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  • Question 1 - A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old female comes in for a follow-up appointment. She had a Nexplanon implanted six months ago but has been experiencing light spotting on approximately 50% of days. Her medical history includes a first trimester abortion two years ago, but otherwise, she has no significant medical issues. A vaginal examination reveals no abnormalities, and she recently tested negative for sexually transmitted infections. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a progesterone-only pill

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a 3 month course of a combined oral contraceptive pill

      Explanation:

      A cervical smear is not a diagnostic test and should only be conducted as a part of a screening program. An 18-year-old’s risk of cervical cancer is already low, and a normal vaginal examination can further reduce it.

      If controlling bleeding is the goal, the combined oral contraceptive pill is more effective than the progesterone-only pill.

      Implanon and Nexplanon are both subdermal contraceptive implants that slowly release the hormone etonogestrel to prevent ovulation and thicken cervical mucous. Nexplanon is an updated version of Implanon with a redesigned applicator to prevent deep insertions and is radiopaque for easier location. It is highly effective with a failure rate of 0.07/100 women-years and lasts for 3 years. It doesn’t contain estrogen, making it suitable for women with a history of thromboembolism or migraines. It can be inserted immediately after a termination of pregnancy. However, a trained professional is needed for insertion and removal, and additional contraception is required for the first 7 days if not inserted on days 1-5 of the menstrual cycle.

      The main disadvantage of these implants is irregular and heavy bleeding, which can be managed with a co-prescription of the combined oral contraceptive pill. Other adverse effects include headache, nausea, and breast pain. Enzyme-inducing drugs may reduce the efficacy of Nexplanon, and women should switch to a different method or use additional contraception until 28 days after stopping the treatment. Contraindications include ischaemic heart disease/stroke, unexplained vaginal bleeding, past breast cancer, severe liver cirrhosis, and liver cancer. Breast cancer is a UKMEC 4 condition, meaning it represents an unacceptable risk if the contraceptive method is used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      123.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, worried about potential hepatitis C infection....

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, worried about potential hepatitis C infection. He has received multiple tattoos, all of which were done in the United Kingdom (UK). He has previously been vaccinated against hepatitis B. Upon examination, there are no indications of liver disease. What is the most suitable management advice to give this patient?

      Your Answer: Specific hepatitis C tests are only necessary if liver function is abnormal

      Correct Answer: He should be tested for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV)

      Explanation:

      Screening and Testing for Hepatitis C Infection

      Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can cause liver damage and other serious health problems. It is important to screen and test for hepatitis C in certain individuals, particularly those with unexplained abnormal liver function tests or who have undergone procedures with unsterilized equipment.

      Testing for anti-hepatitis C virus (anti-HCV) serology is recommended for those suspected of having HCV infection, although false negatives can occur in the acute stage of infection. A liver ultrasound (US) may be used to look for evidence of cirrhosis, but is not a diagnostic tool for hepatitis C.

      Screening for hepatitis C is necessary for those who have undergone tattooing, ear piercing, body piercing, or acupuncture with unsterile equipment, as these procedures can put a person at risk of acquiring the infection.

      Testing for HCV deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is necessary to confirm ongoing hepatitis C infection in those with positive serology. Chronic hepatitis C is considered in those in whom HCV RNA persists, which occurs in approximately 80% of cases. Normal liver function tests do not exclude hepatitis C infection, and deranged LFTs should be a reason to consider screening for the virus.

      In summary, screening and testing for hepatitis C is important for those at risk of infection or with unexplained abnormal liver function tests. Testing for HCV DNA is necessary to confirm ongoing infection, and normal LFTs do not exclude the possibility of hepatitis C.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      139.7
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You are investigating an elderly patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result...

    Incorrect

    • You are investigating an elderly patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 1300 ng/litre.

      Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?

      Your Answer: Referral to cardiology within 2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Repeat test in 4 weeks

      Explanation:

      NT-proBNP Levels and Referral Guidelines for Heart Failure

      An NT-proBNP level between 400 and 2000 ng/litre should prompt a referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 6 weeks. However, if the NT-proBNP level is above 2000 ng/litre, urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks is necessary due to the poor prognosis associated with very high levels. On the other hand, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use (diuretics, ACE-I, beta blockers, and spironolactone) can reduce the NT-proBNP reading and may affect the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer
      63.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone...

    Correct

    • You encounter a 49-year-old woman displaying signs of depression. She had previously undergone effective pharmacological treatment for a major depressive episode using paroxetine, but experienced severe withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuing it. To avoid such symptoms, you decide to initiate fluoxetine therapy. What is the reason for fluoxetine having a lower incidence of withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Fluoxetine has a longer half life than other SSRIs

      Explanation:

      Compared to other commonly used SSRIs, fluoxetine has a longer half-life of 6-7 days, which results in fewer withdrawal symptoms. However, when switching from fluoxetine to other antidepressants, a longer transition period is necessary. It should be noted that fluoxetine’s potency as an enzyme inhibitor is not relevant in this context, and the other options are incorrect.

      Guidelines for Switching Antidepressants

      When switching antidepressants, it is important to follow specific guidelines to ensure a safe and effective transition. If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to another selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), the first SSRI should be gradually withdrawn before starting the alternative SSRI. However, if switching from fluoxetine to another SSRI, a gap of 4-7 days should be left after withdrawal due to its long half-life.

      When switching from an SSRI to a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA), cross-tapering is recommended. This involves slowly reducing the current drug dose while slowly increasing the dose of the new drug. The exception to this is fluoxetine, which should be withdrawn before starting TCAs.

      If switching from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline, or paroxetine to venlafaxine, it is important to cross-taper cautiously. Starting with a low dose of venlafaxine (37.5 mg daily) and increasing very slowly is recommended. The same approach should be taken when switching from fluoxetine to venlafaxine.

      Overall, following these guidelines can help minimize the risk of adverse effects and ensure a smooth transition when switching antidepressants.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      110.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of headaches and unilateral sensorineural deafness. She reports that her headaches have started recently and are accompanied by vomiting and a change in posture. Additionally, she experiences pulse synchronous tinnitus and feels that her headaches are becoming more severe.

      Upon examination, there is no papilloedema and her blood pressure is within normal limits. The patient has been taking oral contraceptive pills for the past five years.

      What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Non-urgent referral to a neurologist

      Correct Answer: Urgent direct access MRI scan of the brain (or CT scan if MRI is contraindicated) (to be performed within 2 weeks)

      Explanation:

      Suspected Intracranial Tumour in a Middle-Aged Woman

      The patient in question is a middle-aged woman who is showing signs of a unilateral Intracranial tumour, such as an acoustic neuroma. However, given her age, a more aggressive cerebellopontine angle tumour may be more likely. The absence of papilloedema doesn’t rule out the possibility of an Intracranial tumour.

      According to NICE guidelines, urgent direct access MRI or CT scan should be considered within two weeks for adults with progressive, subacute loss of central neurological function to assess for brain or central nervous system cancer. While admitting the patient as an emergency may be a practical option, adhering to NICE guidance suggests that an urgent direct access MRI is the most appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      147.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and...

    Correct

    • A 61-year-old man with no previous history of note complains of dribbling and a lopsided smile. On examination, he has lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer: He should be prescribed high-dose prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Facial Nerve Palsy: Causes, Treatment, and Prognosis

      Facial nerve palsy, also known as Bell’s palsy, is a condition that affects the muscles of the face and can cause drooping, weakness, or paralysis. Lower motor neurone (LMN) facial nerve palsy is the most common type and has a good prognosis, with most cases resolving spontaneously within three weeks. While the cause is often unknown, it is believed to be related to a viral infection. Treatment with high-dose prednisolone has been shown to improve outcomes, with up to half of patients who do not spontaneously recover achieving full resolution with steroids.

      Upper motor neurone palsies, on the other hand, are associated with preservation of frowning and should be urgently referred for imaging and possible thrombolysis if a stroke is suspected. In an upper motor neurone lesion, the upper facial muscles are partially spared, allowing the patient to wrinkle their forehead.

      It is important to carefully examine the ear in cases of LMN palsy, as it may be a sign of zoster or middle ear infection (Ramsay-Hunt syndrome). In these cases, a combination of prednisolone and acyclovir is typically given.

      Overall, while facial nerve palsy can be a concerning condition, the prognosis is generally good for LMN palsy and prompt treatment can improve outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      127.7
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 40-year-old male presents four days after returning from Thailand with complaints of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old male presents four days after returning from Thailand with complaints of severe muscle ache, fever, and headache. During the examination, a widespread maculopapular rash is observed. The following blood results are obtained: Hb 160 g/l, Plt 98 *109/l, WBC 2.5 *109/l, ALT 142 iu/l, and malaria film is negative. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dengue fever

      Explanation:

      A returning traveller presenting with retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia is likely to have dengue fever. The characteristic low platelet count and elevated transaminase level support this diagnosis. The 2019 RCGP Curriculum includes Fever in the returning traveller and its possible causes, such as malaria, dengue, typhoid/paratyphoid, chikungunya, and viral haemorrhagic fevers, in its Knowledge and skills guide.

      Understanding Dengue Fever

      Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.

      Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).

      Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Disease And Travel Health
      114
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents with a painful and red right eye that started 10 days ago. He complains of a foreign body sensation but cannot recall any incident of something entering his eye. His eye is swollen and tearing, and he experiences blurred vision and light sensitivity. Despite washing his eye with water daily, there has been no improvement. He has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and hypertension and wears contact lenses regularly. He denies having a history of cold sores.

      During the examination, the patient's right eye appears diffusely red, and his visual acuity is slightly reduced. The pupil reaction is normal, but there is a small, circular area on the cornea that takes up the dye.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Urgent, same day ophthalmology assessment

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms and signs that are consistent with a corneal ulcer, the most appropriate course of action is to urgently refer them to an ophthalmologist for assessment on the same day. Typically, a corneal ulcer is seen in patients who wear contact lenses and experience a foreign body sensation in the eye, along with a red eye and an ulcer on staining. While ophthalmic herpes may present similarly, the ulcer would be dendritic, and the patient would have a history of facial herpes. In such cases, the treatment involves aciclovir and topical ganciclovir, along with same-day ophthalmology assessment.

      A corneal ulcer is a condition where there is a defect in the cornea, usually caused by an infection. This is different from a corneal abrasion, which is a defect in the cornea caused by physical trauma. Risk factors for corneal ulcers include using contact lenses and having a vitamin A deficiency, which is more common in developing countries.

      The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can be caused by bacterial, fungal, viral, or Acanthamoeba infections. Bacterial keratitis, fungal keratitis, and viral keratitis (such as herpes simplex or herpes zoster) can lead to a dendritic ulcer. Acanthamoeba keratitis is often associated with contact lens use.

      Symptoms of a corneal ulcer include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and watering of the eye. The cornea may also show focal fluorescein staining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      161.2
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man presents with macroscopic haematuria and is found to have a serum creatinine level of 160 µmol/l (60-120 µmol/l).
      Select from the list the single feature that would be most suggestive of a diagnosis of nephritic syndrome rather than nephrotic syndrome.

      Your Answer: Oliguria

      Explanation:

      Understanding Nephrotic and Nephritic Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes

      Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, oedema, and hyperlipidaemia, while nephritic syndrome is defined by acute kidney injury, hypertension, oliguria, and urinary sediment. Both syndromes can be caused by various renal diseases and are a constellation of several symptoms.

      In nephritic syndrome, increased cellularity within the glomeruli and a leucocytic infiltrate cause an inflammatory reaction that injures capillary walls, leading to red cells in urine and decreased glomerular filtration rate. Hypertension is likely due to fluid retention and increased renin release. Examples of conditions causing nephritic syndrome include diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy, and lupus nephritis.

      Acute nephritic syndrome is the most serious and requires immediate referral to secondary care, while patients with nephrotic syndrome will also be referred but usually do not require acute admission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      132.5
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - What is the best description of a retrospective study from the following list...

    Correct

    • What is the best description of a retrospective study from the following list of statements?

      Your Answer: A study whereby patients who have had a myocardial infarction are interviewed to assess exposure to a variety of factors in the 10 years before their cardiac event

      Explanation:

      Understanding Retrospective Studies: Examining Risk Factors for Myocardial Infarction

      Retrospective studies are a type of research that looks back in time to examine exposure to suspected risk or protective factors in relation to a specific outcome. In the case of a study on myocardial infarction, the outcome is established at the beginning of the study, and subjects are compared with controls who are matched for age and sex but have not experienced a heart attack.

      However, retrospective studies are often criticized for introducing bias that can lead to errors in the results. This is because participants are asked to recall events from the past, which can be influenced by various factors such as memory lapses, social desirability bias, and other cognitive biases.

      Despite these limitations, retrospective studies can still provide valuable insights into the potential risk factors for myocardial infarction and other health outcomes. By carefully designing the study and minimizing sources of bias, researchers can obtain reliable data that can inform future prevention and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      127.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a painless lump in his left lower eyelid that has been present for two weeks. Upon examination, a small lump is observed, which is more noticeable when the eyelid is turned inside out. There is no discharge or redness. The doctor suspects a meibomian cyst. What is the best course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Advise warm compresses + topical chloramphenicol + review in one month

      Correct Answer: Advise warm compresses + review in one month

      Explanation:

      Eyelid problems are quite common and can include a variety of issues such as blepharitis, styes, chalazions, entropion, and ectropion. Blepharitis is an inflammation of the eyelid margins that can cause redness in the eye. Styes are infections that occur in the glands of the eyelids, with external styes affecting the sebum-producing glands and internal styes affecting the Meibomian glands. Chalazions, also known as Meibomian cysts, are retention cysts that present as painless lumps in the eyelid. While most cases of chalazions resolve on their own, some may require surgical drainage.

      When it comes to managing styes, there are different types to consider. External styes are usually caused by a staphylococcal infection in the glands of Zeis or Moll, while internal styes are caused by an infection in the Meibomian glands. Treatment typically involves hot compresses and pain relief, with topical antibiotics only recommended if there is an associated conjunctivitis.

      Overall, eyelid problems can be uncomfortable and even painful, but with proper management and treatment, they can be resolved effectively. It’s important to seek medical attention if symptoms persist or worsen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Eyes And Vision
      99
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is seen feeling generally unwell....

    Incorrect

    • A female patient who is 36 weeks pregnant is seen feeling generally unwell. She has been vomiting and is complaining of right upper quadrant pain. Her blood pressure is 144/94 and urinalysis shows 2+ protein. Urgent blood tests are as follows.

      Full blood count (FBC):
      Haemoglobin 103 g/L (115-160)
      White cell count 10.9 ×109L (4-11)
      Platelets 78 ×109L (150-400)

      Renal function:
      Serum sodium +140 mmol/L (135-146)
      Serum potassium +4.4 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Urea 6.4 mmol/L (3-7)
      Creatinine 86 µmol/L (79-118)

      Liver function:
      Bilirubin 38 µmol/L (0-18)
      Alanine aminotransferase 158 U/L (5-40)
      Serum alkaline phosphatase 280 U/L (35-100)
      Serum amylase 60 U/L (<160)
      Serum lactate dehydrogenase 620 U/L (95-195)

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis

      Explanation:

      HELLP Syndrome: A Dangerous Condition in Pregnant Women

      HELLP syndrome is a serious condition that can occur in pregnant women who have pre-eclampsia or eclampsia. It is characterized by liver damage and abnormalities in blood clotting, which can lead to serious complications for both the mother and the baby.

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome include hypertension, right upper quadrant/epigastric pain, sickness/vomiting, and oedema. Haemolysis can cause anaemia and increase bilirubin levels, while elevated liver enzymes and low platelet counts are also common.

      It’s important to note that even mild elevations in blood pressure can lead to HELLP syndrome in some cases. Pregnant women with a diastolic BP of 90 or more should be evaluated for a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy. Additionally, changes in blood pressure should be monitored closely, as a significant rise in diastolic or systolic BP can be a warning sign of HELLP syndrome.

      Overall, early detection and treatment of HELLP syndrome is crucial for the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. If you are pregnant and experiencing any of the symptoms associated with HELLP syndrome, it’s important to seek medical attention right away.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      97.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A random selection of 800 adults over the age of 60 agree to...

    Correct

    • A random selection of 800 adults over the age of 60 agree to participate in a study of the possible effects of drug Y.

      They are followed prospectively for a period of ten years to see if there is an association between the incidence of osteoporosis and the use of drug Y.

      Which type of study is described here?

      Your Answer: Cohort study

      Explanation:

      Types of Epidemiological Studies

      Cohort studies, also known as longitudinal studies, involve the follow-up of individuals over a defined period of time. Prospective cohort studies follow individuals who are exposed and not exposed to a putative risk factor, and their disease experience is compared at the end of the follow-up period. Historical cohort studies, on the other hand, identify a cohort for whom records of exposure status are available from the past, and their disease experience is measured after a substantial period of time has elapsed since exposure.

      Case-control studies, on the other hand, compare patients who have the disease with those who do not have the disease and look retrospectively at their exposure to risk factors. Cross-over studies are similar to longitudinal studies, but the interventions given to each group are crossed over at a set time in the trial design. Finally, cross-sectional studies analyze data at a certain point in time of a certain population.

      One of the best studies for statistical significance is the randomized controlled clinical trial. Understanding the different types of epidemiological studies is crucial in designing and conducting research that can provide valuable insights into the causes and prevention of diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
      48.8
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  • Question 14 - A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man comes in for his annual heart failure check-up. He reports feeling physically well and is able to perform all his daily activities without any chest symptoms.

      All his vital signs are within normal limits, with a heart rate of 76 beats per minute and blood pressure of 135/80 mmHg. His weight has remained stable since his last visit.

      During the examination, his pulse is regular, and his heart sounds are normal. There is no raised JVP, and his chest is clear. There is minimal pitting edema around both ankles.

      Reviewing his heart failure medications, he is currently taking:

      - Ramipril 10 mg once daily
      - Bisoprolol 10 mg once daily
      - Furosemide 40 mg once a day

      Assuming there are no contraindications and with the patient's consent, what would be the most appropriate next step to take during his review?

      Your Answer: Ensure patient is listed for annual influenza vaccination

      Explanation:

      As part of the comprehensive lifestyle approach to managing heart failure, it is recommended to offer an annual influenza vaccine. While pneumococcal vaccination should also be provided to patients with heart failure, it doesn’t need to be administered every year. The patient in question is already taking the maximum doses of ramipril and bisoprolol approved for heart failure treatment, and their blood pressure is well-managed with their current medications. Currently, there are no indications that increasing the dose of furosemide would benefit the patient’s heart failure management, and it may even cause harm such as electrolyte imbalances.

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      102
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 7-year-old boy has a problem with bed-wetting. This has been a long-term...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy has a problem with bed-wetting. This has been a long-term problem and he is otherwise fit and well.
      Which of the following features of this condition would necessitate the need for urinalysis?

      Your Answer: Daytime symptoms

      Explanation:

      When to Perform Urinalysis for Bed-Wetting: NICE Guidelines

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines on when to perform urinalysis for bed-wetting. According to NICE, urinalysis is only necessary if bed-wetting has started recently, there are daytime symptoms, signs of ill health or urinary tract infection, or a history of diabetes. Daytime symptoms may indicate a bladder disorder and require further investigation or referral.

      Bed-wetting that occurs soon after going to bed and a large volume of urine in the first few hours of the night are typical and do not require urinalysis. However, severe bed-wetting that occurs every night may require active measures to promote resolution.

      NICE advises against routine urinalysis in children with bed-wetting, as up to 5% of 10-year-old children may still wet the bed. Therefore, urinalysis should only be performed when necessary based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman with asthma presents with a 4-day history of increasing wheeze, dry cough and chest tightness. She has been needing to use her salbutamol up to 5 times a day to relieve her symptoms.

      She is alert and able to complete full sentences at rest. Her vital signs are as follows: temperature 37.2ºC, pulse rate 120/min, blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, respiratory rate 26/min, oxygen saturation 94% in room air. On auscultation, she has polyphonic wheeze throughout. Her peak expiratory flow reading is 380 L/min (best 550 L/min).

      How many features of acute severe asthma does she have?

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      To alleviate his symptoms, the patient is taking his medication three times daily. Despite his condition, he remains alert and capable of speaking in complete sentences while at rest. His vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37.1ºC, pulse rate of 116/min, blood pressure of 118/70 mmHg, and respiratory rate of 2.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified into moderate, severe, life-threatening, and near-fatal categories by the British Thoracic Society (BTS). Patients with life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen sats < 92%, and a chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless there is life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment. Admission is necessary for all patients with life-threatening asthma, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy is important for hypoxaemic patients, and bronchodilation with short-acting beta₂-agonists (SABA) is recommended. All patients should be given 40-50 mg of prednisolone orally (PO) daily, and nebulised ipratropium bromide may be used in severe or life-threatening cases. The evidence base for IV magnesium sulphate is mixed, and IV aminophylline may be considered following consultation with senior medical staff. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include being stable on their discharge medication, inhaler technique checked and recorded, and PEF >75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
      112.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after sustaining a Colles fracture during a fall while on vacation in Italy. The fracture clinic diagnosed her with a fragility fracture and advised her to see her GP in the UK for bone protection. She has no family history of hip fracture or osteoporosis, is a non-smoker, and doesn't drink alcohol. Her BMI is 22 kg/m2, and she has no other significant medical issues.

      What is the most appropriate next step in her management?

      Your Answer: Calculate her QFracture score then arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan depending on results

      Correct Answer: Arrange a dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DEXA) scan

      Explanation:

      As per the current NICE CKS guidance, individuals who are above 50 years of age and have a previous fragility fracture should be referred for a DEXA scan to measure bone mineral density (BMD). It is not necessary to calculate their QFracture risk or FRAX score before arranging the scan. Even if their QFracture risk is low, they are still at risk due to their history of fragility fracture. For patients over 75 years of age who have had a fragility fracture, treatment (oral bisphosphonates as first line) should be initiated immediately without the need for a DEXA scan. However, it is important to note that this differs from the NOGG guidelines 2014, which recommend treatment for all women over 50 years who have had a fragility fracture.

      Osteoporosis is a condition that weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. When a patient experiences a fragility fracture, which is a fracture that occurs from a low-impact injury or fall, it is important to assess their risk for osteoporosis and subsequent fractures. The management of patients following a fragility fracture depends on their age.

      For patients who are 75 years of age or older, they are presumed to have underlying osteoporosis and should be started on first-line therapy, such as an oral bisphosphonate, without the need for a DEXA scan. However, the 2014 NOGG guidelines suggest that treatment should be started in all women over the age of 50 years who’ve had a fragility fracture, although BMD measurement may sometimes be appropriate, particularly in younger postmenopausal women.

      For patients who are under the age of 75 years, a DEXA scan should be arranged to assess their bone mineral density. These results can then be entered into a FRAX assessment, along with the fact that they’ve had a fracture, to determine their ongoing fracture risk. Based on this assessment, appropriate treatment can be initiated to prevent future fractures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
      84.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You are asked to see a 25-year-old patient who has presented with a...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a 25-year-old patient who has presented with a pigmented skin lesion on his back. He is concerned because his father was treated for a melanoma at the age of 38.

      The presence of which of the following risk factors confers the greatest risk of developing a melanoma?

      Your Answer: Family history of melanoma in a first degree relative

      Explanation:

      Risk Factors for Melanoma

      When evaluating a pigmented skin lesion, it is important to consider any risk factors for melanoma. There are several established risk factors, including having more than 100 common moles larger than 2 mm in size, which confers the greatest risk with an odds ratio of 7.6-7.7. Other risk factors include a family history of melanoma in a first degree relative (odds ratio of 1.8), the presence of actinic lentigines (odds ratio of 1.9-3.5), red or light-colored hair (odds ratio of 1.4-3.5), and skin that doesn’t tan easily (odds ratio of 1.98). It is important to consider these risk factors when assessing a pigmented skin lesion to determine the likelihood of melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
      87.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction....

    Correct

    • You are contemplating prescribing sildenafil to a patient who is experiencing erectile dysfunction. He suffered a heart attack earlier this year but is not presently taking nitrates or nicorandil. What is the duration of time that NICE suggests we wait after a heart attack before prescribing a phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitor?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for the secondary prevention of MI. Patients who have had an MI should be offered dual antiplatelet therapy, ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, and statins. Lifestyle changes such as following a Mediterranean-style diet and engaging in regular exercise are also recommended. Sexual activity may resume after four weeks, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used after six months, but caution should be exercised in patients taking nitrates or nicorandil.

      Dual antiplatelet therapy is now the standard treatment for most patients who have had an acute coronary syndrome. Ticagrelor and prasugrel are now more commonly used as ADP-receptor inhibitors. The NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend adding ticagrelor to aspirin for medically managed patients and prasugrel or ticagrelor for those who have undergone percutaneous coronary intervention. The second antiplatelet should be stopped after 12 months, but this may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events.

      For patients who have had an acute MI and have symptoms and/or signs of heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction, treatment with an aldosterone antagonist such as eplerenone should be initiated within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy. Proper management and adherence to these guidelines can significantly reduce the risk of further complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man attends his general practice surgery for his annual review. He has hypertension, depression, type II diabetes and benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH).
      On examination, he is found to have an estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (normal range: > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2).
      What is the most appropriate medication to reduce given this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Finasteride

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Medication Management in Renal Impairment: A Case Study

      In managing patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of medication use. In this case study, we will review the medication regimen of a patient with an eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 and discuss any necessary adjustments.

      Metformin carries a risk of lactic acidosis and should be avoided if the patient’s eGFR is ≤ 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. The dose should be reviewed if the eGFR is ≤ 45 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Treatment should also be withdrawn in patients at risk of tissue hypoxia or sudden deterioration in renal function.

      Sertraline, a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor used in the treatment of depression, can be used with caution in renal failure and doesn’t require dose reduction.

      Finasteride, used to treat BPH, doesn’t require dose adjustment in those with renal failure.

      Tamsulosin, also used to treat BPH, should be used with caution in patients with an eGFR level < 10 ml/min per 1.73 m2. However, this patient's eGFR level of 36 ml/min per 1.73 m2 doesn't meet this threshold, so no adjustment is necessary at this time. Nifedipine, used to treat hypertension and angina, doesn’t require dose modification in those with renal impairment. In conclusion, medication management in renal impairment requires careful consideration of each patient’s individual case and potential risks and benefits of medication use. Close monitoring and regular review of medication regimens are essential to ensure optimal patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      162.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/1) 0%
People With Long Term Conditions Including Cancer (0/1) 0%
Mental Health (1/1) 100%
Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing (0/1) 0%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Infectious Disease And Travel Health (1/1) 100%
Eyes And Vision (1/2) 50%
Kidney And Urology (1/2) 50%
Population Health (2/2) 100%
Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular Health (2/2) 100%
Children And Young People (1/1) 100%
Respiratory Health (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal Health (0/1) 0%
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