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Question 1
Correct
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A 19-year-old female contacts her GP clinic with concerns about forgetting to take her combined oral contraceptive pill yesterday. She is currently in the second week of the packet and had unprotected sex the previous night. The patient is calling early in the morning, her usual pill-taking time, but has not taken today's pill yet due to uncertainty about what to do. What guidance should be provided to this patient regarding the missed pill?
Your Answer: Take two pills today, no further precautions needed
Explanation:If one COCP pill is missed, the individual should take the missed pill as soon as possible, but no further action is necessary. They should also take the next pill at the usual time, even if that means taking two pills in one day. Emergency contraception is not required in this situation, as only one pill was missed. However, if two or more pills are missed in week 3 of a packet, it is recommended to omit the pill-free interval and use barrier contraception for 7 days.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 17-year-old girl presents with amenorrhoea for 6 months. She has a history of irregular periods with a cycle ranging from 25-39 days long and has missed a whole cycle before. She is concerned about the potential impact on her future fertility. The patient denies being sexually active and has no syndromic features on examination. There is no significant acne or excess body hair. She has a BMI of 20 kg/m² and is currently training for a half marathon. What is the probable cause of her condition?
Your Answer: Hypothalamic hypogonadism
Explanation:Secondary amenorrhoea is a common issue in highly athletic women, often caused by hypothalamic hypogonadism. This is the case for a young woman who is training for a marathon and has experienced oligomenorrhoea in the past. When a woman’s body has low levels of fat, the hypothalamus releases less gonadotrophin-releasing hormone, leading to hypogonadism. This is believed to occur because very low-fat levels are not conducive to successful pregnancy in females.
While an ultrasound may reveal many cysts on the ovaries, this woman does not meet the Rotterdam criteria for a diagnosis of polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). Although she experiences oligomenorrhoea, she does not exhibit signs of hyperandrogenism and has a lower-normal weight. It is also possible that she is pregnant, and a urine or serum pregnancy test should be conducted to rule out this possibility, even if she claims not to be sexually active.
While primary ovarian failure is a potential cause, it is not the most likely explanation in this case. However, it should still be investigated with gonadotrophins. If ovarian failure is present, gonadotrophin levels will be elevated, indicating that the hypothalamus and pituitary gland are not providing negative feedback on hormone release.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old nulliparous patient presents to the Gynaecology Clinic with complaints of severe menstrual pain and pain during intercourse. She reports that the symptoms have been progressively worsening. An ultrasound of the pelvis reveals a 4-cm cyst in the right ovary. The serum CA-125 level is 225 (0–34 iu/ml). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Granulosa cell tumour of the right ovary
Correct Answer: Ectopic endometrial tissue
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from endometriosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus. This condition can cause subfertility, chronic pelvic pain, dysmenorrhoea, and dyspareunia. It may also lead to an increase in serum CA-125 levels and the development of ovarian deposits known as chocolate cysts. Acute appendicitis and ovarian neoplasms are unlikely causes of the patient’s symptoms, while mittelschmerz only causes mid-cycle pain and does not explain the elevated CA-125 levels. Granulosa cell tumors of the ovary typically secrete inhibin and estrogen, making endometriosis a more likely diagnosis. Symptoms of ovarian cancer are often vague and include abdominal discomfort, bloating, back and pelvic pain, irregular menstruation, loss of appetite, fatigue, and weight loss. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include not having children, early first menstruation and last menopause, hormone replacement therapy, endometriosis, and the BRCA genes. In this age group, germ cell tumors are the most likely ovarian carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the out-of-hours clinic seeking emergency contraception. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and reports having taken each pill regularly for the first 7 days of her cycle. However, she forgot to pack her contraception while on a weekend trip and missed 2 doses. She had unprotected sexual intercourse during this time. Upon returning home, she resumed taking her COCP on day 10 of her cycle. What is the best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: No emergency contraception required and barrier contraception for next 7 days
Explanation:If a woman misses two COCP doses between days 8-14 of her menstrual cycle, emergency contraception is not necessary as long as the previous seven doses were taken correctly. In this case, the woman missed doses on days 8 and 9 but resumed taking the medication on day 10, so emergency contraception is not needed. However, until seven consecutive days of the COCP are taken, using barrier contraception or abstaining from sex is recommended to prevent pregnancy. The intrauterine system is not a form of emergency contraception, and introducing it in this situation is unnecessary. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraception option that must be taken within 72 hours of unprotected sex, but it is not needed in this case. If the patient had missed more than two COCP doses, levonorgestrel and barrier contraception for seven days would be appropriate. Ulipristal acetate is another emergency contraception option that must be taken within five days of unprotected sex, but it is also not necessary in this situation. If it were indicated, barrier contraception would need to be used for the next seven days until the COCP takes effect.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started yesterday. She had her last period 2 weeks ago, and her menstrual cycle is usually regular. She has had multiple sexual partners in the past 6 months and has been experiencing deep dyspareunia lately. She has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge over the past few days, and the pain is not relieved by paracetamol. During the examination, her temperature is 37.8 °C, and she is otherwise stable within the normal range. Her abdomen is soft but tender, and a cervical exam reveals cervical excitation +++ with right adnexal tenderness and thick yellow/green discharge from the cervical os. Swabs are taken, and there is no bleeding. A urine β-HCG test is negative. What would be your next step?
Your Answer: Give intramuscular (im) ceftriaxone stat and a 14-day course of doxycycline and metronidazole
Explanation:Treatment Options for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common condition caused by the ascending infection of Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae from the vagina. The symptoms include bilateral lower abdominal pain, deep dyspareunia, and abnormal bleeding or discharge. The recent British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guideline recommends empirical antibiotic treatment for sexually active women under 25 who have these symptoms. The treatment includes stat im ceftriaxone and a 2-week course of doxycycline and metronidazole. Intravenous therapy is indicated in severe cases.
Pelvic ultrasound scan is not necessary for the diagnosis of PID. Blood tests to check inflammatory markers and serum β-HCG are not required if the clinic history and examination suggest PID. Analgesia and observation are not sufficient for the treatment of PID. Oral antibiotics alone are not recommended for the treatment of PID.
In conclusion, PID requires prompt and appropriate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The recommended treatment options should be followed based on the severity of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 75-year-old woman has been experiencing a sensation of dragging, which improves when lying down. According to the Pelvic Organ Prolapse Quantification (POPQ), her cervix is prolapsed 0.8 cm below the hymen level during straining. What is her diagnosis?
Your Answer: Stage 2 prolapse
Explanation:Understanding Different Stages of Pelvic Organ Prolapse
Pelvic organ prolapse (POP) is a common condition among women, especially those who have given birth or gone through menopause. It occurs when the pelvic organs, such as the uterus, bladder, or rectum, descend from their normal position and bulge into the vaginal canal. The severity of POP is classified into four stages based on the distance of the prolapse from the hymen.
Stage 1 prolapse is the mildest form, where the cervix descends more than 1 cm above the hymen. Stage 2 prolapse is when the most distal prolapse is between 1 cm above and 1 cm below the level of the hymen. Stage 3 prolapse is when the prolapse extends more than 1 cm below the hymen but not completely outside the vaginal opening. Finally, stage 4 prolapse is the most severe form, where there is complete eversion of the vagina.
Another type of POP is called enterocoele or enterocele, which occurs when the small intestine descends into the lower pelvic cavity and pushes into the upper vaginal wall. This can cause discomfort, pain, and difficulty with bowel movements.
In rare cases, a condition called procidentia can occur, where the uterus and cervix protrude from the introitus, resulting in thickened vaginal mucous and ulceration. This is a severe form of POP that requires immediate medical attention.
It is important for women to be aware of the different stages of POP and seek medical advice if they experience any symptoms, such as pelvic pressure, discomfort, or difficulty with urination or bowel movements. Treatment options may include pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, or surgery, depending on the severity of the prolapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman has had a hysterectomy for a fibroid uterus two days ago. She will soon be ready for discharge, and your consultant has asked you to start the patient on hormone replacement therapy (HRT).
She has a body mass index (BMI) of 28 kg/m2, a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus on metformin and no personal or family history of venous thromboembolism.
Which of the following is the most appropriate management?Your Answer: Prescribe an oestrogen patch
Explanation:The most appropriate method of HRT for the patient in this scenario is a transdermal oestrogen patch, as she has had a hysterectomy and oestrogen monotherapy is the regimen of choice. As the patient’s BMI is > 30 kg/m2, an oral oestrogen preparation is not recommended due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. HRT has benefits for the patient, including protection against osteoporosis, urogenital atrophy, and cardiovascular disorders. However, HRT also has risks, including an increased risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial and breast cancer. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is not a contraindication to HRT, and there is no evidence that HRT affects glucose control. Combination HRT regimens are reserved for women with a uterus, and oral oestradiol once daily is not recommended for patients with a BMI > 30 kg/m2 due to the increased risk of venous thromboembolism. Women at high risk of developing venous thromboembolism or those with a strong family history or thrombophilia should be referred to haematology before starting HRT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman who was born and lives in England has received her invitation to attend for her first cervical screening test. She has read the leaflet and has some questions regarding the population targeted for cervical screening.
Which of the following statements best applies to the cervical screening programme?Your Answer: Cervical screening is offered to women aged 50–64 every five years
Explanation:Understanding Cervical Screening: Guidelines and Options
Cervical screening, also known as a smear test, is a vital tool in detecting precancerous cell changes in the cervix and preventing cervical cancer. Here are some important guidelines and options to keep in mind:
Age and Frequency: In the UK, women aged 25-64 are invited for screening, with those aged 25-49 screened every three years and those aged 50-64 screened every five years. In Scotland, screening is recommended every five years for women aged 25-65.
Hysterectomy: Women who have had a total hysterectomy (removal of the uterus and cervix) do not require cervical screening. However, those who have had a partial hysterectomy (removal of the uterus but not the cervix) should continue to be screened according to age guidelines.
Age Limit: Women over the age of 65 may still be eligible for screening if they have had recent abnormal results or have not been screened since the age of 50.
Opting Out: While cervical screening is not obligatory, it is highly recommended. Patients can opt out by speaking to their doctor and signing an ‘opting out’ form, but this decision can be reversed at any time. It is important to understand the benefits and risks associated with screening before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman has been discharged from hospital with a diagnosis of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with antiphospholipid antibodies. Her antibodies remained positive at 12 weeks and she is now on hydroxychloroquine monotherapy. She has a healthy BMI and blood pressure, does not smoke, and has no personal or family history of venous or arterial thrombosis or breast cancer. She is requesting to restart the combined pill. How would you advise her on this?
Your Answer: There is an unacceptably high clinical risk and she cannot use the pill anymore
Explanation:The appropriate answer is that the woman cannot use the pill anymore due to an unacceptably high clinical risk. She has developed systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) with positive antiphospholipid antibodies, which is classified as UK Medical Eligibility Criteria for Contraceptive Use UKMEC 4, meaning it is an absolute contraindication. The risks of arterial and venous thrombosis would be too high if she were to restart the combined pill, and alternative contraceptive options should be considered. It is important to note that both SLE with positive antiphospholipid antibodies and isolated presence of antiphospholipid antibodies are classified as UKMEC 4 conditions, but not the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome. The advantages of using the pill generally outweigh the risks is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 2. The correct answer would be applicable if the woman did not test positive for any of the three antiphospholipid antibodies or if she did not test positive again after 12 weeks. The risks usually outweigh the advantages of using the combined pill is also incorrect, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 3. Lastly, there is no risk or contraindication to her restarting the combined pill is an incorrect answer, as it is equivalent to UKMEC 1.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old primigravida patient at 6 weeks gestation presents with suprapubic pain and spotting. She also complains of shoulder-tip pain and nausea. Upon observation, her oxygen saturations are at 98% in room air, blood pressure is at 109/79 mmHg, heart rate is at 107 bpm, and temperature is at 36.9ºC. Further investigations reveal an empty uterine cavity with tubal ring sign on transvaginal ultrasound and evidence of a 41 mm complex adnexal mass. Her Hb levels are at 107 g/L (115 - 160), platelets at 380 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC at 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), and b-HCG at 1650 IU/L (< 5). What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Correct Answer: Laparoscopic salpingectomy
Explanation:Surgical management is recommended for ectopic pregnancies that are larger than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level greater than 5,000 IU/L. In this case, the patient is experiencing typical symptoms of an ectopic pregnancy, including vaginal bleeding and referred shoulder tip pain. The ultrasound confirms the presence of a tubal ectopic, with a mass exceeding 35mm and tubal ring sign. Therefore, a laparoscopic salpingectomy is the appropriate surgical intervention.
Adrenalectomy is not relevant in this case, as the complex adnexal mass refers to the ectopic pregnancy located near the ovaries, uterus, and fallopian tubes, not the adrenal glands.
Expectant management is not suitable for this patient, as her serum b-hCG is significantly elevated, and the mass exceeds 35mm in size.
Medical management with methotrexate is an option for ectopic pregnancies that are smaller than 35mm or have a serum B-hCG level below 5,000 IU/L.
Ultrasound-guided potassium chloride injection is an alternative to methotrexate for medical management, but it is not currently standard practice in the UK.Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 33-year-old woman who presents with severe pelvic pain that is unresponsive to paracetamol. The pain started four months ago and occurs four days before the onset of her menstrual cycle. The pain worsens as her period approaches and gradually improves once it ends. She also reports changing her menstrual pads every four hours.
Sarah began menstruating at the age of 14 and has had fairly regular cycles. In the past, she only experienced mild pain that was relieved with paracetamol, and her periods were not heavy. She is sexually active but uses condoms during intercourse.
During pelvic examination, no abnormalities were observed on speculum examination, and her abdomen examination was unremarkable.
What is the most appropriate next step in Sarah's management?Your Answer: Consent and insert a intrauterine progesterone system and review in 4 weeks
Correct Answer: Prescribe ibuprofen and refer to gynaecology for further investigation
Explanation:Patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea require referral to gynaecology for further investigation. This is because secondary dysmenorrhoea, which is characterized by painful cramping in the lower abdomen before or after menstruation along with new menorrhagia, suggests an underlying pathology that needs to be addressed. While mefenamic acid can help manage the pain, it is not enough to simply review the patient in two weeks without organizing referrals or investigations. The insertion of an intrauterine progesterone system may be appropriate for primary dysmenorrhoea and some cases of secondary dysmenorrhoea, but this should not be the only course of action. Additional analgesia should be considered if paracetamol is not controlling the pain. An abdominal ultrasound is not suitable for investigating pelvic organs, and a transabdominal or transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is necessary to obtain views of the uterus, ovaries, Fallopian tubes, cervix, and vagina.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 12
Correct
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As you review your daily results, you come across a cervical smear test for a 32-year-old patient. The result indicates that it is a repeat test and states that she is 'high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) negative'. Upon further examination of her medical records, you discover that this is her second repeat test after an abnormal result during a routine screening two years ago. Her last test was 12 months ago, where she tested 'hrHPV positive. Cytologically normal'. Interestingly, she has never been invited for a colposcopy. What would be the most appropriate next step in this situation?
Your Answer: Return to routine recall (in 3 years)
Explanation:If a patient’s 2nd repeat smear at 24 months is now negative for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV), the correct course of action is to return to routine recall in 3 years. This assumes that the patient had an initial abnormal smear 2 years ago, which showed hrHPV positive but normal cytology, and a repeat test at 12 months that was also hrHPV positive but cytologically normal. If the patient had still been hrHPV positive, they would have been referred for colposcopy. However, since they are now negative, they can go back to routine recall. The latest cervical screening programme does not require cytology to be performed if hrHPV is negative, so it would be inappropriate and impractical for the GP to request cytology on the sample. There is no need to repeat the smear in 4 weeks or 12 months, as transient hrHPV infection is common and self-resolves, and does not necessarily indicate a high risk of cervical cancer.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman visits a sexual health clinic without an appointment. She had sex with her partner on Sunday and they typically use condoms for contraception, but they didn't have any at the time. The patient has a medical history of severe asthma that is managed with oral steroids, but is in good health otherwise. Today is Thursday. What is the best emergency contraception option for her?
Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Correct Answer: Intrauterine device
Explanation:The most effective method of emergency contraception is a copper IUD, and it should be the first option offered to all women who have had unprotected sexual intercourse. This IUD can be used up to 5 days after the UPSI or the earliest estimated date of ovulation. The combined oral contraceptive pill, intrauterine system, and levonorgestrel are not as effective as the copper IUD and should not be the first option offered. Levonorgestrel can only be used within 72 hours of UPSI, and even then, the copper IUD is still more effective.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with lower abdominal pain. She also reports experiencing pain in her right shoulder. What investigation would be the most helpful in managing this patient further?
Your Answer: Urine β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG)
Explanation:The Importance of Urine Pregnancy Testing in Females with Abdominal Pain
Any female of childbearing age who presents to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain should have a urinary pregnancy test performed (β-HCG). This is because a negative pregnancy test is necessary to confirm that the patient is not pregnant. It is an easy and inexpensive test to perform.
Shoulder tip pain may indicate diaphragmatic irritation secondary to free intraperitoneal fluid, which can be caused by a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. However, a full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U & Es) will not diagnose a potential ruptured ectopic pregnancy and, as such, will not guide subsequent management.
An erect chest X-ray may be requested if perforation is suspected, but a urine pregnancy test would be much more useful in this scenario. An abdominal X-ray is not indicated.
In summary, a urine pregnancy test is crucial in females of childbearing age with abdominal pain to rule out pregnancy and potentially diagnose a ruptured ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 26-year-old nulliparous woman presents to her General Practice for a routine cervical smear. Her previous smear was negative, and she is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). She had one episode of gonorrhoeae treated two years ago. During the examination, the practice nurse observes a soft, pea-sized, fluctuant lump on the posterior vestibule near the vaginal opening. There is some minor labial swelling, but it is non-tender. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bartholin cyst
Explanation:Common Causes of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women
The vaginal area in women can be affected by various lumps, which can cause discomfort and concern. Here are some of the most common causes of lumps in the vaginal area in women:
Bartholin Cyst: This type of cyst occurs when the ducts connecting the Bartholin glands, which are located near the introitus at the 4 and 8 o’clock positions, become obstructed. Bartholin cysts are usually soft, small, and asymptomatic, but they can cause discomfort and require removal in women over 40 to rule out vaginal carcinoma.
Lipoma: A lipoma is a benign adipose tissue that can be found on the labia majora. It is a larger and rarer lump than a Bartholin cyst.
Bartholin Abscess: This condition arises from an infected Bartholin cyst and causes significant labial swelling, erythema, tenderness, and pain on micturition and superficial dyspareunia. Treatment includes antibiotics and warm baths, but surgical management may be necessary.
Haematoma: A haematoma is a collection of blood cells outside the vessels, which presents as a firm, red-purple lump. It usually occurs after trauma or surgery.
Infected Epidermal Cyst: Epidermal cysts are benign tumors that can occur in the perineal area. When infected, they cause erythema, pain, and extravasation of keratin material.
Understanding the Different Types of Lumps in the Vaginal Area in Women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 16
Correct
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A 70-year-old nulliparous female presents with post menopausal bleeding. She reports that her last cervical screening was 12 years ago. On examination she is found to be overweight and hypertensive. What is the most crucial diagnosis to exclude?
Your Answer: Endometrial adenocarcinoma
Explanation:When a woman experiences postmenopausal bleeding (PMB), the primary concern is the possibility of endometrial cancer. This is because endometrial adenocarcinoma is strongly linked to PMB and early detection is crucial for better prognosis. The patient in this scenario has two risk factors for endometrial adenocarcinoma – obesity and hypertension. Other risk factors include high levels of oestrogen, late menopause, polycystic ovarian syndrome, diabetes mellitus, and tamoxifen use.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 17
Correct
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A 23-year-old woman visits her doctor with concerns about the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. She has done some research but is still unsure about the risk of unintended pregnancy if she were to start taking this form of birth control. Can you explain the failure rate of the combined oral contraceptive pill when used correctly, given its Pearl Index of 0.2?
Your Answer: For every thousand women using this form of contraception for one year, two would become pregnant
Explanation:The Pearl Index is frequently utilized to measure the effectiveness of a contraception method. It indicates the number of pregnancies that would occur if one hundred women used the contraceptive method for one year. Therefore, if the Pearl Index is 0.2 and the medication is used perfectly, we can expect to see 0.2 pregnancies for every hundred women using the pill for one year – or 2 for every thousand.
Understanding Contraception: A Basic Overview
Contraception has come a long way in the past 50 years, with the development of effective methods being one of the most significant advancements in medicine. There are various types of contraception available, including barrier methods, daily methods, and long-acting methods of reversible contraception (LARCs).
Barrier methods, such as condoms, physically block sperm from reaching the egg. While they can help protect against sexually transmitted infections (STIs), their success rate is relatively low, particularly when used by young people.
Daily methods include the combined oral contraceptive pill, which inhibits ovulation, and the progesterone-only pill, which thickens cervical mucous. However, the combined pill increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and breast and cervical cancer.
LARCs include implantable contraceptives and injectable contraceptives, which both inhibit ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. The implantable contraceptive lasts for three years, while the injectable contraceptive lasts for 12 weeks. The intrauterine system (IUS) and intrauterine device (IUD) are also LARCs, with the IUS preventing endometrial proliferation and thickening cervical mucous, and the IUD decreasing sperm motility and survival.
It is important to note that each method of contraception has its own set of benefits and risks, and it is essential to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best option for individual needs and circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman complains of a curd-like white vaginal discharge and experiences pain during sexual intercourse. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Candida
Explanation:Understanding Vaginal Discharge: Common Causes and Key Features
Vaginal discharge is a common symptom experienced by many women, but it is not always a sign of a pathological condition. There are various causes of vaginal discharge, including physiological factors and infections. Some of the common causes of vaginal discharge include Candida, Trichomonas vaginalis, and bacterial vaginosis. However, less common causes such as gonorrhea, chlamydia, ectropion, foreign body, and cervical cancer can also lead to vaginal discharge.
It is important to note that the key features of each cause of vaginal discharge can vary. For instance, Candida infection may present with a discharge that resembles cottage cheese, accompanied by vulvitis and itch. On the other hand, Trichomonas vaginalis infection may cause an offensive, yellow/green, frothy discharge, along with vulvovaginitis and a strawberry cervix. Bacterial vaginosis, another common cause of vaginal discharge, may present with an offensive, thin, white/grey, ‘fishy’ discharge.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice regarding her current contraceptive method, microgynon 30. She recently went on a short trip and forgot to bring her pill pack, causing her to miss some pills. She last took a pill 76 hours ago and is uncertain about what to do next. The missed pills were from the third week of her pack, and she has not missed any other pills this month. She had unprotected sex in the past week. What guidance should you provide her?
Your Answer: Take emergency contraception, discard the remaining pack and use barrier contraception until restarting the pill as a new user
Correct Answer: Take 2 pills today, then finish the current pack, omit the pill-free interval and start the new pack immediately
Explanation:If a woman misses 2 pills in week 3 of taking the COCP, she should finish the remaining pills in the current pack and start a new pack immediately without taking the pill-free interval. Missing 2 pills means that it has been 72 hours since the last pill was taken, and the standard rule is to take 2 pills on the same day and continue taking one pill each day until the end of the pack. It is important not to take more than 2 pills in one day, and emergency contraception is only necessary if more than 7 consecutive pills are missed. In this case, the woman has not taken the required 7 consecutive pills to be protected during the pill-free interval, so she should start the new pack immediately. However, the chances of pregnancy are low if she has taken 7 pills consecutively the prior week.
Missed Pills in Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
When taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol, it is important to know what to do if a pill is missed. The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their recommendations in recent years. If one pill is missed at any time in the cycle, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed in this case.
However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill even if it means taking two pills in one day, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. In this case, the woman should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for 7 days in a row. If pills are missed in week 1 (Days 1-7), emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week 1. If pills are missed in week 2 (Days 8-14), after seven consecutive days of taking the COC there is no need for emergency contraception.
If pills are missed in week 3 (Days 15-21), the woman should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of 7 days on, 7 days off. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the effectiveness of the COC in preventing pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 63-year-old woman presents with complaints of abdominal swelling, vomiting, and weight loss that have been progressively worsening over the past 6 months. She has a 30-year history of smoking. Imaging reveals bilateral ovarian tumors and a mass in the stomach. A biopsy taken during gastroscopy confirms the presence of adenocarcinoma. What histological characteristics are expected in the ovarian masses?
Your Answer: Signet ring cells
Explanation:Different Types of Ovarian Tumours and their Histological Features
Ovarian tumours can be classified into various types based on their histological features. Here are some examples:
Krukenberg tumours:
These are secondary tumours that originate from the gastrointestinal tract and metastasize to the ovaries. They are characterized by the presence of signet ring cells.Fibromas:
These are benign ovarian tumours that can cause Meigs’ syndrome. They contain spindle-shaped fibroblasts.Granulosa cell tumours:
These are ovarian tumours that are most commonly seen in the first few decades of life. They contain Call-Exner bodies, which are follicles containing eosinophils.Brenner tumours:
These are benign ovarian tumours that contain transitional cells.Mucinous cystadenomas:
These are benign ovarian tumours that contain cells that resemble endocervical cells. However, if the tumour is malignant, it may not have this characteristic feature.In conclusion, the histological features of ovarian tumours can provide important clues about their origin and potential malignancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 21
Correct
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A 26-year-old sexually active female visits her GP with complaints of genital itching and a white discharge. During examination, vulvar erythema and a white vaginal discharge are observed. The vaginal pH is measured at 4.25. What is the probable reason for this woman's symptoms?
Your Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:A high vaginal swab is not necessary for diagnosing vaginal candidiasis if the symptoms strongly suggest its presence. Symptoms such as genital itching and white discharge are indicative of Candida albicans infection. The discharge appears like cottage cheese and causes inflammation and itching, but the vaginal pH remains normal (around 4.0-4.5 in women of reproductive age). Since vaginal candidiasis is a common condition, a confident clinical suspicion based on the examination can be enough to diagnose and initiate treatment.
The other options for diagnosis are incorrect. Gardnerella vaginalis is a normal part of the vaginal flora, but it’s overgrowth can lead to bacterial vaginosis. Unlike vaginal candidiasis, bacterial vaginosis presents with thinner white discharge and a fishy odor that intensifies with the addition of potassium hydroxide. Additionally, the vaginal pH would be elevated (> 4.5).
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 20-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of secondary amenorrhoea that has been going on for four months. She has also lost around 8 kg during this time and currently has a BMI of 17.4 kg/m2. What is the most probable diagnosis for her condition?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Anorexia as a Cause of Secondary Amenorrhoea
This young woman is experiencing secondary amenorrhoea, which is the absence of menstrual periods for at least three months after previously having regular cycles. Her low BMI and weight loss suggest that anorexia is the most likely cause of her amenorrhoea. Anorexia is an eating disorder characterized by a distorted body image and an intense fear of gaining weight, leading to severe calorie restriction and weight loss.
In this case, the anorexia has likely caused a hypogonadotropic hypogonadism, which is a condition where the pituitary gland fails to produce enough hormones to stimulate the ovaries to produce estrogen. This hormonal imbalance can lead to a range of symptoms, including amenorrhoea, infertility, and osteoporosis.
It is important to address the underlying cause of secondary amenorrhoea, as it can have long-term health consequences. Treatment for anorexia may involve a combination of therapy, nutritional counseling, and medication. Once the underlying cause is addressed, menstrual cycles may resume, but it may take several months for regular cycles to return.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 23
Correct
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A 62-year-old mother of three presents to the Gynaecology Clinic, having been referred by her general practitioner. She describes a dragging sensation and the feeling of a lump in her vagina. In addition, she also reports several embarrassing incidences of incontinence following coughing and sneezing. The clinician performs an examination which reveals a cystourethrocele. Both medical and surgical treatment options are discussed with the patient.
Which of the following surgical procedures could be treatment options for this patient?Your Answer: Anterior colporrhaphy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Cystourethrocele: Conservative and Surgical Approaches
Cystourethrocele, the descent of the anterior part of the vagina attached to the urethra and the base of the bladder, can cause disruption of the continence mechanism and stress incontinence. Conservative measures such as pelvic floor exercises, pessaries, and oestrogen therapy may be used prior to surgery or as a therapeutic test to improve symptoms. However, the surgical treatment of choice is an anterior repair, also known as anterior colporrhaphy, which involves making a midline incision through the vaginal skin, reflecting the underlying bladder off the vaginal mucosa, and placing lateral supporting sutures into the fascia to elevate the bladder and bladder neck. Posterior colpoperineorrhaphy is a procedure to surgically correct lacerations or tears in the vagina and perineum. Sacrocolpopexy and sacrospinous fixation are not relevant for this patient. Approximately 50% of patients may experience post-operative urinary retention following anterior colporrhaphy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 24
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP seeking the combined oral contraceptive pill. She experiences intense one-sided headaches and reports a tingling sensation that travels up her arm before the headache begins. She smokes 10-20 cigarettes on most weekends and has a BMI of 34 kg/m². Her younger sister has a history of thromboembolic disease. What specific aspect of her medical history is the most significant contraindication for prescribing the combined oral contraceptive?
Your Answer: Migraine with aura
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms indicate that they may be suffering from migraine, specifically migraine with aura. This condition is classified as UKMEC 4, meaning that it poses a significant health risk when taking combined oral contraceptive pills. While visual disturbances are the most common aura symptoms, some patients may experience sensory or motor symptoms such as tingling, weakness, or difficulty speaking. While other factors in the patient’s medical history may also be relevant, migraine with aura is the primary concern when considering contraception options.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 16-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with right-sided lower abdominal pain that has been on and off for 3 days. Her mother brought her in, and the patient reports no vomiting or diarrhea. She has a regular menstrual cycle, which is 28 days long, and her last period was 10 days ago. The patient denies any sexual activity. On examination, her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, pulse 85 bpm, and temperature 37.7 oC. The abdomen is soft, without distension, and no rebound or guarding present. Laboratory tests show a haemoglobin level of 118 (115–155 g/l), white cell count of 7.8 (4–11.0 × 109/l), C-reactive protein of 4 (<5), and a serum b-human chorionic gonadotropin level of zero. An ultrasound of the abdomen reveals a small amount of free fluid in the pouch of Douglas, along with normal ovaries and a normal appendix.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mittelschmerz
Explanation:Understanding Mittelschmerz: Mid-Cycle Pain in Women
Mittelschmerz, which translates to middle pain in German, is a common experience for approximately 20% of women during mid-cycle. This pain or discomfort occurs when the membrane covering the ovary stretches to release the egg, resulting in pressure and pain. While the amount of pain varies from person to person, some may experience intense pain that can last for days. In severe cases, the pain may be mistaken for appendicitis.
However, other conditions such as acute appendicitis, ruptured ectopic pregnancy, incarcerated hernia, and pelvic inflammatory disease should also be considered and ruled out through physical examination and investigations. It is important to note that a ruptured ectopic pregnancy is a medical emergency and can present with profuse internal bleeding and hypovolaemic shock.
In this case, the patient’s physical examination and investigations suggest recent ovulation and fluid in the pouch of Douglas, making Mittelschmerz the most likely diagnosis. It is important for women to understand and recognize this common experience to differentiate it from other potential conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 26
Correct
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A 19-year-old woman visits your GP clinic with her mother to discuss contraceptive options. She reports heavy periods and prefers non-invasive methods. She also has a history of migraine with aura. What would be the most suitable option for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone only contraceptive pill (POCP)
Explanation:There are many options available for contraception, each with their own advantages and disadvantages. It is important to discuss these options to find the best fit for the patient. In this case, the progesterone only contraceptive pill is the most appropriate option due to the patient’s history of migraine with aura and heavy menstrual cycle. The combined oral contraceptive pill is not recommended for this patient. The intrauterine system is a popular option for menorrhagia, but the patient does not want an invasive device. The contraceptive implant is also invasive and not preferred by the patient. Condoms are a good barrier method, but the POCP will also help with the patient’s heavy and irregular periods.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 27
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman presents with a history of scant abnormal vaginal bleeding for 5 days before menses during each cycle over the past 6 months. She has been married for a year but has been unable to conceive. She experiences lower abdominal cramps during her menses and takes naproxen for relief. Additionally, she complains of pelvic pain during intercourse and defecation. On examination, mild tenderness is noted in the right adnexa. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Endometriosis
Explanation:Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
Abnormal uterine bleeding is a common gynecological problem that can have various underlying causes. Here are some of the most common causes of abnormal uterine bleeding in women:
Endometriosis: This condition occurs when the endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, usually in the ovaries or pelvic cavity. Symptoms include painful periods, painful intercourse, painful bowel movements, and adnexal tenderness. Endometriosis can also lead to infertility.
Ovulatory dysfunctional uterine bleeding: This condition is caused by excessive production of vasoconstrictive prostaglandins in the endometrium during a menstrual period. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are the treatment of choice.
Cervical cancer: This type of cancer is associated with human papillomavirus infection, smoking, early intercourse, multiple sexual partners, use of oral contraceptives, and immunosuppression. Symptoms include vaginal spotting, post-coital bleeding, dyspareunia, and vaginal discharge. Cervical cancer is rare before the age of 25 and is unlikely to cause dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dyschezia, or adnexal tenderness.
Submucosal leiomyoma: This is a benign neoplastic mass of myometrial origin that protrudes into the intrauterine cavity. Symptoms include heavy and painful periods, but acute pain is rare.
Endometrial polyps: These are masses of endometrial tissue attached to the inner surface of the uterus. They are more common around menopausal age and can cause heavy or irregular bleeding. They are usually not associated with pain or menstrual cramps and are not pre-malignant.
Understanding the Common Causes of Abnormal Uterine Bleeding in Women
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 28
Correct
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A 22-year-old patient comes to your clinic after receiving a positive pregnancy test result. She has made the decision to have an abortion after discussing it with her partner and family. However, as a healthcare provider, you personally do not support abortion and are currently treating patients who are struggling with infertility. How should you handle this challenging consultation?
Your Answer: Discuss her options and explain that due to your personal beliefs, you will arrange for her to see another doctor in this instance who will make necessary arrangements
Explanation:According to Good Medical Practice (2013), if you have a conscientious objection to a particular procedure, it is your responsibility to inform your patients and explain their right to see another doctor. You must provide them with sufficient information to exercise this right without expressing any disapproval of their lifestyle, choices, or beliefs. It is important to ensure that your personal views do not unfairly discriminate against patients or colleagues and do not affect the treatment you provide or arrange.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 29
Correct
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A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with sudden-onset, right-sided lower abdominal pain over the past few hours. She has associated nausea and vomiting. The pain has now reached the point of being unbearable. She denies any fever, vaginal bleeding, dysuria or altered bowel habits. She has no significant past medical history. She does not take any regular medications.
On examination, she appears to be in significant pain, clutching at her right lower abdomen, which is tender on palpation. Normal bowel sounds are present. There is a palpable adnexal mass on pelvic examination. She is slightly tachycardic. A pregnancy test is negative and urinalysis is normal.
What ultrasound finding would be indicative of the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Whirlpool sign
Explanation:Ultrasound imaging may reveal a whirlpool sign in cases of ovarian torsion, which is strongly indicated by the patient’s history and examination. The beads-on-a-string sign is typically associated with chronic salpingitis, while hypoechoic masses are often indicative of fibroids. A snow-storm appearance is a characteristic finding in complete hydatidiform mole.
Understanding Ovarian Torsion
Ovarian torsion is a medical condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its supporting ligaments, leading to a compromised blood supply. This condition can be partial or complete and may also affect the fallopian tube, which is then referred to as adnexal torsion. Women who have an ovarian mass, are of reproductive age, pregnant, or have ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome are at a higher risk of developing ovarian torsion.
The most common symptom of ovarian torsion is sudden, severe abdominal pain that is colicky in nature. Patients may also experience vomiting, distress, and in some cases, fever. Upon examination, adnexal tenderness may be detected, and an ultrasound may show free fluid or a whirlpool sign. Laparoscopy is usually both diagnostic and therapeutic for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Correct
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A 67-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to you with complaints of bloating, unintended weight loss, dyspareunia, and an elevated CA-125. What is the most appropriate term to describe the initial spread of this cancer, given the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Local spread within the pelvic region
Explanation:Ovarian cancer typically spreads initially through local invasion, rather than through the lymphatic or hematological routes. This patient’s symptoms, including IBS-like symptoms, irregular vaginal bleeding, and a raised CA125, suggest ovarian cancer. The stages of ovarian cancer range from confined to the ovaries (Stage 1) to spread beyond the pelvis to the abdomen (Stage 3), with local spread within the pelvis (Stage 2) in between. While lymphatic and hematological routes can also be involved in the spread of ovarian cancer, they tend to occur later than local invasion within the pelvis. The para-aortic lymph nodes are a common site for lymphatic spread, while the liver is a common site for hematological spread.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 31
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman goes to her doctor's office. She had a termination of pregnancy two weeks ago at 8 weeks gestation. She calls the doctor's office, worried because her home pregnancy test is still positive. What is the maximum amount of time after a termination that a positive pregnancy test is considered normal?
Your Answer: 4 weeks
Explanation:After a termination of pregnancy, a urine pregnancy test can still show positive results for up to 4 weeks. However, if the test remains positive beyond this time frame, it could indicate an incomplete abortion or a persistent trophoblast, which requires further examination. Therefore, any other options suggesting otherwise are incorrect.
Termination of Pregnancy in the UK
The UK’s current abortion law is based on the 1967 Abortion Act, which was amended in 1990 to reduce the upper limit for termination from 28 weeks to 24 weeks gestation. To perform an abortion, two registered medical practitioners must sign a legal document, except in emergencies where only one is needed. The procedure must be carried out by a registered medical practitioner in an NHS hospital or licensed premise.
The method used to terminate a pregnancy depends on the gestation period. For pregnancies less than nine weeks, mifepristone (an anti-progesterone) is administered, followed by prostaglandins 48 hours later to stimulate uterine contractions. For pregnancies less than 13 weeks, surgical dilation and suction of uterine contents is used. For pregnancies more than 15 weeks, surgical dilation and evacuation of uterine contents or late medical abortion (inducing ‘mini-labour’) is used.
The 1967 Abortion Act outlines the circumstances under which a person shall not be guilty of an offence under the law relating to abortion. These include if two registered medical practitioners are of the opinion, formed in good faith, that the pregnancy has not exceeded its 24th week and that the continuance of the pregnancy would involve risk, greater than if the pregnancy were terminated, of injury to the physical or mental health of the pregnant woman or any existing children of her family. The limits do not apply in cases where it is necessary to save the life of the woman, there is evidence of extreme fetal abnormality, or there is a risk of serious physical or mental injury to the woman.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 32
Correct
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You are seeing a 67-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with urge incontinence. She has tried conservative measures, such as optimizing fluid and caffeine intake and completing six weeks of bladder training, which have helped to some extent. However, her main symptom of nocturia continues to affect her sleep and well-being. She has no other medical history and currently takes no regular medication. What is the next most appropriate treatment?
Your Answer: Oxybutinin
Explanation:Management Options for Urge Incontinence: Medications, Procedures, and Desmopressin
Urge incontinence is a common condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. While conservative treatments such as pelvic floor exercises and bladder training are often the first line of management, some patients may require additional interventions. Here are some options for managing urge incontinence:
Oxybutinin: This anticholinergic medication is often used as first-line treatment for urge incontinence that has not responded to conservative measures. It works by inhibiting muscarinic action on acetylcholine receptors, preventing muscle contraction. However, it is contraindicated in certain patients and can cause side effects such as dry mouth and constipation.
Percutaneous sacral nerve stimulation: This procedure involves a small stimulator that delivers stimulation to the sacral nerve, leading to contraction of the external sphincter and pelvic floor muscles. It is reserved for patients who have failed other treatments or cannot perform intermittent self-catheterization.
Augmentation cystoplasty: This surgical procedure is reserved for severe cases of urge incontinence that have not responded to other management options. It involves resecting a segment of the small bowel and suturing it to the bladder to increase its size. However, it is associated with numerous complications and requires follow-up.
Botulinum toxin: This is the first-line invasive management for patients who have not improved on anticholinergic medication or do not want drug therapy. It is injected into the bladder to inhibit the release of acetylcholine and provide symptom relief for up to six months.
Desmopressin: This synthetic analogue of antidiuretic hormone is used as second-line management for nocturia in patients with urge incontinence. It works by signaling the transportation of aquaporins in the collecting ducts of the kidney, leading to water reabsorption and less urine production. However, it is contraindicated in certain patients and can cause side effects such as hyponatremia and fluid retention.
In summary, there are several options for managing urge incontinence, ranging from medications to procedures. It is important to consider the patient’s individual needs and contraindications when selecting a treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 33
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 3-week history of episodes of postcoital bleeding. She has had some lower abdominal pain but no tenderness or urinary symptoms. She is sexually active, with regular periods and her last menstrual cycle was one week ago. Her temperature is 37.1 °C and she has no systemic symptoms. She is a smoker and takes the oral contraceptive pill. Her last smear test was two years ago.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation?Your Answer: Speculum examination of the cervix
Explanation:Investigating Postcoital Bleeding: The Role of Speculum Examination and Other Tests
Postcoital bleeding can be caused by various abnormalities of the cervix, including cervical ectropion, polyps, infection, or cervical cancer. In women presenting with postcoital bleeding, cervical cancer should be suspected if there are other symptoms such as vaginal discharge, pelvic pain, or dyspareunia. Risk factors for cervical cancer include smoking, oral contraceptive use, HPV infection, HIV infection, immunosuppression, and family history.
The primary screening tool for cervical cancer is a cervical smear, which should be done every three years for women aged 25-49. If a patient presents with postcoital bleeding, the first step is to perform a speculum examination to visualize the cervix, which can detect over 80% of cervical cancers. If the cervix appears normal, a smear may be taken if it is due, and swabs can be taken for STI testing and pregnancy testing. If symptoms persist, referral to colposcopy may be necessary.
Other tests such as blood tests, urine dipstick, and high vaginal swab may be useful in certain cases, but they are not the primary investigation for postcoital bleeding. Blood tests may be indicated later, while urine dipstick and high vaginal swab are secondary investigations following visualisation of the cervix.
In summary, speculum examination is the key initial investigation for postcoital bleeding, and cervical smear is the primary screening tool for cervical cancer. Other tests may be useful in specific situations, but they should not replace the essential role of speculum examination and cervical smear in the evaluation of postcoital bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 73-year-old woman with ovarian cancer is attending the gynaecological oncology clinic. The consultant is discussing her pre-surgical prognosis, which is based on her risk malignancy index (RMI). Can you identify the three components of the RMI?
Your Answer: Age, CA125, ultrasound (US) findings
Correct Answer: CA125, menopausal status, ultrasound (US) findings
Explanation:Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old postmenopausal woman visits her GP complaining of increased urinary frequency and urgency for the past 4 days, along with two instances of urinary incontinence. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus (managed with metformin) and diverticular disease. She does not smoke but admits to consuming one bottle of wine every night. During the examination, her heart rate is 106 bpm, and she experiences non-specific lower abdominal discomfort. Perineal sensation and anal tone are normal. What is the most probable cause of this patient's incontinence?
Your Answer: Oestrogen deficiency
Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection
Explanation:Causes and Precipitants of Urge Incontinence: A Brief Overview
Urge incontinence, characterized by involuntary leakage of urine associated with or following urgency, is a common condition in women. It is caused by overactivity of the detrusor muscle in the bladder wall, leading to irregular contractions during the filling phase and subsequent leakage of urine. While there are many causes and precipitants of urge incontinence, it is often difficult to identify a single factor in the presence of multiple contributing factors.
Some of the common causes of urge incontinence include poorly controlled diabetes, excess caffeine and alcohol intake, neurological dysfunction, urinary infection or faecal impaction, and adverse medication effects. In the case of a patient presenting with a short history of symptoms, urinary tract infection is the most likely cause, and prompt treatment is necessary to prevent complications.
It is important to rule out developing cauda equina, a medical emergency that can lead to paralysis, in patients presenting with short-term urinary incontinence. Normal anal tone and perineal sensation can help exclude this condition.
Excess alcohol and caffeine intake can precipitate symptoms of urge incontinence by inducing diuresis, causing frequency and polyuria. Chronic constipation, particularly in patients with diverticular disease, can also compress the bladder and lead to urge incontinence symptoms. Systemic illnesses such as diabetes mellitus can cause glycosuria and polyuria, leading to bladder irritation and detrusor instability. Finally, oestrogen deficiency associated with postmenopausal status can cause vaginitis and urethritis, both of which can precipitate urge incontinence symptoms.
In conclusion, urge incontinence is a complex condition with multiple contributing factors. Identifying and addressing these factors can help manage symptoms and improve quality of life for affected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 36
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss contraception options. She expresses interest in using the progesterone-only pill as her preferred method of birth control. During the consultation, the doctor informs her about the potential benefits and risks of this contraceptive method, including an elevated risk of ectopic pregnancy. What other factor is known to increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy?
Your Answer: Use of intrauterine device
Explanation:Understanding Risk Factors for Ectopic Pregnancy
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition where a fertilized egg implants outside of the uterus, usually in the fallopian tube. While there are several risk factors associated with ectopic pregnancy, some common misconceptions exist. Here are some important facts to keep in mind:
Methods of contraception, such as intrauterine devices (IUDs), do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. However, IUDs can cause side effects such as irregular bleeding and pelvic pain.
The combined oral contraceptive pill can cause various side effects, but ectopic pregnancy is not one of them.
Subserosal fibroids and corpus luteal cysts can cause abdominal pain and other symptoms, but they do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy.
Previous miscarriage is not a risk factor for ectopic pregnancy, but it can increase the risk of future miscarriages.
It’s important to understand the true risk factors for ectopic pregnancy in order to make informed decisions about contraception and reproductive health. If you experience symptoms such as abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, or shoulder pain, seek medical attention immediately as these could be signs of ectopic pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 37
Correct
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A 27-year-old female patient visits her general practitioner complaining of a dull pelvic pain and foul-smelling discharge that has been worsening for the past 5 weeks. She has been using a hormonal intrauterine device for a year and does not experience menstruation with it. She has received the human papillomavirus vaccine but has not undergone any smear tests. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pelvic inflammatory disease
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest that she may have pelvic inflammatory disease, which is a common diagnosis for women who experience long-term pelvic pain and smelly discharge. It is possible that she has a sexually transmitted infection, as she is not using a barrier method with her intrauterine device. The doctor should take high vaginal swabs and prescribe antibiotics if necessary. It is also recommended to perform a smear test while the patient is there.
While ectopic pregnancy is a possibility, it is less likely due to the patient’s intrauterine device. However, a pregnancy test should still be conducted. Endometriosis is also a possibility, but the patient’s pain does not seem to be related to her menstrual cycle.
Although the patient missed her first cervical smear, cervical cancer is not the most likely diagnosis based on her symptoms and the fact that she has received the human papillomavirus vaccine. However, it is still important for her to have regular smear tests.
Inflammatory bowel disease is another potential cause of pelvic pain, but it is usually accompanied by other symptoms such as weight loss, rectal bleeding, and diarrhea.
Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and gonorrhoeae. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 38
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism (hirsutism, severe acne and pigmented areas of skin in the axillae) and multiple ovarian cysts, demonstrated on ultrasound scan of both ovaries, has been trying to conceive for six months, but her periods are irregular. She has lost 2 stones in weight and attends clinic for further advice on management.
What is the most appropriate step in the management of this 28-year-old patient with clinical signs of hyperandrogenism, multiple ovarian cysts, irregular periods, and a desire to conceive, who has lost 2 stones in weight?Your Answer: Clomiphene citrate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Infertility in Women with PCOS
Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common cause of infertility in women. Clomiphene citrate is the first-line medication used to induce ovulation in women with PCOS who wish to conceive. It works by binding to hypothalamic estrogen receptors, inhibiting the negative feedback on follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and triggering ovulation. However, it is important to counsel women about the increased risk of multiple pregnancy when treated with Clomiphene. Metformin, once considered a viable option for PCOS-related infertility, is now considered inferior to Clomiphene. However, it can be used in combination with Clomiphene to increase the success of ovulation induction. Gonadotrophins are recommended as second-line treatment for women who do not respond to Clomiphene. Laparoscopic ovarian drilling is a surgical option reserved for cases where Clomiphene has failed. It involves destroying ovarian stroma to reduce androgen-secreting tissue and induce ovulation. The choice of treatment depends on individual patient factors and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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At a subfertility clinic, you are tasked with obtaining a menstrual cycle history from a 32-year-old patient to determine the appropriate day for conducting a mid-luteal progesterone level test. The patient reports having a consistent 28-day cycle. What day would you recommend for the mid-luteal progesterone level test?
Your Answer: Day 21
Correct Answer: Day 28
Explanation:The appropriate time to test progesterone levels is on Day 28, which is 7 days before the end of a woman’s regular menstrual cycle. However, for individuals with a different cycle length, the timing may vary. It is recommended to take into account the individual’s menstrual cycle history to determine the appropriate time for testing. According to NICE guidelines, women with regular menstrual cycles should be informed that they are likely ovulating, but a mid-luteal serum progesterone level should be checked to confirm.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 40
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been experiencing severe dysmenorrhoea for a prolonged period and seeks consultation at the gynaecological clinic. The consultant suspects adenomyosis as the underlying cause but wants to confirm the diagnosis and exclude other possible pathologies before initiating treatment. What is the most appropriate imaging modality for diagnosing this condition?
Your Answer: MRI Pelvis
Explanation:MRI is the most effective imaging technique for diagnosing adenomyosis, which is the presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium. While ultrasound can also aid in diagnosis, it is not as reliable as MRI. Laparoscopy is used to diagnose endometriosis, but it cannot detect adenomyosis as it occurs within the uterine wall. CT is not a suitable imaging technique for adenomyosis as it cannot differentiate between different types of tissue. Hysterosalpingography is used for imaging the uterine lining and fallopian tubes, typically during fertility treatment, but it cannot provide an image of the myometrium.
Understanding Adenomyosis
Adenomyosis is a medical condition that occurs when endometrial tissue grows within the muscular walls of the uterus. This condition is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Symptoms of adenomyosis include painful menstrual cramps, heavy menstrual bleeding, and an enlarged and tender uterus.
To diagnose adenomyosis, doctors typically use magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) as it is the most effective method. Treatment options for adenomyosis include managing symptoms with pain relief medication, using tranexamic acid to control heavy bleeding, and administering gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists to reduce estrogen levels. In severe cases, uterine artery embolization or hysterectomy may be necessary. Hysterectomy is considered the definitive treatment for adenomyosis.
In summary, adenomyosis is a condition that affects the uterus and can cause painful menstrual cramps, heavy bleeding, and an enlarged uterus. It is more common in women who have had multiple pregnancies and are nearing the end of their reproductive years. Diagnosis is typically done through MRI, and treatment options include managing symptoms, medication, and surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 41
Correct
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A 14-year-old girl has had apparently normal appearance of secondary sexual characteristics, except that she has not menstruated. A pelvic examination reveals a mobile mass in her left labium major and a shallow, blind-ending vagina without a cervix, but otherwise normal female external genitalia. Ultrasound reveals no cervix, uterus or ovaries. Karyotype analysis reveals 46,XY.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS)
Explanation:Disorders of Sexual Development: An Overview
Disorders of sexual development (DSD) are a group of conditions that affect the development of the reproductive system. Here are some of the most common DSDs:
Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (AIS)
AIS is a condition where cells cannot respond to androgens, resulting in disrupted sexual development. Patients with complete AIS have a female phenotype with male internal genitalia, while those with partial or mild AIS may have a mix of male and female characteristics. Treatment involves careful gender assignment and hormone replacement therapy.Turner Syndrome
Turner syndrome is a condition where patients are missing all or part of an X chromosome, resulting in premature ovarian failure and delayed puberty. Patients are phenotypically female with normal external genitalia.Klinefelter’s Syndrome
Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal aneuploidy where patients have an extra copy of an X chromosome, resulting in hypogonadism and infertility. Patients are phenotypically male with normal external genitalia.Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a group of conditions associated with abnormal enzymes involved in the production of hormones from the adrenals. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later present with symptoms of polycystic ovary syndrome or hyperpigmentation.5-α Reductase Deficiency
5-α reductase deficiency is a condition where patients have a mutation in the SDR5A2 gene, resulting in disrupted formation of external genitalia before birth. Patients may have ambiguous genitalia at birth and later show virilisation during puberty. Patients are infertile.Treatment for DSDs involves hormone replacement therapy and supportive care. It is important to provide psychosocial support for patients and their families.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 42
Correct
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A 50-year-old female visits her primary care physician with complaints of decreased libido and vasomotor symptoms that have persisted for three weeks. She has been experiencing vaginal dryness for the past year and has been using topical estrogen to manage it. After consulting with her doctor, they decide to discontinue the topical estrogen and start her on an oral form of estrogen-progesterone hormone replacement therapy (HRT). As a result of the addition of progesterone, what health risks is the patient more likely to face?
Your Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:The addition of a progesterone to HRT raises the likelihood of developing breast cancer, making this the accurate response.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 43
Correct
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A 27-year-old female comes to the GP seeking advice on her contraceptive options. She has been relying on condoms but has recently entered a new relationship and wants to explore other methods. She expresses concern about the possibility of gaining weight from her chosen contraception.
What should this woman avoid?Your Answer: Injectable contraceptive
Explanation:Depo-provera is linked to an increase in weight.
If this woman is concerned about weight gain, it is best to avoid depo-provera, which is the primary injectable contraceptive in the UK. Depo-provera can cause various adverse effects, including weight gain, irregular bleeding, delayed return to fertility, and an increased risk of osteoporosis.
While some users of the combined oral contraceptive pill have reported weight gain, a Cochrane review does not support a causal relationship. There are no reasons for this woman to avoid the combined oral contraceptive pill.
The progesterone-only pill has not been associated with weight gain and is safe for use in this woman.
The intra-uterine system (IUS) does not cause weight gain in users and is a viable option for this woman.
The subdermal contraceptive implant can cause irregular or heavy bleeding, as well as progesterone-related side effects such as headaches, nausea, and breast pain. However, it is not typically associated with weight gain and is not contraindicated for use in this situation.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 44
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman visits the fertility clinic with her partner. She has a record of consistent 35-day menstrual cycles. What is the most effective test to determine ovulation?
Your Answer: Day 28 progesterone
Explanation:The luteal phase of the menstrual cycle remains constant at 14 days, while the follicular phase can vary. The serum progesterone level reaches its peak 7 days after ovulation. For a 35-day cycle, the follicular phase would be 21 days (with ovulation occurring on day 21) and the luteal phase would be 14 days, resulting in the progesterone level peaking on day 28 (35-7). However, relying on day 21 progesterone levels would only be useful for women with a regular menstrual cycle of 28 days. While basal body temperature charting can be used to track ovulation, it is not the recommended method by NICE. An increase in basal temperature after ovulation can indicate successful ovulation.
Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.
When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.
It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 45
Correct
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A woman of 68 presents with four episodes of postmenopausal bleeding over the last 6 months. She is otherwise fit and well, although her body mass index is 38 kg/m2.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Endometrial cancer
Explanation:postmenopausal Bleeding: Common Causes and Investigations
postmenopausal bleeding can be caused by various factors, including atrophic vaginitis, endometrial atrophy, cervical or endometrial polyps, and endometrial hyperplasia/cancer. Among these causes, endometrial cancer is the most likely. Therefore, investigation for patients with postmenopausal bleeding is typically done in a specialist clinic, with transvaginal ultrasound, hysteroscopy, and biopsy.
However, submucosal fibroids become quiescent following menopause and usually calcify, and there is no evidence of increased risk of endometrial cancer in women with fibroids. On the other hand, ovarian cancer rarely, if ever, presents with postmenopausal bleeding. Cervical ectropion is a condition of young women, and vaginal cancer is very rare and usually presents with vaginal discharge.
In summary, postmenopausal bleeding should be investigated thoroughly to rule out any underlying serious conditions, such as endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 46
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman is diagnosed with an unruptured ectopic pregnancy. What medication is typically used for medical management of this condition?
Your Answer: Methotrexate
Explanation:Methotrexate is the preferred medication for treating ectopic pregnancy through medical management, provided the patient is willing to attend follow-up appointments.
Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.
There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.
Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 47
Correct
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A 57-year-old woman has been experiencing bloating and weight loss for the past 6 months. Her blood tests reveal a high CA-125 level. What type of cancer is typically associated with an elevated CA-125 in this age group?
Your Answer: Ovarian cancer
Explanation:Tumour Markers for Different Types of Cancer
Tumour markers are substances that are produced by cancer cells or by the body in response to cancer. They can be detected in blood, urine, or tissue samples and can help in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some tumour markers for different types of cancer:
– Ovarian cancer: CA125 is highly suggestive of ovarian cancer.
– Colorectal cancer: CEA is a tumour marker for bowel cancer.
– Breast cancer: CA 15–3 is a tumour marker for breast cancer.
– Pancreatic cancer: CA19–9 is a tumour marker for pancreatic cancer.
– Rectal cancer: Unfortunately, there is no specific marker for rectal cancer.It is important to note that tumour markers are not always reliable and can be elevated in non-cancerous conditions as well. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 48
Correct
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A 25-year-old female graduate student presents to her primary care physician with complaints of weight gain and excessive hair growth on her face and upper chest. She reports having irregular periods, with only one occurring every 2-3 months. Upon examination, the patient is found to have elevated levels of testosterone at 3.5 nmol/l and an elevated LH:FSH ratio. Additionally, she is overweight with a BMI of 28 and has acne. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a woman with typical PCOS phenotype and biochemical markers
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a common endocrine disorder that affects reproductive-aged women. Its diagnosis is based on the presence of at least two of the following criteria: oligo-ovulation or anovulation, clinical and/or biochemical signs of hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovaries on ultrasound. However, other conditions can mimic or coexist with PCOS, making the differential diagnosis challenging. Here are some possible explanations for a woman who presents with the typical PCOS phenotype and biochemical markers:
– Cushing syndrome: This rare disorder results from chronic exposure to high levels of cortisol, either endogenously (e.g., due to a pituitary or adrenal tumour) or exogenously (e.g., due to long-term glucocorticoid therapy). Cushing syndrome can cause weight gain, central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, purple striae, hypertension, glucose intolerance, and osteoporosis. However, it is not associated with a high LH: FSH ratio, which is a hallmark of PCOS.
– Androgen-secreting tumour: This is a rare cause of hyperandrogenism that can arise from the ovary, adrenal gland, or other tissues. The excess production of androgens can lead to virilization, hirsutism, acne, alopecia, menstrual irregularities, and infertility. However, the testosterone level in this case would be expected to be higher than 3.5 nmol/l, which is the upper limit of the normal range for most assays.
– Simple obesity: This is a common condition that can affect women of any age and ethnicity. Obesity can cause insulin resistance, hyperinsulinemia, dyslipidemia, inflammation, and oxidative stress, which can contribute to the development of PCOS. However, the abnormal testosterone and LH: FSH ratio suggest an underlying pathology that is not solely related to excess adiposity. Moreover, at a BMI of 28, the patient’s weight is not within the range for a clinical diagnosis of obesity (BMI ≥ 30).
– Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome: This is a rare genetic disorder that affects the androgen receptor, leading to a lack of response to androgens in target tissues. As a result, affected individuals have a female phenotype despite having XY chromosomes. They typically present with primary amenorrhea -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 49
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the GP complaining of urinary incontinence. Upon further inquiry, she reports that the incontinence is most severe after coughing or sneezing. She has given birth to four children, all through vaginal delivery, with the most recent being 35 years ago. These symptoms have been getting worse over the past eight weeks.
What tests should be requested based on this woman's presentation?Your Answer: Urinalysis
Explanation:When dealing with patients who have urinary incontinence, it is important to rule out the possibility of a urinary tract infection or diabetes mellitus. This is particularly relevant for a 64-year-old woman who is experiencing this issue. While stress incontinence may be the cause, a urinalysis should be conducted to ensure that there are no underlying medical conditions that could be contributing to or exacerbating her symptoms. In cases where voiding dysfunction or overflow incontinence is suspected, a post-void residual volume test may be necessary. However, this is more commonly seen in elderly men who may have prostate issues. Cystoscopy is not typically used as a first-line investigation for women with urinary incontinence, but may be considered if bladder lesions are suspected. Urinary flow rate assessment is more commonly used in elderly men or those with neurological symptoms.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 50
Correct
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A 19-year-old female visits the nearby sexual health clinic after engaging in unprotected sexual activity four days ago. She is not using any contraception and prefers an oral method over an invasive one. What is the most suitable course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe ulipristal
Explanation:The appropriate option for emergency contraception in this case is ulipristal, which can be prescribed up to 120 hours after unprotected sexual intercourse. Levonorgestrel, which must be taken within 72 hours, is not a suitable option. Insertion of an intrauterine device or system is also inappropriate as the patient declined invasive contraception. Mifepristone is not licensed for emergency contraception.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 51
Correct
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A 35-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking emergency contraception after engaging in unprotected sexual activity around 96 hours ago. She is presently undergoing treatment for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) with antibiotics.
Which emergency contraceptive would be the most suitable option for this patient?Your Answer: Ulipristal acetate (EllaOne)
Explanation:Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 52
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of heavy and prolonged menstrual bleeding that has been ongoing for six months, despite being treated with mefenamic and tranexamic acid. Upon conducting a transvaginal ultrasound, an endometrial thickness of 15mm is observed. What would be the next appropriate course of investigation?
Your Answer: Endometrial biopsy at hysteroscopy
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, an endometrial biopsy should be performed if necessary to rule out endometrial cancer or atypical hyperplasia. The biopsy is recommended for women who experience persistent intermenstrual bleeding and for those aged 45 and above who have had unsuccessful or ineffective treatment. In the case of the patient mentioned above, her treatment has not been successful and she has a thickened endometrium. Although there is some debate about the thickness of the endometrium in premenopausal women, this patient qualifies for a biopsy based on her failed medical treatment alone, making it the most appropriate option.
Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.
When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. progesterone therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presented with pruritus in the perineal area, associated with pain on micturition and dyspareunia. She had thin, hypopigmented skin, with white, polygonal patches which, in areas, formed patches.
She returns for review after a 3-month trial of clobetasol proprionate, which has failed to improve symptoms. There is no evidence of infection, and her observations are stable.
Which of the following is the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?Your Answer: Ultraviolet (UV) phototherapy
Correct Answer: Topical tacrolimus
Explanation:Treatment Options for Lichen Sclerosus: Topical Tacrolimus as Second-Line Therapy
Lichen sclerosus is a chronic inflammatory condition that commonly affects the genital area in men and women, presenting with pruritus and skin irritation. First-line treatment involves high-potency steroids, but if the patient fails to respond, the next step is topical calcineurin inhibitors such as tacrolimus. This immunosuppressant reduces inflammation by inhibiting the secretion of interleukin-2, which promotes T-cell proliferation. However, chronic inflammatory conditions like lichen sclerosus increase the risk of vulval carcinoma, so a tissue biopsy should be obtained if the lesion is steroid-resistant. UV phototherapy and oral retinoids are not recommended as second-line therapy due to uncertain risks, while surgical excision is reserved for severe cases. The combination of potent steroids with antibacterial or antifungal properties is a first-line option in cases of superimposed infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 54
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of vaginal discomfort, itching, and pain during sexual intercourse. Upon excluding other possible causes of her symptoms, the doctor diagnoses her with atrophic vaginitis. What additional treatments can be used in conjunction with topical estrogen cream to alleviate her symptoms?
Your Answer: Lubricants and moisturisers
Explanation:When experiencing atrophic vaginitis, the dryness of the vaginal mucosa can cause pain, itching, and dyspareunia. The first-line treatment for this condition is topical oestrogen cream, which helps to restore the vaginal mucosa. However, lubricants and moisturisers can also provide short-term relief while waiting for the topical oestrogen cream to take effect. Oestrogen secreting pessaries are an alternative to topical oestrogen cream, but using them together would result in an excessive dose of oestrogen. Sitz baths are useful for irritation and itching of the perineum, but they do not address internal vaginal symptoms. Warm or cold compresses may provide temporary relief, but they are not a long-term solution.
Atrophic vaginitis is a condition that commonly affects women who have gone through menopause. Its symptoms include vaginal dryness, pain during sexual intercourse, and occasional spotting. Upon examination, the vagina may appear dry and pale. The recommended treatment for this condition is the use of vaginal lubricants and moisturizers. If these do not provide relief, a topical estrogen cream may be prescribed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 55
Correct
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A 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic with worsening perimenopause symptoms. Her periods have become irregular over the past year, and she is experiencing low mood, night sweats, and hot flashes. The patient is interested in treatment options but is worried about the potential risk of breast cancer. Which of the following choices is most likely to increase her risk of developing breast cancer?
Your Answer: Combined hormone replacement therapy (HRT)
Explanation:The addition of progesterone to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) has been found to raise the risk of breast cancer. It is worth noting that taking low doses of progesterone alone, without oestrogen, does not seem to have the same effect on breast cancer risk. If used for less than 10 years, oestrogen-only HRT does not appear to increase the likelihood of developing breast cancer. However, it does increase the risk of endometrial cancer and should be avoided unless the patient has had a hysterectomy.
Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 56
Correct
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP to discuss contraception. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 1 diabetes mellitus, and is currently undergoing treatment for breast cancer. She was also recently diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis in her left leg and is a heavy smoker with a BMI of 38 kg/m2. She is interested in receiving an injectable progesterone contraceptive. What aspect of her medical history would prevent the GP from prescribing this?
Your Answer: Current breast cancer
Explanation:Injectable progesterone contraceptives are not recommended for individuals with current breast cancer.
This is considered an absolute contraindication (UKMEC 4) for prescribing injectable progesterone contraceptives. It is also an absolute contraindication for most other forms of contraception, except for the non-hormonal copper intrauterine device.
Current deep vein thrombosis is a UKMEC 2 contraindication for injectable progesterone, while it is a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill. Multiple cardiovascular risk factors are a UKMEC 3 contraindication, which is not absolute, but the risks are generally considered to outweigh the benefits.
Smoking 30 cigarettes per day is only a UKMEC 1 contraindication for injectable progesterone contraception. However, considering the individual’s age, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined oral contraceptive pill.
High BMI is a UKMEC 1 contraindication for most forms of contraception, including injectable progesterone. However, it would be a UKMEC 4 contraindication for the combined pill.
Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera
Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150 mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucous thickening and endometrial thinning.
However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.
It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 57
Correct
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An 18 year old female patient visits her GP complaining of abdominal pain that occurs towards the end of every month. Despite having secondary sexual characteristics, she has not yet started menstruating. She confirms that she is not sexually active and a pregnancy test comes back negative. What is the most probable diagnosis for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:Based on the given history, it appears that there is a blockage preventing the normal flow of menstrual blood. This is indicated by the presence of secondary sexual characteristics and recurring abdominal pain. It can be ruled out that the cause of this condition is a bicornuate uterus, dermoid cysts, endometriosis, or pelvic inflammatory disease, as these are not associated with primary amenorrhoea.
Understanding Amenorrhoea: Causes, Investigations, and Management
Amenorrhoea is a condition characterized by the absence of menstrual periods in women. It can be classified into two types: primary and secondary. Primary amenorrhoea occurs when menstruation fails to start by the age of 15 in girls with normal secondary sexual characteristics or by the age of 13 in girls without secondary sexual characteristics. On the other hand, secondary amenorrhoea is the cessation of menstruation for 3-6 months in women with previously normal and regular menses or 6-12 months in women with previous oligomenorrhoea.
There are various causes of amenorrhoea, including gonadal dysgenesis, testicular feminization, congenital malformations of the genital tract, functional hypothalamic amenorrhoea, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, imperforate hymen, hypothalamic amenorrhoea, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperprolactinemia, premature ovarian failure, Sheehan’s syndrome, Asherman’s syndrome, and thyrotoxicosis. To determine the underlying cause of amenorrhoea, initial investigations such as full blood count, urea & electrolytes, coeliac screen, thyroid function tests, gonadotrophins, prolactin, and androgen levels are necessary.
The management of amenorrhoea depends on the underlying cause. For primary amenorrhoea, it is important to investigate and treat any underlying cause. Women with primary ovarian insufficiency due to gonadal dysgenesis may benefit from hormone replacement therapy to prevent osteoporosis. For secondary amenorrhoea, it is important to exclude pregnancy, lactation, and menopause in women 40 years of age or older and treat the underlying cause accordingly. It is important to note that hypothyroidism may also cause amenorrhoea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman comes to the postmenopausal bleeding clinic complaining of continuous vaginal bleeding for the past 2 weeks. What would be your initial investigation in the clinic?
Your Answer: Pelvic ultrasound
Correct Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound
Explanation:TVUS is the recommended initial investigation for PMB, unless there are contraindications. This is because it provides the most accurate measurement of endometrial thickness, which is crucial in determining if the bleeding is due to endometrial cancer.
Understanding Postmenopausal Bleeding
Postmenopausal bleeding refers to vaginal bleeding that occurs after a woman has gone 12 months without a menstrual period. While most cases do not involve cancer, it is important to rule out this possibility in all women. The most common cause of postmenopausal bleeding is vaginal atrophy, which occurs due to a reduction in estrogen following menopause. Other causes include hormone replacement therapy, endometrial hyperplasia, endometrial cancer, cervical cancer, ovarian cancer, and vaginal cancer.
To investigate postmenopausal bleeding, women over the age of 55 should undergo an ultrasound within two weeks to check for endometrial cancer. If referred on a cancer pathway, a transvaginal ultrasound is the preferred method of investigation. Treatment options depend on the underlying cause of the bleeding. For vaginal atrophy, topical estrogen and lifestyle changes can help alleviate symptoms, while HRT may also be used. If the bleeding is due to a specific type of HRT, switching to a different preparation may be helpful. In cases of endometrial hyperplasia, dilation and curettage may be necessary to remove excess tissue.
Overall, it is important for women experiencing postmenopausal bleeding to seek medical attention and undergo appropriate testing to rule out any serious underlying conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 59
Correct
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A 16-year-old Ethiopian girl has come to the emergency department complaining of recurring urinary tract infections. During the examination, you and a chaperone observe that the girl may have undergone clitoridectomy, indicating that she may have been a victim of female genital mutilation (FGM). The girl requests antibiotics and that no one else be informed. In addition to treating the infection, what actions should you take?
Your Answer: Inform the medical team and the police
Explanation:The UK Government implemented legal modifications in October 2015 regarding the response of doctors in England and Wales to instances of female genital mutilation (FGM). As per the guidelines of the General Medical Council (GMC), doctors are required to report all cases of FGM in individuals under the age of 18 to the police. This can be done by contacting 101 or using the established local channels. Reporting is compulsory to align with our responsibilities towards child protection and safeguarding.
Understanding Female Genital Mutilation
Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 60
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing cyclical mood swings and irritability, which typically occur one week before her period and subside a few days after. She visited her GP, who prescribed a combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) after reviewing her symptom diary. However, after three months of treatment, she returns to her GP and reports that her symptoms have not improved during her menstrual cycle. She is feeling like a bad mother as she is losing her patience with her children easily when symptomatic and is seeking further treatment options. What is the most appropriate treatment for her?
Your Answer: Sertraline
Explanation:Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) can be helped by SSRIs, either continuously or during the luteal phase. If a patient’s symptoms are significantly impacting their day-to-day life and have not improved with first-line treatment using a combined oral contraceptive pill, antidepressant treatment with SSRIs is recommended. Co-cyprindiol, levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine systems, mirtazapine, and the copper coil are not indicated for the management of PMS.
Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 61
Correct
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A mother brings her 13-year-old daughter to the GP with concerns about her daughter's lack of menstrual periods and cyclical pain. Upon examination, the daughter appears to be in good health. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Imperforate hymen
Explanation:The topic of primary amenorrhoea is being discussed, where the patient is experiencing cyclical pain but has not had any evidence of menstruation. This eliminates certain possibilities such as mullerian agenesis and constitutional delay, which are typically painless. Turner syndrome is also unlikely as it is often accompanied by distinct physical features and health issues. Pregnancy cannot be ruled out entirely, but it is improbable given the patient’s lack of menarche and cyclical pain. Therefore, imperforate hymen is the most probable diagnosis.
Amenorrhoea refers to the absence of menstruation, which can be primary (when menarche has never occurred) or secondary (when the patient has not had periods for more than six months despite having had them in the past). Primary amenorrhoea is diagnosed if the patient has not had a period by the age of 14 without any secondary sexual characteristics, or over the age of 16 if such characteristics are present. The causes of primary amenorrhoea can include constitutional delay (when the patient is a late bloomer but has secondary sexual characteristics) or anatomical issues such as mullerian agenesis (where the patient has varying degrees of absence of female sexual organs despite developing secondary sexual characteristics).
Common Causes of Delayed Puberty
Delayed puberty is a condition where the onset of puberty is later than the normal age range. This can be caused by various factors such as genetic disorders, hormonal imbalances, and chronic illnesses. Delayed puberty with short stature is often associated with Turner’s syndrome, Prader-Willi syndrome, and Noonan’s syndrome. These conditions affect the growth and development of the body, resulting in a shorter stature.
On the other hand, delayed puberty with normal stature can be caused by polycystic ovarian syndrome, androgen insensitivity, Kallmann syndrome, and Klinefelter’s syndrome. These conditions affect the production and regulation of hormones, which can lead to delayed puberty.
It is important to note that delayed puberty does not necessarily mean there is a serious underlying condition. However, it is recommended to consult a healthcare professional if there are concerns about delayed puberty. Treatment options may include hormone therapy or addressing any underlying medical conditions.
In summary, delayed puberty can be caused by various factors and can be associated with different genetic disorders. It is important to seek medical advice if there are concerns about delayed puberty.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with a regular 28-day menstrual cycle reports experiencing mood changes during the week leading up to her period. She describes feeling increasingly anxious and irritable, and these symptoms are severe enough to affect her work and social life. She has a history of migraine with aura. What is the most suitable intervention to alleviate her premenstrual symptoms?
Your Answer: Progesterone only pill
Correct Answer: Selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitor (SSRI)
Explanation:Understanding Premenstrual Syndrome (PMS)
Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is a condition that affects women during the luteal phase of their menstrual cycle. It is characterized by emotional and physical symptoms that can range from mild to severe. PMS only occurs in women who have ovulatory menstrual cycles and does not occur before puberty, during pregnancy, or after menopause.
Emotional symptoms of PMS include anxiety, stress, fatigue, and mood swings. Physical symptoms may include bloating and breast pain. The severity of symptoms varies from woman to woman, and management options depend on the severity of symptoms.
Mild symptoms can be managed with lifestyle advice, such as getting enough sleep, exercising regularly, and avoiding smoking and alcohol. Specific advice includes eating regular, frequent, small, balanced meals that are rich in complex carbohydrates.
Moderate symptoms may benefit from a new-generation combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP), such as Yasmin® (drospirenone 3 mg and ethinylestradiol 0.030 mg). Severe symptoms may benefit from a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which can be taken continuously or just during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle (for example, days 15-28, depending on the length of the cycle). Understanding PMS and its management options can help women better cope with this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 63
Correct
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A 54-year-old woman has been diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has had a positive CA125 blood test, ultrasound scan and CT abdomen and pelvis. She is found to have stage 2 ovarian cancer. What is the primary treatment?
Your Answer: Surgical excision of the tumour
Explanation:Surgical removal of the tumour is the primary treatment for ovarian cancers in stages 2-4, often accompanied by chemotherapy as well, according to NICE CG122.
Ovarian cancer is a common malignancy in women, ranking fifth in frequency. It is most commonly diagnosed in women over the age of 60 and has a poor prognosis due to late detection. The majority of ovarian cancers, around 90%, are of epithelial origin, with serous carcinomas accounting for 70-80% of cases. Interestingly, recent research suggests that many ovarian cancers may actually originate in the distal end of the fallopian tube. Risk factors for ovarian cancer include a family history of BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene mutations, early menarche, late menopause, and nulliparity.
Clinical features of ovarian cancer are often vague and can include abdominal distension and bloating, abdominal and pelvic pain, urinary symptoms such as urgency, early satiety, and diarrhea. The initial diagnostic test recommended by NICE is a CA125 blood test, although this can also be elevated in other conditions such as endometriosis and benign ovarian cysts. If the CA125 level is raised, an urgent ultrasound scan of the abdomen and pelvis should be ordered. However, a CA125 test should not be used for screening asymptomatic women. Diagnosis of ovarian cancer is difficult and usually requires a diagnostic laparotomy.
Management of ovarian cancer typically involves a combination of surgery and platinum-based chemotherapy. Unfortunately, 80% of women have advanced disease at the time of diagnosis, leading to a 5-year survival rate of only 46%. It was previously thought that infertility treatment increased the risk of ovarian cancer due to increased ovulation, but recent evidence suggests that this is not a significant factor. In fact, the combined oral contraceptive pill and multiple pregnancies have been shown to reduce the risk of ovarian cancer by reducing the number of ovulations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 64
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman had gone for her routine cervical smear and the result came back as inadequate. It was noted in her medical history that she had an inadequate smear 4 years ago but subsequent smears were fine. What should be the next course of action?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 months
Explanation:If a cervical smear is inadequate, it is recommended to repeat the test within 3 months. This is the correct course of action for the patient in question, as her routine smear was deemed inadequate. Referral for colposcopy is not necessary at this stage, as it is only indicated if there are two consecutive inadequate smears that are 3 months apart. Waiting for 3 years to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as this is the interval for routine recall for a patient of her age. Similarly, waiting for 6 or 12 months to repeat the smear would not be appropriate, as these timeframes are only indicated for specific circumstances such as testing for cure following treatment or if the most recent smear was hrHPV positive without cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 25 year old woman visits the family planning clinic seeking advice on contraception. She has a history of epilepsy and is currently on carbamazepine medication. Additionally, her BMI is 39 kg/m² and she has no other medical history. What would be the most appropriate contraceptive option to suggest for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone injection (Depo-Provera)
Correct Answer: Copper intrauterine device
Explanation:Contraception for Women with Epilepsy
Women with epilepsy need to consider several factors when choosing a contraceptive method. Firstly, they need to consider how the contraceptive may affect the effectiveness of their anti-epileptic medication. Secondly, they need to consider how their anti-epileptic medication may affect the effectiveness of the contraceptive. Lastly, they need to consider the potential teratogenic effects of their anti-epileptic medication if they become pregnant.
To address these concerns, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) recommends that women with epilepsy consistently use condoms in addition to other forms of contraception. For women taking certain anti-epileptic medications such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, barbiturates, primidone, topiramate, and oxcarbazepine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP and POP as UKMEC 3, the implant as UKMEC 2, and the Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1.
For women taking lamotrigine, the FSRH recommends the use of the COCP as UKMEC 3 and the POP, implant, Depo-Provera, IUD, and IUS as UKMEC 1. If a COCP is chosen, it should contain a minimum of 30 µg of ethinylestradiol. By considering these recommendations, women with epilepsy can make informed decisions about their contraceptive options and ensure the safety and effectiveness of their chosen method.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for her routine cervical smear. The GP informs her that the result is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus (hrHPV) and schedules a follow-up smear in 12 months. At the second smear, the same result is obtained, and the GP schedules another follow-up smear in 12 months. However, at the third smear (now 37 years old), the hrHPV result is negative. The patient has no significant medical or family history.
What is the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer: Repeat smear in 5 years
Correct Answer: Repeat smear in 3 years
Explanation:The correct course of action for a patient who has a second repeat smear at 24 months that is hrHPV negative is to return to routine recall in 3 years. If the result had been positive, the patient would need to be recalled in 12 months for a repeat smear. Referring for colposcopy would only be necessary if the patient had tested positive for hrHPV. Repeating the smear in 3 months or 12 months would also be incorrect, as the patient has already had two smears and the third result will determine the next course of action. Repeating the smear in 5 years would only be appropriate for older women during routine screening.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 67
Correct
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A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman with three previous vaginal deliveries presents to her general practitioner (GP) with a 2-week history of urinary incontinence. She was recently diagnosed with hypertension and was commenced on doxazosin therapy one month ago. She reports that these episodes occur during the day when she is walking to work and while she is working. She is a volunteer at the hospital shop and frequently lifts boxes as part of this role. She denies any preceding symptoms.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Stress incontinence
Explanation:Types of Urinary Incontinence and Their Causes
Urinary incontinence is a common condition that affects many people, particularly women. There are different types of urinary incontinence, each with its own causes and management options.
Stress incontinence is the most common form of urinary incontinence in women. It occurs when there is either loss of muscle tension of the pelvic floor muscles or damage to the urethral sphincter, leading to leakage of urine with stress. Risk factors include vaginal delivery, obesity, previous pelvic surgery, increasing age, family history, and use of certain medications.
Functional incontinence occurs when one cannot make it to the toilet in time due to physical or environmental problems. This is not applicable to the patient in the scenario.
Overflow incontinence occurs in the presence of a physical obstruction to bladder outflow, which may be caused by a pelvic tumour, faecal impaction, or prostatic hyperplasia. The patient in the scenario has no known obstructive pathology.
True incontinence is a rare form of urinary incontinence and is associated with the formation of a fistula between the bladder or the ureter and the vagina, resulting in leakage of urine through the vagina. It is associated with cases of trauma following surgery or the presence of a pelvic cancer that has invaded through the wall resulting in damage to adjacent organs.
Urge incontinence is the second most common form of urinary incontinence in women. It is defined as urinary leakage that is preceded by a strong desire to pass urine, a symptom referred to as urgency. It can be the result of detrusor instability or an overactive bladder. Management options include lifestyle modifications, bladder training, medications, and referral to secondary care for more advanced options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 68
Correct
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A 22-year-old law student, with a history of cyclical pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea not responding to paracetamol is attending her follow-up appointment to receive the histology results of her diagnostic laparoscopy. She does not want to conceive at present and uses barrier methods of contraception. She has asthma, which is well controlled with inhalers but was made worse in the past when she took some painkillers.
The histology report concludes that: ‘The peritoneal deposits, submitted in their entirety, contain evidence of endometrial glands and stroma surrounded by red blood cells and a mixed chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate’. The operation notes say that all deposits seen were removed.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP)
Explanation:Management Options for Endometriosis-Related Pain: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals
Endometriosis is a condition where endometrial tissue grows outside the uterus, causing pain and discomfort. Hormonal contraception is an effective treatment option for women who do not wish to conceive. The combined oral contraceptive pill suppresses ovarian function and limits the effect of estrogen on endometrial tissue. progesterone-containing contraceptives cause atrophy of the endometrial tissue. A trial of three months is recommended before reassessment.
Hysterectomy is indicated for adenomyosis or heavy menstrual bleeding that has not resolved with other treatments. A hysteroscopy is not necessary for a newly diagnosed young patient. A trial of ibuprofen or combination therapy is the first step in pain management, but NSAIDs are contraindicated for asthmatic patients who have already tried paracetamol.
Further laparoscopy for excision and/or ablation of endometriotic deposits is indicated if there is further disease. However, if all visible deposits were removed during diagnostic laparoscopy, a further laparoscopy is not necessary at present.
Ovarian cystectomy is recommended for women with endometriotic cysts who are concerned about fertility. Laparoscopic removal of the cyst wall can improve the chances of spontaneous pregnancy and reduce the risk of recurrence of endometriomas. These guidelines are based on NICE recommendations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 69
Correct
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Linda is a 32-year-old woman who presents to you with a 6 month history of chronic pelvic pain and dysmenorrhoea that is beginning to impact her daily life, especially at work. During further inquiry, she also reports experiencing painful bowel movements that begin just before her period and persist throughout it. You suspect endometriosis and Linda inquires about the definitive test to confirm this diagnosis.
What is the gold-standard investigation that can be performed to confirm endometriosis for Linda?Your Answer: Laparoscopic visualisation of the pelvis
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, laparoscopy is the most reliable method of diagnosing endometriosis in patients who are suspected to have the condition. Even if a transvaginal or transabdominal ultrasound appears normal, laparoscopy should still be considered. If a thorough laparoscopy is conducted and no signs of endometriosis are found, the patient should be informed that they do not have the condition and offered alternative treatment options.
Understanding Endometriosis
Endometriosis is a common condition where endometrial tissue grows outside of the uterus. It affects around 10% of women of reproductive age and can cause chronic pelvic pain, painful periods, painful intercourse, and subfertility. Other symptoms may include urinary problems and painful bowel movements. Diagnosis is typically made through laparoscopy, and treatment options depend on the severity of symptoms.
First-line treatments for symptomatic relief include NSAIDs and/or paracetamol. If these do not help, hormonal treatments such as the combined oral contraceptive pill or progestogens may be tried. If symptoms persist or fertility is a priority, referral to secondary care may be necessary. Secondary treatments may include GnRH analogues or surgery. For women trying to conceive, laparoscopic excision or ablation of endometriosis plus adhesiolysis is recommended, as well as ovarian cystectomy for endometriomas.
It is important to note that there is poor correlation between laparoscopic findings and severity of symptoms, and that there is little role for investigation in primary care. If symptoms are significant, referral for a definitive diagnosis is recommended.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 70
Correct
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A 20-year-old patient presents to you seeking advice on hormonal contraception. She reports occasional condom use and has no regular partners. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago. She has a history of menorrhagia and mild cerebral palsy affecting her lower limbs, which requires her to use a wheelchair for mobility. She is going on vacation in two days and wants a contraceptive that will start working immediately. She prefers not to have an intrauterine method of contraception. What is the most appropriate contraceptive option for her?
Your Answer: Progesterone-only pill
Explanation:The patient needs a fast-acting contraceptive method. The intrauterine device (IUD) is the quickest, but it’s not recommended due to the patient’s history of menorrhagia. The patient also prefers not to have intrauterine contraception, making the IUS and IUD less suitable. The next fastest option is the progesterone-only pill (POP), which becomes effective within 2 days if started mid-cycle. Therefore, the POP is the best choice for this patient. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) is not recommended due to the patient’s wheelchair use, and the IUS, contraceptive injection, and implant all take 7 days to become effective.
Counselling for Women Considering the progesterone-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progesterone-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 71
Correct
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A 25-year-old female visits her doctor for contraception. She has a medical history of depression and spina bifida, which requires her to use a wheelchair. Additionally, she has a family history of ovarian cancer and is a regular smoker, consuming 15 cigarettes per day. What would be a contraindication for initiating the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) in this patient?
Your Answer: Her wheelchair use
Explanation:Wheelchair users should not be prescribed the COCP as their immobility increases the risk of developing DVTs, outweighing the benefits of using this form of contraception (UKMEC 3). Past history of depression, family history of ovarian cancer, and smoking history are not significant factors in determining the suitability of COCP use.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, Breastfeeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 72
Correct
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A 55-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with a 3-month history of postmenopausal bleeding. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and her last menstrual period was 5 years ago.
On transvaginal ultrasound, the endometrial thickness measures 7mm. The pipelle biopsy results indicate an increased gland-to-stroma ratio and some nuclear atypia.
What is the best course of action for management?Your Answer: Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Explanation:For postmenopausal women with atypical endometrial hyperplasia, it is recommended to undergo a total hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy to reduce the risk of malignant progression. If bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy is not performed, there is an increased risk of ovarian malignancy. Endometrial ablation is not advised due to the risk of intrauterine adhesion formation and irreversible damage to the endometrium. In premenopausal patients with atypia or those who do not respond to medical management or have persistent bleeding, hysterectomy alone may be considered. However, the royal college of obstetrics and gynaecology green-top guidelines suggest that bilateral salpingectomy should still be considered in these patients due to the risk of further ovarian malignancy. For hyperplasia without atypia, the first-line treatment is a levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine system such as the Mirena coil.
Endometrial hyperplasia is a condition where the endometrium, the lining of the uterus, grows excessively beyond what is considered normal during the menstrual cycle. This abnormal proliferation can lead to endometrial cancer in some cases. There are four types of endometrial hyperplasia: simple, complex, simple atypical, and complex atypical. Symptoms of this condition include abnormal vaginal bleeding, such as intermenstrual bleeding.
The management of endometrial hyperplasia depends on the type and severity of the condition. For simple endometrial hyperplasia without atypia, high dose progestogens may be prescribed, and repeat sampling is recommended after 3-4 months. The levonorgestrel intra-uterine system may also be used. However, if atypia is present, hysterectomy is usually advised.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 73
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department at midnight with sudden and severe lower abdominal pain. The pain is sharp and constant, with a rating of 10/10, and is spreading to her lower back. She is unable to lie still due to the pain. She is experiencing nausea but has not vomited. Her last menstrual period was two weeks ago and was normal, and her menstrual cycle is always regular.
During the examination, her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse rate is 110 bpm, respiratory rate is 18 breaths/min, and temperature is 37.3 °C. There is tenderness in the periumbilical and right lower quadrant upon palpation. Abdominal ultrasound reveals a significant amount of free pelvic fluid.
What is the most likely organ or structure that is injured in this patient?Your Answer: Ovary
Explanation:Possible Causes of Sudden Pelvic Pain: A Differential Diagnosis
Sudden pelvic pain can be a sign of various medical conditions. In this case, the patient’s symptoms suggest ovarian torsion, a condition that occurs when the ovary twists on its blood supply, causing ischemia and infarction. The resulting pain is severe, sharp, and sudden, often accompanied by tenderness and internal bleeding. However, other possible causes of sudden pelvic pain should also be considered.
Rectal diseases or trauma are unlikely to explain the patient’s current presentation. Similarly, while appendicitis can cause abdominal pain, fever, nausea, and anorexia, the pattern of pain is different, starting as dull pain around the belly button and becoming sharp and localized to the right lower quadrant over time. Rovsing’s sign, which is pain in the right lower quadrant when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant, is often positive in appendicitis.
A ureteral stone can also cause sudden-onset pelvic and flank pain, but it is not associated with pelvic bleeding. Urinary tract stones typically cause colicky pain, which comes and goes in waves, rather than the unrelenting pain described by the patient.
Finally, a ruptured Fallopian tube can be a complication of an ectopic pregnancy, but the patient’s recent normal menstrual periods make this diagnosis less likely. In ectopic tubal pregnancy, the patient usually complains of amenorrhea, abnormal uterine bleeding, and pelvic pain of several days to weeks’ duration.
In summary, while ovarian torsion is a possible cause of the patient’s sudden pelvic pain, other conditions should also be considered and ruled out through further evaluation and testing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 74
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents to her doctor to discuss the results of her recent cervical smear. She is sexually active with one partner for the past 6 months and denies any history of sexually transmitted infections or post-coital bleeding. The results of her cervical smear show low-grade dyskaryosis and a positive human papillomavirus test. What is the next best course of action for this patient?
Your Answer: Colposcopy
Explanation:If a patient’s cervical smear shows abnormal cytology and a positive result for a high-risk strain of human papillomavirus, the next step is to refer them for colposcopy to obtain a cervical biopsy and assess for cervical cancer. This patient cannot be discharged to normal recall as they are at significant risk of developing cervical cancer. If the cytology is inadequate, it can be retested in 3 months. However, if the cytology shows low-grade dyskaryosis, colposcopy and further assessment are necessary. Delaying the repeat cytology for 6 months would not be appropriate. If the cytology is normal but the patient is positive for high-risk human papillomavirus, retesting for human papillomavirus in 12 months is appropriate. However, if abnormal cytology is present with high-risk human papillomavirus, colposcopy and further assessment are needed.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 75
Correct
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A 28-year-old investment banker has been experiencing challenges in getting pregnant after trying for a baby for more than a year. She and her partner have been directed to the Fertility Clinic for additional assessments by their General Practitioner.
Regarding the female reproductive system, which of the following statements is accurate?Your Answer: The menopause is associated with an increase in follicle-stimulating hormone
Explanation:Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction
Menopause is often associated with misconceptions about reproductive health. Here are some common misconceptions and the correct information:
Common Misconceptions about Menopause and Reproduction
1. Menopause is associated with a decrease in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).
Correction: Menopause is associated with an increase in FSH due to the loss of negative feedback from estrogen on the anterior pituitary.2. Progesterone is necessary for ovulation to take place.
Correction: Both FSH and luteinizing hormone (LH) are needed for ovulation to take place. Progesterone is necessary for preparing the uterus for implantation.3. Estrogen concentration peaks during menstruation.
Correction: Estrogen concentration peaks just before ovulation during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle.4. Ovarian tissue is the only source of estrogen production.
Correction: While ovarian tissue is the main source of estrogen production, the adrenal cortex and adipose tissue also contribute to estrogen production.5. Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the uterus.
Correction: Fertilization of the human ovum normally takes place in the outer third of the Fallopian tubes, not the uterus. The fertilized egg then implants in the uterus. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A newly registered couple comes to see you as they have been trying to have a baby for 4 months. She is 32 years old and was previously taking the oral contraceptive pill for 8 years. Her body mass index (BMI) is 27 and she is a non-smoker. She reports regular periods. He is 36 years old without medical history. His BMI 25 and he smokes five cigarettes per day.
What would you suggest next?Your Answer: Blood tests
Correct Answer: Advice about weight loss and lifestyle measures
Explanation:First-Line Treatment for Couples Trying to Conceive
When a couple is trying to conceive, lifestyle measures should be the first-line treatment. This includes weight loss and quitting smoking, as both can negatively impact fertility. It’s also important to check for folic acid intake, alcohol and drug use, previous infections, and mental health issues. If the couple is having regular sexual intercourse without contraception, 84% will become pregnant within a year and 92% within two years. Therefore, further investigations and referrals to infertility services are not recommended until after a year of trying. Blood tests are not necessary if the woman is having regular periods. Sperm analysis can be performed after a year of trying, and a female pelvic ultrasound is not necessary at this point. The focus should be on lifestyle changes to improve the chances of conception.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 77
Correct
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A gynaecologist is performing a hysterectomy for leiomyomata and menorrhagia on a 44-year-old woman. Once under anaesthesia, the patient is catheterised, and the surgeon makes a Pfannenstiel incision transversely, just superior to the pubic symphysis. After opening the parietal peritoneum, he identifies the uterus and makes a shallow, transverse incision in the visceral peritoneum on the anterior uterine wall, and then pushes this downwards to expose the lower uterus.
What is the most likely reason for this?Your Answer: The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum
Explanation:Surgical Manoeuvre for Safe Access to the Gravid Uterus
During Gynaecological surgery, a specific manoeuvre is used to safely access the gravid uterus. The bladder is reflected downwards with the peritoneum, which also displaces the distal ureters and uterine tubes. This displacement renders these structures less vulnerable to damage during the procedure. The ovarian arteries, which are branches of the aorta, are not affected by this manoeuvre. However, the uterine artery needs to be pushed down for safe ligation as the ureters typically run superior to it. The sigmoid colon is also displaced out of the operating field using this manoeuvre, reducing the risk of injury. While the ovarian arteries are unlikely to be injured during surgery as they are more lateral, the incidence of ureteric injury is 1-2% in Gynaecological surgery, with 70% of these injuries occurring during the tying off of the uterine pedicle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 78
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman presents to her doctor with complaints of hot flashes, vaginal soreness, and decreased libido. She reports that her last menstrual period was 6 months ago and suspects that she is going through menopause. The patient is interested in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) but is worried about the risk of developing venous thromboembolism (VTE). What is the safest HRT option for her in terms of VTE risk?
Your Answer: Transdermal HRT
Explanation:Adverse Effects of Hormone Replacement Therapy
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is a treatment that involves the use of a small dose of oestrogen, often combined with a progesterone in women with a uterus, to alleviate menopausal symptoms. While it can be effective in reducing symptoms such as hot flashes and vaginal dryness, HRT can also have adverse effects and potential complications.
Some common side-effects of HRT include nausea, breast tenderness, fluid retention, and weight gain. However, there are also more serious potential complications associated with HRT. For example, the use of HRT has been linked to an increased risk of breast cancer, particularly when a progesterone is added. The Women’s Health Initiative study found a relative risk of 1.26 at 5 years of developing breast cancer with HRT use. The risk of breast cancer is also related to the duration of use, and it begins to decline when HRT is stopped.
Another potential complication of HRT is an increased risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen by itself should not be given as HRT to women with a womb, as this can increase the risk of endometrial cancer. The addition of a progesterone can reduce this risk, but it is not eliminated completely. The British National Formulary states that the additional risk is eliminated if a progesterone is given continuously.
HRT has also been associated with an increased risk of venous thromboembolism (VTE), particularly when a progesterone is added. However, transdermal HRT does not appear to increase the risk of VTE. Women who are at high risk for VTE should be referred to haematology before starting any treatment, even transdermal, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE).
Finally, HRT has been linked to an increased risk of stroke and ischaemic heart disease if taken more than 10 years after menopause. It is important for women considering HRT to discuss the potential risks and benefits with their healthcare provider and make an informed decision based on their individual circumstances.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 79
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman is seeking advice on switching from the progesterone-only pill to combined oral contraception due to irregular bleeding. She is concerned about the risk of blood clotting adverse effects. What advice should be given to her regarding additional contraception when making the switch?
Your Answer: 7-days of additional barrier contraception is needed
Explanation:To ensure maximum safety when switching from a traditional POP to COCP, it is recommended to use barrier contraception for 7 days while starting the combined oral contraceptive. This is the standard duration of protection required when starting this medication outside of menstruation. It is not necessary to use barrier contraception for 10 or 14 days, as the standard recommendation is 7 days. Using barrier contraception for only 3 days is too short, as it is the duration recommended for starting a traditional progesterone-only pill. While there may be some protection, it is still advisable to use additional contraception for 7 days to prevent unwanted pregnancy.
Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman visits her GP with a complaint of hot flashes that have been bothering her for the past 2 months, particularly at night, causing sleep and work disturbances. She expresses feeling exhausted and embarrassed at work, sweating profusely during the attacks, and carrying extra clothes to change. She is emotional and shares that she has been avoiding sexual intercourse due to pain. She has no medical history and is not on any medication. Her menstrual cycle is still ongoing but has become irregular, occurring once every 2-3 months. After a thorough discussion, she decides to start HRT. What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for this patient?
Your Answer: Oestradiol transdermal patch
Correct Answer: Oestradiol one tablet daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone on the last 14 days
Explanation:Understanding Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) for perimenopausal Symptoms
perimenopausal symptoms can significantly affect a woman’s daily routine, work, and mood. Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is one of the treatment options available for managing these symptoms. However, before commencing HRT, patients need to be consulted and informed of the risks and benefits associated with this treatment.
HRT can be either oestrogen replacement only or combined. Combined HRT is given to women who have a uterus, as oestrogen alone can increase the risk of developing endometrial cancer. Combined HRT can be either cyclical or continuous, depending on the patient’s menopausal status.
For women with irregular menses, a cyclical regime is indicated. This involves taking an oestrogen tablet once daily for a 3-month period, with norethisterone added on the last 14 days. Patients on this regime have a period every three months. Once a woman has completed a year on cyclical therapy or has established menopause, then she can change to combined continuous HRT.
It is important to note that oestrogen-only HRT is only given to women who have had a hysterectomy. Oestrogen therapy alone increases the risk of developing endometrial hyperplasia and endometrial carcinoma. Therefore, in women who have a uterus, combined HRT, with the addition of a progesterone, is preferred to reduce this risk.
In summary, HRT is a treatment option for perimenopausal symptoms. The type of HRT prescribed depends on the patient’s menopausal status and whether they have a uterus. Patients need to be informed of the risks and benefits associated with HRT before commencing treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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