphagia, and peritonsillar abscess if unresponsive to standard treatment.

      Despite the benefits of tonsillectomy, the procedure also carries some risks. Primary complications, which occur within 24 hours of the surgery, include haemorrhage and pain. Secondary complications, which occur between 24 hours to 10 days after the surgery, include haemorrhage (most commonly due to infection) and pain. Therefore, it is essential to weigh the benefits and risks of tonsillectomy before deciding to undergo the procedure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a 'neck lump' that he has noticed over the past two months. On examination, you palpate a diffuse midline swelling which moves with swallowing but not with tongue protrusion. There are no other neck lumps or focal nodules, and the patient's voice is normal with no hoarseness. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy or stridor. The patient has no significant past medical history or family history.
      He reports feeling slightly more fatigued and has gained some weight over the past few months but otherwise feels well. He notes that the swelling in his neck has not changed in size since he first noticed it.
      Thyroid function tests reveal hypothyroidism. What is the most appropriate management plan?

      Your Answer: Manage the hypothyroidism in primary care

      Correct Answer: Repeat the thyroid function test in four to six weeks

      Explanation:

      Thyroid Swelling: Recognizing and Referring Suspected Cancer

      Note that it is important to clarify descriptions and findings during a patient’s history and examination. For instance, a patient may describe a lump when it is actually a diffuse swelling. According to NICE guidelines, an unexplained thyroid lump warrants a suspected cancer pathway referral within two weeks. However, other factors to consider during the assessment include a solitary nodule increasing in size, a history of neck irradiation, family history of an endocrine tumor, unexplained hoarseness or voice changes, cervical lymphadenopathy, very young or elderly patients. Patients with symptoms of tracheal compression should be admitted immediately to the hospital.

      In cases where a thyroid swelling doesn’t meet any of the urgent or immediate referral criteria, a thyroid function blood test should be conducted. If the test reveals hypothyroidism, it may explain the patient’s weight gain and tiredness. Patients with abnormal thyroid function and a goitre are unlikely to have thyroid cancer and can be managed in primary care. Those with a goitre and normal thyroid function tests can be referred non-urgently to a thyroid surgeon.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 25-year-old man presents with a three-month history of weight loss, night sweats,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man presents with a three-month history of weight loss, night sweats, and painful lumps in his neck that worsen with alcohol consumption. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin’s lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Painful Lymphadenopathy

      Painful lymphadenopathy can be a rare but significant symptom in the diagnosis of certain conditions. In Hodgkin’s lymphoma, pain on alcohol ingestion in involved lymph nodes is a strong indication of the disease, although the reasons for the pain are unknown. On the other hand, glandular fever, lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer, recurrent tonsillitis, and tuberculosis are incorrect differential diagnoses for painful lymphadenopathy.

      Glandular fever, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus, presents with fever, lymphadenopathy, pharyngitis, rash, and periorbital edema. However, lymphadenopathy is always bilateral and symmetrical, and the disease is usually self-limiting. Lymph node metastases from laryngeal cancer may present with a lump in the neck, but chronic hoarseness is the most common early symptom, and systemic symptoms are not present. Recurrent tonsillitis may cause anterior cervical lymph nodes to enlarge and become tender, but it is usually accompanied by a sore throat. Finally, while cervical nodes are commonly affected in tuberculous lymphadenitis, they may present as abscesses with discharging sinuses, and lymph node pain on drinking alcohol doesn’t occur in tuberculosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      25.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old patient comes in for an emergency appointment reporting left-sided ear pain for the past two days. Upon waking up today, she noticed that her face was drooping on the left side and she was unable to fully close her left eye. Based on these symptoms, you suspect a diagnosis of Bell's Palsy. If you were to ask the patient to raise her left eyebrow, what would you expect to find and why?

      Your Answer: Inability to raise the left eyebrow as Bell's palsy is due to a lower motor neuron lesion

      Explanation:

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.

      Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      67.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man presents with complaints of dizziness that have developed over the past two weeks. He experiences episodes of vertigo when he turns his head, particularly when he turns over in bed. He denies any recent illness or injury. The vertigo lasts for several seconds at a time and he reports no hearing loss, ear pain, fullness, or ringing. On examination, there are no abnormalities in cranial nerve function, cerebellar signs, or Romberg's test. Dix-Hallpike testing is positive for rotatory vertigo and nystagmus.

      What is the most appropriate pharmacological approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Promethazine 25 mg nocte

      Explanation:

      Management of Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo

      This patient is exhibiting typical signs and symptoms of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV). It is important to note that vestibular sedatives are not effective in managing BPPV. However, the Epley manoeuvre can be performed and taught to the patient, which has been shown to effectively reduce or eliminate symptoms.

      It is also important to remember that no treatment needed is a valid management option for BPPV. This concept is particularly relevant for the MRCGP AKT exam, which tests primary care management skills. As a primary care physician, it is important to recognize when doing nothing is the most appropriate course of action for a patient. Don’t hesitate to select this option if it is the best choice for the patient’s condition.

      Overall, the management of BPPV involves a combination of patient education, reassurance, and appropriate interventions such as the Epley manoeuvre.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      53.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks...

    Correct

    • You are reviewing a patient who presented to a colleague about eight weeks ago. He is a 65-year-old male with mild to moderate symptoms of nasal congestion and persistent feeling of a blocked nose. He reports ongoing problems of a similar nature. He informs you that as well as the above he gets intermittent clear nasal discharge which can alternate between nostrils and he has had periods of nasal and ocular 'itch'.
      At his last appointment he was prescribed a daily non-sedating antihistamine which he has been using regularly. He was also given advice on nasal douching. Despite these measures he is still suffering from persistent nasal symptoms. He has heard that steroid medication can be used to treat his symptoms and asks for a prescription.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate next pharmacological option to add in to his treatment in trying to manage his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intranasal corticosteroid spray (for example, fluticasone propionate 100 mcgs each nostril once daily)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Guidelines for Allergic and Non-Allergic Rhinitis

      Guidelines for the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis recommend the use of oral non-sedating antihistamines, topical nasal corticosteroids or antihistamines, and anti-inflammatory eye drops either in isolation or in combination. For mild symptoms, oral and/or topical antihistamines are recommended, with regular use being more effective than as-required use. Sedating antihistamines should be avoided due to their negative effects on academic and work performance.

      In moderate to severe symptoms, intranasal corticosteroids are the treatment of choice if antihistamine treatment has been ineffective. Different preparations have different degrees of systemic absorption, with mometasone and fluticasone having negligible systemic absorption. Intranasal corticosteroids have an onset of action of six to eight hours after the first dose, but regular use for at least two weeks may be needed to see the maximal effects.

      If treatment with the above doesn’t improve things, it is important to review technique and compliance and increase the dosage where appropriate. Short courses of oral corticosteroids may be used to gain control in severe nasal blockage or if the patient has a very important upcoming event. They should be used in conjunction with intranasal corticosteroids, and a burst of prednisolone at a dose of 0.5 mg/kg/day for 5-10 days can be used.

      In addition to the above, watery rhinorrhoea may respond to topical ipratropium, and catarrh in those with co-existent asthma may be helped by a leukotriene receptor antagonist. These guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the treatment of allergic and non-allergic rhinitis, with a range of options available depending on the severity of symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      55.6
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the General Practitioner for a check-up. She mentions that her friends have informed her about her bad breath. From where is this patient's issue most likely originating?

      Your Answer: Nasal cavities

      Correct Answer: Mouth

      Explanation:

      Causes and Treatment of Halitosis

      Halitosis, commonly known as bad breath, affects 80-90% of people with persistent symptoms. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence identifies poor oral hygiene, smoking, periodontal disease, dry mouth, dentures, and poor denture hygiene as the primary causes of halitosis. In such cases, referral to a dentist and a trial of antibacterial mouthwash and toothpaste may be appropriate.

      Less common causes of halitosis include sinusitis, foreign body in the nasal cavities, tonsillitis, tonsil stones in the throat, bronchiectasis in the respiratory tract, acid reflux, and Helicobacter pylori in the gastrointestinal tract. Pseudo-halitosis is a condition in which people falsely believe they have bad breath.

      In conclusion, halitosis can be caused by various factors, and treatment depends on the underlying cause. Maintaining good oral hygiene and seeking medical attention when necessary can help alleviate symptoms and improve overall oral health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      56.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a single enlarged lymph node on the left side of her neck. She reports first noticing it during a cold she had about four weeks ago, and it has since increased in size, causing her to become more worried. During the examination, you observe a cervical lymph node with a diameter of 3 cm. There are no other abnormal findings. Routine blood tests reveal mild normochromic normocytic anemia and an elevated ESR of 72, but are otherwise normal.

      What is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent suspected cancer referral

      Correct Answer: CXR

      Explanation:

      Suspected Hodgkin’s Lymphoma in Primary Care

      This patient’s presentation of a solitary enlarged lymph node, mild anaemia, and raised ESR falls within the age range for possible Hodgkin’s lymphoma. While constitutional symptoms are only present in a minority of cases, it is important to consider this diagnosis and refer urgently for excision biopsy of the lymph node. CXR and CT are important for staging, but not for confirming the diagnosis in primary care. Rapidly enlarging neck masses of greater than three weeks duration should be referred urgently to a specialist without first arranging imaging. Upper GI pathology is less likely given the absence of symptoms, and routine referral to haematology is not appropriate. NICE guidelines recommend considering a suspected cancer pathway referral for Hodgkin’s lymphoma in adults presenting with unexplained lymphadenopathy, taking into account any associated symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      26.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (15/30) 50%
Passmed