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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with progressively worsening headaches over the past four months. The headaches are more severe in the morning, when she lies flat, and when she coughs or strains. She also experiences brief episodes of blurred vision.
Her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg, and her heart rate is regular at 72 bpm. Her BMI is 36 kg/m2.
An image of the left retina is displayed below:
The right retina has a similar appearance.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Subdural haematoma
Correct Answer: Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Explanation:Distinguishing Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension from Other Headache Disorders
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is a condition that primarily affects obese young women and is characterized by headaches and blurred vision due to increased intracranial pressure. To diagnose IIH, imaging is necessary to rule out other potential causes such as space-occupying lesions or cerebral venous sinus thrombosis. A lumbar puncture is then performed to measure cerebrospinal fluid opening pressure, which can provide short-term relief if the pressure is reduced.
It is important to differentiate IIH from other headache disorders such as atypical migraine, normal pressure hydrocephalus, subdural hematoma, and tension headache. Atypical migraine typically presents with unilateral headache and nausea, while normal pressure hydrocephalus is associated with dementia, incontinence, and gait disturbance in the elderly. Subdural hematoma may cause fluctuating consciousness and focal neurological signs, and is more commonly seen in alcoholics and elderly patients on anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy. Tension headaches, on the other hand, are usually frontal or bitemporal and not positional or worsened by activities that increase intracranial pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Eyes And Vision
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man takes medication for hypertension and raised cholesterol. At his annual check-up he reports that he is feeling well. Among the results of his blood tests are the following: serum calcium 2.90 mmol/l (normal range 2.05-2.60 mmol/l), serum phosphate 0.75 mmol/l (normal range 0.8-1.4 mmol/l), alkaline phosphatase 215 IU/l (normal range 30-200 IU/l).
Select from the list the single most likely explanation of these results.Your Answer: Paget’s disease of bone
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism as a Cause of Hypercalcaemia
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a common endocrine disorder, particularly in postmenopausal women. It is often asymptomatic and discovered incidentally through blood tests. The excess production of parathyroid hormone (PTH) is typically caused by a single adenoma, multi-gland adenoma, or hyperplasia. Surgical removal of the adenoma is the most effective cure, but medical management is possible for mild cases. Malignancy, Paget’s disease of bone, and certain medications can also cause hypercalcaemia, but these can be ruled out based on the patient’s history and symptoms. Other endocrine causes, such as thyrotoxicosis and Addison’s disease, would typically present with additional symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with infertility and is found to have azoospermia. He is noted to have a tall stature, gynaecomastia and small, firm testes. He struggled at school and was diagnosed with dyslexia.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Klinefelter syndrome
Explanation:Genetic Syndromes and Infertility in Men
Tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility due to azoospermia are characteristic features of Klinefelter syndrome, a genetic disorder caused by an extra X chromosome in males. Other symptoms include reduced facial hair, obesity, and small testes. Cystic fibrosis, on the other hand, is unlikely to cause tall stature and is usually diagnosed in childhood due to recurrent chest infections and failure to thrive. Homocystinuria, a rare autosomal recessive disorder, causes tall stature, learning difficulties, lens dislocation, osteoporosis, and recurrent arterial thrombosis. Marfan syndrome, an autosomal dominant disorder, is characterized by tall stature, joint laxity, lens dislocation, aortic root dilatation, and skin striae. XYY syndrome, a condition where males have an extra Y chromosome, can cause tall stature, mild learning difficulties, and behavioral problems, but most men have normal fertility. It is important to consider genetic syndromes as a potential cause of infertility in men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genomic Medicine
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man urgently books an appointment at your clinic. He complains of left-sided facial pain and malaise that has been ongoing for two weeks. He mentions that his symptoms initially improved after a week, but then worsened again, and he now feels worse than he did initially. He has no significant medical history.
During the examination, you note a low-grade fever of 37.9 degrees, but all other observations are normal. Anterior rhinoscopy reveals a purulent discharge from the left middle meatus, but there are no abnormalities in the eyes or periorbital tissues.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Correct Answer: Bacterial sinusitis
Explanation:The man’s symptoms suggest bacterial sinusitis, as he has experienced a double sickening where his symptoms initially improved but then suddenly worsened. This is often caused by a secondary bacterial infection following a viral rhinosinusitis. The presence of a fever and purulent discharge seen on rhinoscopy further support this diagnosis.
Trigeminal neuralgia would not cause a fever, while sialadenitis would result in swelling of only one salivary gland. Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a rare complication of bacterial sinusitis and is not likely in this case.
Acute sinusitis is a condition where the mucous membranes of the paranasal sinuses become inflamed. This inflammation is usually caused by infectious agents such as Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenza, and rhinoviruses. Certain factors can predispose individuals to this condition, including nasal obstruction, recent local infections, swimming/diving, and smoking. Symptoms of acute sinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, and nasal obstruction. Treatment options include analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids. Oral antibiotics may be necessary for severe presentations, but they are not typically required. In some cases, an initial viral sinusitis can worsen due to secondary bacterial infection, which is known as double-sickening.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A randomised controlled trial was conducted to test a new treatment for preventing recurrence of stroke. The trial involved 1000 patients who were randomly assigned to receive the new treatment and another 1000 patients who received standard therapy. During the trial, 66 patients who received the new treatment suffered a recurrent stroke, while 110 patients in the control group experienced the same outcome. What is the relative risk reduction in the treatment group?
Your Answer: 0.60%
Correct Answer: 40%
Explanation:Calculating Relative and Absolute Risk Reduction in a Study on Stroke Prevention
In a study on stroke prevention, various measures were used to determine the effectiveness of a treatment. These measures include the relative risk reduction (RRR), absolute risk reduction (ARR), absolute risk in the treatment and control groups, and the relative risk of having a recurrent stroke. By understanding how to calculate these measures, researchers and healthcare professionals can better interpret the results of the study and make informed decisions about treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Population Health
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Question 6
Correct
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A 38-year-old recently divorced woman has been a frequent consulter with different physical symptoms. You suspect she may be suffering from a generalised anxiety disorder (GAD).
Select from the list the problem that is least likely to be due to GAD.Your Answer: Eczematous rash
Explanation:The Relationship Between Generalized Anxiety Disorder and Eczematous Rash
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is not typically the direct cause of an eczematous rash, but it can exacerbate itching and scratching. Patients with GAD may experience a range of physical symptoms, including autonomic arousal symptoms like palpitations, sweating, shaking, and dry mouth. Chest and abdominal symptoms, such as choking, dyspnea, chest pain, nausea, and discomfort, are also common. Other symptoms may include dizziness, hot flashes, tingling, aches and pains, or a lump in the throat with difficulty swallowing (not true dysphagia).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The director of a nearby assisted living facility reaches out to your practice to notify you of the sudden passing of an 80-year-old man. He had a medical history of hypertension, ischaemic heart disease, and advanced dementia. Your last interaction with him was during a home visit 2 months ago to discuss advanced care planning, which included avoiding hospitalization and establishing a do not resuscitate order.
What is the best course of action to take following his death?Your Answer: Call 999 to inform the police
Correct Answer: Refer the death to the coroner
Explanation:If a doctor has not seen the deceased in the 28 days prior to their death, the death must be referred to the coroner. This is a notifiable death and may require further investigation and a post-mortem. However, the first step is to refer the death to the coroner’s office. Alerting the safeguarding lead or calling 999 is not necessary in this situation, and completing the death certificate should not be done until after the coroner’s investigation is complete.
Notifiable Deaths and Reporting to the Coroner
When it comes to death certification, certain deaths are considered notifiable and should be reported to the coroner. These include unexpected or sudden deaths, as well as deaths where the attending doctor did not see the deceased within 28 days prior to their passing (this was increased from 14 days during the COVID pandemic). Additionally, deaths that occur within 24 hours of hospital admission, accidents and injuries, suicide, industrial injury or disease, deaths resulting from ill treatment, starvation, or neglect, deaths occurring during an operation or before recovery from the effect of an anaesthetic, poisoning (including from illicit drugs), stillbirths where there is doubt as to whether the child was born alive, and deaths of prisoners or people in police custody are also considered notifiable.
It is important to note that these deaths should be reported to the coroner, who will then investigate the circumstances surrounding the death. This is to ensure that any potential criminal activity or negligence is properly addressed and that the cause of death is accurately determined. By reporting notifiable deaths to the coroner, we can help ensure that justice is served and that families receive the closure they need during a difficult time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- End Of Life
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which statement is accurate regarding the evaluation of a patient's ability to make decisions?
Your Answer: A person who is unable to believe or understand what you are telling them about a particular treatment may have capacity to refuse the treatment
Correct Answer: For a person to have capacity, they must be able to retain the information that you give them about the decision they are being asked to make
Explanation:Understanding Capacity to Make Decisions
Capacity to make decisions can vary and may change over time. A person who has the capacity to make one decision may not necessarily have the capacity to make another, and vice versa. To determine if a patient has the capacity to make a particular decision, they must understand the information given to them and be able to retain it long enough to weigh it and come to a decision for themselves. It is not necessary for a psychiatrist or psychogeriatrician to assess capacity, but seeking a specialist view may be helpful if there are doubts. Irrational decisions do not necessarily indicate a lack of capacity. Under the Mental Capacity Act 2005, an individual can appoint an attorney to make decisions on their behalf if they become mentally incapacitated in the future. The attorney can only make decisions when the patient has lost the capacity to make those decisions for themselves.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Older Adults
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Question 9
Incorrect
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Which one of the following statements regarding the assessment of proteinuria in elderly patients with chronic kidney disease is incorrect?
Your Answer: Albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) is more sensitive than protein:creatinine ratio (PCR)
Correct Answer: An ACR sample is collected over 24 hours
Explanation:Proteinuria in Chronic Kidney Disease: Diagnosis and Management
Proteinuria is a significant indicator of chronic kidney disease, particularly in cases of diabetic nephropathy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) recommends using the albumin:creatinine ratio (ACR) over the protein:creatinine ratio (PCR) for identifying patients with proteinuria due to its higher sensitivity. PCR can be used for quantification and monitoring of proteinuria, but ACR is preferred for diabetics. Urine reagent strips are not recommended unless they express the result as an ACR.
To collect an ACR sample, a first-pass morning urine specimen is preferred as it avoids the need to collect urine over a 24-hour period. If the initial ACR is between 3 mg/mmol and 70 mg/mmol, a subsequent early morning sample should confirm it. However, if the initial ACR is 70 mg/mmol or more, a repeat sample is unnecessary.
According to NICE guidelines, a confirmed ACR of 3 mg/mmol or more is considered clinically important proteinuria. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for patients with a urinary ACR of 70 mg/mmol or more, unless it is known to be caused by diabetes and already appropriately treated. Referral is also necessary for patients with an ACR of 30 mg/mmol or more, along with persistent haematuria after exclusion of a urinary tract infection. For patients with an ACR between 3-29 mg/mmol and persistent haematuria, referral to a nephrologist is considered if they have other risk factors such as declining eGFR or cardiovascular disease.
The frequency of monitoring eGFR varies depending on the eGFR and ACR categories. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin II receptor blockers are key in managing proteinuria and should be used first-line in patients with coexistent hypertension and CKD if the ACR is > 30 mg/mmol. If the ACR is > 70 mg/mmol, they are indicated regardless of the patient’s blood pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Kidney And Urology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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Which one of the following conditions is NOT a condition inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern?
Your Answer: Retinoblastoma
Correct Answer: Albinism
Explanation:Metabolic conditions are typically inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, with the exception of inherited ataxias. On the other hand, structural conditions are often inherited in an autosomal dominant manner, although there are exceptions such as Gilbert’s syndrome and hyperlipidemia type II.
Autosomal Dominant Conditions: A List of Inherited Disorders
Autosomal dominant conditions are genetic disorders that are passed down from one generation to the next through a dominant gene. Unlike autosomal recessive conditions, which require two copies of a mutated gene to cause the disorder, autosomal dominant conditions only require one copy of the mutated gene. While some autosomal dominant conditions are considered structural, such as Marfan’s syndrome and osteogenesis imperfecta, others are considered metabolic, such as hyperlipidemia type II and hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
The following is a list of autosomal dominant conditions:
– Achondroplasia
– Acute intermittent porphyria
– Adult polycystic disease
– Antithrombin III deficiency
– Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
– Familial adenomatous polyposis
– Hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia
– Hereditary spherocytosis
– Hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma
– Huntington’s disease
– Hyperlipidaemia type II
– Hypokalaemic periodic paralysis
– Malignant hyperthermia
– Marfan syndromes
– Myotonic dystrophy
– Neurofibromatosis
– Noonan syndrome
– Osteogenesis imperfecta
– Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
– Retinoblastoma
– Romano-Ward syndrome
– Tuberous sclerosis
– Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
– Von Willebrand’s disease*It’s important to note that while most types of von Willebrand’s disease are inherited as autosomal dominant, type 3 von Willebrand’s disease is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Children And Young People
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