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Question 1
Incorrect
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Linda is a 35-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant. She presents to the emergency department with a 2 day history of sharp abdominal pain. There is no vaginal bleeding. She also has a low grade fever of 37.8 ºC. Her pregnancy until now has been unremarkable.
On examination, she is haemodynamically stable, but there is tenderness on palpation of the right lower quadrant of her abdomen. Fetal heart rate was normal. An ultrasound scan was performed which showed a singleton pregnancy, and multiple large fibroids in the uterus. The ovaries appeared normal and there was no appendix inflammation.
What is the most likely cause of Linda's symptoms?Your Answer: Appendicitis
Correct Answer: Fibroid degeneration
Explanation:During pregnancy, fibroid degeneration can occur and may cause symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
If the ultrasound scan does not show any signs of inflammation in the appendix, it is unlikely that the patient has appendicitis.
Since the patient has fibroids in her uterus, she is at risk of experiencing fibroid degeneration, which is a common complication during pregnancy. Symptoms of fibroid degeneration may include fever, pain, and vomiting.
The absence of vaginal bleeding makes it unlikely that the patient is experiencing a threatened miscarriage.
While ovarian torsion can cause pain and vomiting, it typically occurs in patients with risk factors such as ovarian cysts or ovarian enlargement.
Understanding Fibroid Degeneration
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that can develop in the uterus. They are sensitive to oestrogen and can grow during pregnancy. However, if the growth of the fibroids exceeds their blood supply, they can undergo a type of degeneration known as red or ‘carneous’ degeneration. This condition is characterized by symptoms such as low-grade fever, pain, and vomiting.
Fortunately, fibroid degeneration can be managed conservatively with rest and analgesia. With proper care, the symptoms should resolve within 4-7 days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with acute pelvic pain and is found to have pelvic inflammatory disease. What is the leading cause of pelvic inflammatory disease in the United Kingdom?
Your Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis
Explanation:Pelvic inflammatory disease is primarily caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.
Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman, with a history of ulcerative colitis, presents with a history of heavy, painful periods. She reports regular periods, lasting seven days.
During the first three days, she has to wear both a tampon and sanitary pads and has to take time off work due to the embarrassment of flooding and dizziness. She declined contraception, as she is trying for a baby.
A pelvic ultrasound revealed two small fibroids (< 3 cm in size) in the uterus, and a full blood count was as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 73 fl 76–98 fl
White cell count (WCC) 7 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 390 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Iron 12 μg/dl 50 to 170 µg/dl
Ferritin 5 μg/l 10–120 μg/l
What is the best first-line treatment for this patient's menorrhagia if she is 29 years old?Your Answer: Tranexamic acid
Explanation:Management Options for Menorrhagia Secondary to Fibroids
Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids is a common gynecological problem that can significantly impact a woman’s quality of life. There are several management options available, depending on the severity of symptoms, the patient’s desire for fertility preservation, and the presence of other medical conditions.
Tranexamic acid is the first-line medical management option for women with menorrhagia secondary to fibroids who do not want contraception. It is an antifibrinolytic agent that reduces bleeding by inhibiting the conversion of plasminogen to plasmin. Hormonal therapies, such as combined oral contraceptives, are not indicated in this scenario.
Surgical options, such as myomectomy, endometrial ablation, or hysterectomy, may be considered if medical management fails or the patient declines medication. Myomectomy is a surgical procedure that removes fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. However, fibroids can recur following myomectomy. Hysterectomy is the only definitive method of management, but it is only recommended for women who have completed their family.
Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is appropriate for patients with iron deficiency anemia secondary to menorrhagia. Mefenamic acid, an NSAID, is contraindicated in patients with inflammatory bowel disease due to the increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. The levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena® coil) is recommended as the first-line treatment for menorrhagia without underlying pathology, suspected or diagnosed adenomyosis, or small fibroids that do not cause uterine distortion, but it is not appropriate for women who want to conceive.
In conclusion, the management of menorrhagia secondary to fibroids requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s symptoms, desire for fertility preservation, and medical history. A multidisciplinary team approach involving gynecologists, hematologists, and other specialists may be necessary to provide optimal care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor's office with concerns about forgetting to change her combined contraceptive patch. She has missed the deadline by 12 hours and had sex during this time. She has never missed a patch before. What guidance would you offer her?
Your Answer: Apply a new patch immediately, no further precautions needed
Explanation:The Evra patch is the only contraceptive patch that is approved for use in the UK. The patch cycle lasts for four weeks, during which the patch is worn every day for the first three weeks and changed weekly. During the fourth week, the patch is not worn, and a withdrawal bleed occurs.
If a woman delays changing the patch at the end of week one or two, she should change it immediately. If the delay is less than 48 hours, no further precautions are necessary. However, if the delay is more than 48 hours, she should change the patch immediately and use a barrier method of contraception for the next seven days. If she has had unprotected sex during this extended patch-free interval or in the last five days, emergency contraception should be considered.
If the patch removal is delayed at the end of week three, the woman should remove the patch as soon as possible and apply a new patch on the usual cycle start day for the next cycle, even if withdrawal bleeding is occurring. No additional contraception is needed.
If patch application is delayed at the end of a patch-free week, additional barrier contraception should be used for seven days following any delay at the start of a new patch cycle. For more information, please refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on combined hormonal methods of contraception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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As an FY-1 doctor working on a gynaecology ward, you have a postmenopausal patient who has been diagnosed with atypical endometrial hyperplasia. She is in good health otherwise. What is the recommended course of action for managing this condition?
Your Answer: Total hysterectomy
Correct Answer: Total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:For women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia who are postmenopausal, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to prevent malignant progression. A total hysterectomy alone is not sufficient for postmenopausal women. It is also not recommended to undergo a bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy without removing the endometrium. A watch and wait approach is not advisable due to the potential for malignancy, and radiotherapy is not recommended as the condition is not yet malignant.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 22-year-old woman comes in for her dating scan after discovering she was pregnant 6 weeks ago through a urine pregnancy test. However, her ultrasound reveals that the pregnancy is ectopic and located in her left fallopian tube. The size of the pregnancy is 20mm, unruptured, and has no cardiac activity. The patient is not experiencing any symptoms such as bleeding, cramping, vomiting, or systemic symptoms, and her vitals are normal. Her blood test results show that her β-hCG levels have decreased from 940 IU/L at her booking appointment to 740 IU/L today. She has no significant medical history. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Give safety netting advice and ask to return in 48 hours for serum β-hCG levels
Explanation:Expectant management of an ectopic pregnancy is only suitable for an embryo that is unruptured, <35mm in size, has no heartbeat, is asymptomatic, and has a β-hCG level of <1,000 IU/L and declining. In this case, the woman has a small ectopic pregnancy without cardiac activity and a declining β-hCG level. Therefore, expectant management is appropriate, and the woman should be given safety netting advice and asked to return for a follow-up blood test in 48 hours. Admitting her for 12-hourly β-hCG monitoring is unnecessary, and performing a salpingectomy or salpingostomy is not indicated. Prescribing medical management is also inappropriate in this case. Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test. There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility. Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP clinic urgently seeking advice as she had unprotected sex last night. She has recently started taking the combined oral contraceptive pill but missed two pills because she forgot to bring them along while on vacation. She is currently in the first week of a new pack. What steps should her GP take now?
Your Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days, no emergency contraception needed
Correct Answer: Advise her to take an extra pill today, use barrier contraception for the next 7 days and prescribe emergency contraception
Explanation:If a patient misses 2 pills in the first week of their combined oral contraceptive pill pack and has had unprotected sex during the pill-free interval or week 1, emergency contraception should be considered. The patient should take the missed pills as soon as possible and use condoms for the next 7 days. For patients who have only missed 1 pill, they should take it as soon as possible without needing extra precautions. If extra barrier contraception is needed for patients on the combined oral contraceptive pill, it should be used for at least 7 days. Patients on the progesterone-only pill only need barrier contraception for 2 days. Missing 1 pill at any time throughout a pack or starting a new pack 1 day late generally does not affect protection against pregnancy. Taking more than 2 contraceptive pills in a day is not recommended as it does not provide extra contraceptive effects and may cause side effects.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 26-year-old patient presents with a 3-day history of vaginal discharge, without itching or bleeding. She is normally fit and well, without past medical history. There is no history of sexually transmitted infections. She is sexually active and has a progesterone implant for contraception.
Examination reveals a soft, non-tender abdomen. On pelvic examination, you notice the vagina has a white-grey coating on the walls and a fishy odour. A small amount of grey vaginal discharge is also seen. The cervix looks normal, and there is no cervical excitation. Observations are stable.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Bacterial vaginosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Vaginal Discharge: Symptoms and Treatment
Bacterial vaginosis, Trichomonas vaginalis, Candidiasis, gonorrhoeae, and Pelvic inflammatory disease are some of the most common causes of vaginal discharge in women.
Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria and loss of lactobacilli in the vagina. It presents with a grey-white, thin discharge with a fishy odour and an increased vaginal pH. Metronidazole is the treatment of choice.
Trichomonas vaginalis is a sexually transmitted infection that presents with a yellow-green discharge and an erythematosus cervix with a punctate exudate.
Candidiasis is a fungal infection associated with pruritus, burning, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The vaginal discharge is thick, curd-like, and white.
gonorrhoeae can be asymptomatic or present with abdominal pain, mucopurulent discharge, cervicitis, dyspareunia, or abnormal bleeding.
Pelvic inflammatory disease is the result of an ascending infection and presents with dyspareunia, lower abdominal pain, menstrual irregularities, irregular bleeding, and a blood stained, purulent vaginal discharge. Cervicitis and cervical excitation are also present.
Proper diagnosis and treatment are essential to prevent complications and improve the quality of life of affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 60-year-old patient who has not undergone a hysterectomy visits her GP clinic for a follow-up on her hormone replacement therapy (HRT). She is currently using an estradiol patch that she changes once a week and taking norethisterone orally on a daily basis.
What is the primary advice that the patient should be mindful of when taking progestogens?Your Answer: Increased risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, as well as venous thromboembolism and cardiovascular disease. HRT may be recommended for menopausal patients experiencing vasomotor symptoms such as hot flashes, night sweats, and palpitations. However, if a patient only presents with urogenital symptoms, topical oestrogens such as oestradiol creams or pessaries may be more appropriate. These act locally to alleviate vaginal dryness, reduce UTI recurrence, and ease dyspareunia. For patients with vasomotor symptoms, HRT preparations with systemic effects (such as oral medications, topical patches, and implants) may be considered. If the patient has not undergone a hysterectomy, their HRT regime must include both oestrogen and progesterone to prevent hypertrophy of the uterus and a 5-10x increased risk of endometrial carcinoma associated with unopposed oestrogen therapy.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Correct
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You are recommending hormone replacement therapy (HRT) for a 50-year-old woman who is healthy but is suffering from severe menopausal symptoms. She is curious about the advantages and disadvantages of various HRT options.
What is the accurate response concerning the risk of cancer associated with different types of HRT preparations?Your Answer: Combined HRT increases the risk of breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to HRT increases the likelihood of developing breast cancer, but this risk is dependent on the duration of treatment and decreases after HRT is discontinued. However, it does not affect the risk of dying from breast cancer. HRT with only oestrogen is linked to a lower risk of coronary heart disease, while combined HRT has a minimal or no impact on CHD risk. progesterone-only HRT is not available. NICE does not provide a specific risk assessment for ovarian cancer in women taking HRT, but refers to a meta-analysis indicating an increased risk for both oestrogen-only and combined HRT preparations.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is concerned about the risk of cancer from taking the combined oral contraceptive pill after hearing something on the news. You have a discussion with her about evidence-based medicine. According to research, which type of cancer is believed to be reduced by taking the pill?
Your Answer: Ovarian
Explanation:The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) has been found to have a slight increase in the risk of breast cancer, but this risk returns to normal after 10 years of stopping the pill. Additionally, the COCP may increase the risk of cervical cancer, but this could be due to a lack of barrier contraception use and increased exposure to HPV. While the COCP is associated with an increased risk of benign and malignant tumors, there is no evidence of an increased risk of lung cancer. On the other hand, the COCP has been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer, endometrial cancer, and bowel cancer.
Pros and Cons of the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
The combined oral contraceptive pill is a highly effective method of birth control with a failure rate of less than 1 per 100 woman years. It does not interfere with sexual activity and its contraceptive effects are reversible upon stopping. Additionally, it can make periods regular, lighter, and less painful, and may reduce the risk of ovarian, endometrial, and colorectal cancer. It may also protect against pelvic inflammatory disease, ovarian cysts, benign breast disease, and acne vulgaris.
However, there are also some disadvantages to the combined oral contraceptive pill. One of the main issues is that people may forget to take it, which can reduce its effectiveness. It also offers no protection against sexually transmitted infections. There is an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast and cervical cancer, stroke, and ischaemic heart disease, especially in smokers. Temporary side-effects such as headache, nausea, and breast tenderness may also be experienced.
It is important to weigh the pros and cons of the combined oral contraceptive pill before deciding if it is the right method of birth control for you. While some users report weight gain while taking the pill, a Cochrane review did not support a causal relationship. Overall, the combined oral contraceptive pill can be an effective and convenient method of birth control, but it is important to discuss any concerns or potential risks with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman returns to her GP after attempting lifestyle modifications and pelvic floor exercises for four months without success in managing her urinary stress incontinence. She expresses a desire for additional treatment options but prefers to avoid surgery. What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Prescription of duloxetine
Explanation:If pelvic floor muscle exercises are ineffective and surgical intervention is not desired, duloxetine may be used to manage stress incontinence, as per NICE guidance from 2019. It should be noted that bladder retraining is not recommended for this type of incontinence, and oxybutynin is only indicated for urge incontinence if bladder retraining has failed. Referral for urodynamics testing is also not recommended, with urogynaecology being the preferred option for secondary care. Additionally, NICE does not recommend continuing pelvic floor exercises for an additional 3 months.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Correct
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A 26-year-old female patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of constant pain in the left iliac fossa and nausea that started a day ago. She reports vomiting once but denies any other symptoms. The patient has a menstrual cycle of 28 days, and her last period began 5 days ago. She is sexually active and has consistently used condoms for contraception. There is no vaginal bleeding. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ovarian torsion
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is ovarian torsion, which is common in women of reproductive age. Symptoms include pain in the iliac fossa that can spread to the loin, groin, or back, as well as nausea and vomiting. An adnexal mass may be present on examination, which is often caused by an ovarian cyst or neoplasm that has disrupted the ovary’s normal position and caused torsion. In some cases, a low-grade fever may also be present if ovarian necrosis has occurred.
It is important to rule out ectopic pregnancy as a differential diagnosis, which can be done with a pregnancy test regardless of reported contraception. Vaginal bleeding may help differentiate between the two conditions. However, since the patient’s menstrual period started 7 days ago and she uses condoms for contraception, ectopic pregnancy is less likely than ovarian torsion.
Appendicitis is also a possible cause of this presentation, but it typically presents with diffuse abdominal pain that later localizes to the right iliac fossa. In appendicitis, pain can be reproduced in the right iliac fossa by palpating the left iliac fossa (Rovsing’s sign), but left iliac fossa pain would not be the presenting symptom.
Mittelschmerz, which is mild pain in the right iliac fossa, could also be a possible cause, but it would not be associated with nausea and vomiting.
Causes of Pelvic Pain in Women
Pelvic pain is a common complaint among women, with primary dysmenorrhoea being the most frequent cause. Mittelschmerz, or pain during ovulation, may also occur. However, there are other conditions that can cause pelvic pain, which can be acute or chronic in nature.
Acute pelvic pain can be caused by conditions such as ectopic pregnancy, urinary tract infection, appendicitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and ovarian torsion. Ectopic pregnancy is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding in women with a history of 6-8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Urinary tract infection may cause dysuria and frequency, while appendicitis may present with pain in the central abdomen before localizing to the right iliac fossa. Pelvic inflammatory disease may cause pelvic pain, fever, deep dyspareunia, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and menstrual irregularities. Ovarian torsion, on the other hand, may cause sudden onset unilateral lower abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and a tender adnexal mass on examination.
Chronic pelvic pain, on the other hand, may be caused by conditions such as endometriosis, irritable bowel syndrome, ovarian cysts, and urogenital prolapse. Endometriosis is characterized by chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, deep dyspareunia, and subfertility. Irritable bowel syndrome is a common condition that presents with abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habit. Ovarian cysts may cause a dull ache that is intermittent or only occurs during intercourse, while urogenital prolapse may cause a sensation of pressure, heaviness, and urinary symptoms such as incontinence, frequency, and urgency.
In summary, pelvic pain in women can be caused by various conditions, both acute and chronic. It is important to seek medical attention if the pain is severe or persistent, or if there are other concerning symptoms present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female presents with menorrhagia that has not responded to treatment with non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs.
She underwent sterilisation two years ago.
What would be the most suitable treatment for her?Your Answer: Mefenamic acid
Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Menorrhagia
Menorrhagia, or heavy menstrual bleeding, can be a distressing condition for women. Current guidelines recommend the use of Mirena (IUS) as the first line of treatment, even for women who do not require contraception. Patient preference is important in the decision-making process, but IUS is still the preferred option.
If IUS is not suitable or preferred, there are several other treatment options available. Tranexamic acid, a medication that prevents the breakdown of blood clots, is a second-line option. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and combined oral contraceptive pills can also be used to prevent the proliferation of the endometrium.
If these options are not effective, oral or injected progestogens can be used to prevent endometrial proliferation. Gonadotrophin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists, such as Goserelin, are also available as a last resort.
It is important for women to discuss their options with their healthcare provider and choose the treatment that is best for them. With the variety of options available, there is likely a treatment that can effectively manage menorrhagia and improve quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her local pharmacy with concerns about needing the emergency contraceptive pill. She explains that she had unprotected sex with her partner of 5 years 2 days ago and did not use any form of contraception. She recently gave birth to a baby boy 4 weeks ago and is currently formula-feeding him.
What advice would be most suitable in this situation?Your Answer: Levonorgestrel (Levonelle)
Correct Answer: No action required
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 16-year-old male comes to your clinic and asks for the contraceptive pill. He appears to have Gillick competency, but he reveals that his girlfriend is 24 and a teacher at a nearby private school. He confirms that she is not pregnant and that her last period was 3 weeks ago. He specifically requests that you do not inform anyone, including his mother who is also a patient of yours. How do you proceed?
Your Answer: Inform her that you need to tell social services and child protection due to the age and position of trust of her boyfriend. Try to get her consent but explain you will still need to tell them if she doesn't consent
Explanation:According to the GMC guidelines in good medical practice for individuals aged 0-18 years, it is important to disclose information regarding any abusive or seriously harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person. This includes situations where the young person is too immature to understand or consent, there are significant differences in age, maturity, or power between sexual partners, the young person’s sexual partner holds a position of trust, force or the threat of force, emotional or psychological pressure, bribery or payment is used to engage in sexual activity or keep it secret, drugs or alcohol are used to influence a young person to engage in sexual activity, or the person involved is known to the police or child protection agencies for having abusive relationships with children or young people.
Failing to disclose this information or simply prescribing contraception and waiting for a review can put both the patient and other students at the boyfriend’s school in harm’s way due to his position of trust. While informing the boyfriend or his school may breach confidentiality and not address the issue of his job and relationship, it is important to take appropriate action to protect the safety and well-being of the young person involved.
When it comes to providing contraception to young people, there are legal and ethical considerations to take into account. In the UK, the age of consent for sexual activity is 16 years, but practitioners may still offer advice and contraception to young people they deem competent. The Fraser Guidelines are often used to assess a young person’s competence. Children under the age of 13 are considered unable to consent to sexual intercourse, and consultations regarding this age group should trigger child protection measures automatically.
It’s important to advise young people to have STI tests 2 and 12 weeks after an incident of unprotected sexual intercourse. Long-acting reversible contraceptive methods (LARCs) are often the best choice for young people, as they may be less reliable in remembering to take medication. However, there are concerns about the effect of progesterone-only injections (Depo-provera) on bone mineral density, and the UKMEC category of the IUS and IUD is 2 for women under the age of 20 years, meaning they may not be the best choice. The progesterone-only implant (Nexplanon) is therefore the LARC of choice for young people.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 65-year-old retired librarian presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a feeling of fullness in her vagina. She states that this feeling is present at all times. On further questioning she also has a 1-year history of urinary frequency and has been treated for urinary tract infections in two instances in the past year. She has never smoked and is teetotal.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Cystocele
Explanation:Common Vaginal Conditions: Symptoms and Management
Cystocele: A weakening of pelvic muscles can cause the bladder to prolapse into the vagina, resulting in stress incontinence, frequent urinary tract infections, and a dragging sensation or lump in the vagina. Management ranges from conservative with pelvic floor exercises to surgery.
Rectocele: Women with a rectocele experience pressure and a lump in the vagina, as well as difficulty with bowel movements. Treatment may involve pelvic floor exercises or surgery.
Bartholin cyst: A blocked Bartholin gland can lead to a cyst that presents as a tender mass in the vaginal wall. Treatment involves incision and drainage, as well as antibiotics.
Vaginal cancer: Symptoms include vaginal or postcoital bleeding, vaginal discharge, and persistent pelvic pain.
Bladder cancer: Painless hematuria is a common symptom, with risk factors including smoking, working in the aniline dye industry, or previous infection with Schistosoma haematobium.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 29-year-old female patient comes in with a complaint of excessive menstrual bleeding. She reports having to change her pads every hour due to saturation with blood. She is not experiencing any other symptoms and has no plans of having children in the immediate future. After a routine examination, what is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Intrauterine system
Explanation:According to NICE CG44, when heavy menstrual bleeding is not caused by any structural or histological abnormality, the first recommended treatment is the intrauterine system, also known as Mirena.
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to her GP seeking guidance on conception, specifically regarding the use of supplements or medication. She has no significant medical or family history and has previously given birth to two healthy children in the past three years without complications. Upon examination, she appears to be in good health, with a BMI of 31 kg/m2. What is the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Lifestyle and dietary advice
Correct Answer: 5mg of folic acid
Explanation:Pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m2 should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid instead of the standard 400 micrograms. Therefore, the lifestyle and dietary advice given to this patient is incorrect. Additionally, prescribing 75 mg of aspirin is not appropriate for this patient as it is typically given to women with one high-risk factor or two moderate-risk factors for pre-eclampsia, and a BMI over 35 would only qualify as a single moderate-risk factor. While 150 mg of aspirin is an alternative dose for pre-eclampsia prophylaxis, 75 mg is more commonly used in practice.
Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention
Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.
To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.
In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman with a body mass index of 32 kg/m² and type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to you. She has had a Mirena coil (levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system) for the past 3 years and has been without periods since 4 months after insertion. Recently, she has experienced 2 episodes of post-coital bleeding and a 4-day episode of vaginal bleeding. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer: Reassure
Correct Answer: Refer to postmenopausal bleeding clinic for endometrial biopsy
Explanation:To address the patient’s condition, it is recommended to refer her to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic for an endometrial biopsy. According to the Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Health, women aged 45 years who use hormonal contraception and experience persistent problematic bleeding or a change in bleeding pattern should undergo endometrial biopsy. Given that the patient is obese and has type two diabetes, both of which are risk factors for endometrial malignancy, watchful waiting and reassurance are not appropriate responses. While the Mirena may be nearing the end of its lifespan after 4 years of insertion, bleeding cannot be attributed to this without ruling out underlying pathology. Hormone replacement therapy is not recommended for this patient at this time.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 20-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department in a septic and drowsy state. According to her friend who accompanied her, she has no significant medical history. She has been feeling unwell for the past few days, coinciding with her monthly period. Upon examination, she has a temperature of 39.1 °C, a blood pressure of 80/60 mmHg, and a pulse rate of 110 bpm. Her respiratory examination is normal, but she groans when her lower abdomen is palpated.
Based on the following investigations, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Haemoglobin: 109 g/l (normal value: 115–155 g/l)
White cell count (WCC): 16.1 × 109/l (normal value: 4–11 × 109/l)
Platelets: 85 × 109/l (normal value: 150–400 × 109/l)
Sodium (Na+): 140 mmol/l (normal value: 135–145 mmol/l)
Potassium (K+): 4.9 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
Creatinine: 175 μmol/l (normal value: 50–120 µmol/l)
Lumbar puncture: No white cells or organisms seen
MSU: White cells +, red cells +Your Answer: Toxic shock syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Drowsy, Septic Patient with Menstrual Period: A Case Study
A female patient presents with evidence of severe sepsis during her menstrual period. The cause is not immediately apparent on examination or lumbar puncture, but her blood work indicates an infective process with elevated white cell count, reduced platelet count, and acute kidney injury. The differential diagnosis includes toxic shock syndrome, which should prompt an examination for a retained tampon and treatment with a broad-spectrum antibiotic. Bacterial meningitis is ruled out due to a normal lumbar puncture. Gram-negative urinary tract infection is unlikely without a history of urinary symptoms or definitive evidence in the urine. Appendicitis is not consistent with the patient’s history or physical exam. Viral meningitis is also unlikely due to the absence of headache and neck stiffness, as well as a normal lumbar puncture. With increased public awareness of the danger of retained tampons, toxic shock syndrome is becoming a rare occurrence.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 32-year-old patient has visited the smear test clinic at her GP practice for a follow-up test. Her previous test was conducted three months ago.
What would have been the outcome of the previous test that necessitated a retest after only three months for this patient?Your Answer: Inadequate sample
Explanation:In the case of an inadequate smear test result, the patient will be advised to undergo a repeat test within 3 months. If the second test also yields an inadequate result, the patient will need to undergo colposcopy testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 16-year-old woman presents with primary amenorrhoea. She is of normal height and build and has normal intellect. Her breast development is normal, and pubic hair is of Tanner stage II. Past history revealed an inguinal mass on the right side, which was excised 2 years ago. Ultrasonography of the lower abdomen reveals no uterus.
Which of the following tests will help in diagnosis of the condition?Your Answer: Karyotype
Explanation:Diagnosis of Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome: A Case Study
The presented case strongly suggests the presence of androgen insensitivity syndrome, a condition where a patient’s phenotype and secondary sexual characteristics differ from their karyotype and gonads. In this case, the patient is likely to have a karyotype of 46,XY and be a male pseudohermaphrodite. Androgen insensitivity syndrome is associated with mutations in the AR gene, which codes for the androgen receptor. In complete androgen insensitivity, the body cannot respond to androgens at all, resulting in a female phenotype, female secondary sexual characteristics, no uterus, and undescended testes.
Karyotyping is the key diagnostic investigation to confirm the diagnosis of androgen insensitivity syndrome. Serum oestradiol levels may vary according to the type of androgen insensitivity disorder and are unlikely to aid the diagnosis. Pituitary MRI may be a second diagnostic investigation if karyotype abnormalities are ruled out. Transvaginal ultrasound is not necessary if an abdominal ultrasound has already been performed and showed an absent uterus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 29-year-old woman comes to the outpatients' department for evaluation. She has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome and has been trying to conceive for the past eight months without success. During the examination, she is found to be hirsute. Her height and weight measurements reveal a BMI of 24 kg/m². What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Clomiphene is the correct answer for the first-line treatment of infertility in PCOS. This patient is experiencing infertility, which is a common consequence of polycystic ovarian syndrome. Clomiphene is typically used as the initial treatment for fertility issues in PCOS patients, as it has a lower risk of inducing ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome compared to other treatments like gonadotropins. Goserelin, on the other hand, is incorrect as it is a gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist used for hormone-sensitive prostate cancer and may not be suitable for PCOS patients. In vitro fertilisation (IVF) is also incorrect as it is typically not offered until after two years of trying to conceive, and medical optimisation with agents like Clomiphene is preferred before referral for IVF. Metformin may have a role in promoting fertility in obese PCOS patients, but for this patient with a normal BMI, Clomiphene is a better option than metformin as monotherapy.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomiphene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like Clomiphene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with Clomiphene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman presents with severe itching in the perineal region, accompanied by pain during urination and painful intercourse. During examination, you observe white, polygonal papules on the labia majora that merge into a patch that affects the labia minora. There is one area of fissuring that bleeds upon contact. The skin appears white, thin, and shiny, with mild scarring. There is no vaginal discharge, and no other skin lesions are present on the body. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lichen sclerosus
Explanation:Common Genital Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options
Lichen sclerosus, candidiasis, contact dermatitis, lichen planus, and psoriasis are some of the most common skin conditions that affect the genital area. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and treatment options.
Lichen Sclerosus: This chronic inflammatory condition can affect any part of the body but is most commonly found in the genital area. It presents with pruritus, skin irritation, hypopigmentation, and atrophy. Treatment involves topical steroids and good hygiene.
Candidiasis: This fungal infection is associated with pruritus, burning sensation, erythema, and oedema of the vestibule. The most common characteristic is a thick, curd-like, white vaginal discharge.
Contact Dermatitis: This condition is often caused by changes to shower gel or washing detergent. It presents with pruritus, erythematosus skin, excoriations, and skin breaks, leading to ulceration and superimposed infection. Chronic contact dermatitis can lead to lichenoid changes.
Lichen Planus: This condition presents with purple, red plaques usually on the labia, with central erosion and overlying lacy, white, striated patch. It can cause scarring and narrowing of the introitus and dyspareunia.
Psoriasis: This condition is rare in the genital area but can appear in the inguinal creases and the labia majora. It presents with erythematous plaques with minimal white scale and is associated with itching and excoriations.
It is important to seek medical attention if you suspect you have any of these conditions. Treatment options may include topical or oral medications, good hygiene practices, and lifestyle changes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman comes to the clinic 72 hours after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception. She had her last period 5 days ago and has no significant medical history or regular medications. Her BMI is 23 kg/m2 and her blood pressure is 118/72 mmHg. She decides to take ulipristal (Ella-One) for emergency contraception and also expresses interest in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She asks when she can begin taking it. What advice should be given?
Your Answer: She should wait until the start of her next cycle before starting the COCP
Correct Answer: She should start taking the COCP from 5 days after taking ulipristal
Explanation:Women who have taken ulipristal acetate should wait for 5 days before starting regular hormonal contraception. This is because ulipristal may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The same advice should be given for other hormonal contraception methods such as the pill, patch, or ring. Barrier methods should be used before the effectiveness of the COCP can be assured. If the patient is starting the COCP within the first 5 days of her cycle, barrier methods may not be necessary. However, in this case, barrier methods are required. The patient can be prescribed the COCP if it is her preferred method of contraception. There is no need to wait until the start of the next cycle before taking the pill, as long as barrier methods are used for 7 days.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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You are the surgical FY1 discussing with a patient in her 50s about her upcoming vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair. What is a potential long-term complication of this procedure?
Your Answer: Vaginal vault prolapse
Explanation:Long-Term Complications of Vaginal Hysterectomy
Vaginal hysterectomy with antero-posterior repair is a common surgical procedure for women. However, it may lead to long-term complications such as enterocoele and vaginal vault prolapse. These conditions occur when the pelvic organs shift and push against the vaginal wall, causing discomfort and pain. While urinary retention may occur immediately after the surgery, it is not typically a chronic complication.
It is important for women who undergo vaginal hysterectomy to be aware of these potential complications and to discuss them with their healthcare provider. Regular check-ups and pelvic exams can help detect any issues early on and prevent further complications. Additionally, women can take steps to reduce their risk of developing these conditions by maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding heavy lifting, and practicing pelvic floor exercises. By being proactive and informed, women can minimize the impact of long-term complications and enjoy a better quality of life after surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 26-year-old nursing student has visited her GP clinic for her first cervical screening. She is curious about the testing procedure and knows that the sample will be screened for high-risk strains of HPV. The student inquires with the practice nurse about the next steps if the smear test comes back positive in the lab.
What follow-up test will be conducted if the smear test shows high-risk HPV (hrHPV) positivity?Your Answer: Cytology testing
Explanation:Cytological examination of a cervical smear sample is only conducted if it tests positive for high risk HPV (hrHPV). If the sample is negative for hrHPV, there is no need for cytology testing.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She is in a committed relationship and has no plans for children at the moment. She assures her doctor that she can adhere to a daily medication routine. Her primary concern is avoiding weight gain. Which contraceptive method is most commonly linked to this side effect?
Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill
Correct Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Explanation:The method of contraception that is commonly linked to weight gain is injectable contraception, which includes Depo-Provera. The combined oral contraceptive pill has been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolic disease, breast cancer, and cervical cancer, but there is no evidence to suggest that it causes weight gain. Implantable contraceptives like Implanon are typically associated with irregular or heavy bleeding, but not weight gain. Intrauterine devices, such as the copper coil, are known to cause heavier and more painful periods, but they are not associated with weight gain.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 22-year-old female patient presents to you after missing a dose of her combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She is currently on day 10 of her packet and missed the pill approximately 26 hours ago. The patient confirms that she has taken all other pills on time and has not experienced any recent vomiting or diarrhoea. She also reports having had unprotected sexual intercourse 10 hours ago. The patient contacts you seeking advice on whether she requires emergency contraception. What would be the most suitable course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: No emergency contraception required
Explanation:If a patient on the combined oral contraceptive pill missed two or more pills and has had unprotected sexual intercourse during the pill-free period or week 1 of the pill packet, emergency contraception should be considered. However, in this case, the patient has only missed one pill on day 9 and does not require emergency contraception or a pregnancy test. If the patient had missed two pills during days 1-7 of the pill packet and had unprotected sex, emergency contraception would be necessary. The choice of emergency contraception depends on various factors, including the timing of the unprotected intercourse event, other medications the patient may be taking, and her preferences. Offering to insert a copper coil to prevent pregnancy would be inappropriate in this case. However, if the patient was having trouble remembering to take her pill correctly and wished to consider a long-acting contraceptive, options such as intrauterine devices, subnormal contraceptive implants, and the contraceptive injection could be discussed. It is important to note that the contraceptive injection cannot be used as a form of emergency contraception.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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